ECU Nursing Practice Quiz
What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate?
A) 8-16 breaths per minute
B) 12-20 breaths per minute
C) 18-26 breaths per minute
D) 24-30 breaths per minute
What is the primary purpose of therapeutic communication in nursing?
A) Providing instructions to patients
B) Encouraging patients to express their feelings
C) Diagnosing medical conditions
D) Giving patients direct solutions
Which action is most important when administering medications via a nasogastric (NG) tube?
A) Flushing the tube with water after medication administration
B) Mixing all medications together before administration
C) Skipping the flush if the tube is already clear
D) Keeping the patient supine during administration
What is the first step in the nursing process?
A) Planning
B) Diagnosis
C) Evaluation
D) Assessment
Which infection control precaution is used for tuberculosis (TB)?
A) Contact precautions
B) Droplet precautions
C) Airborne precautions
D) Standard precautions
Which of the following signs indicates hypoglycemia?
A) Dry skin
B) Tachycardia and confusion
C) Deep, labored breathing
D) Fruity-smelling breath
What is the normal range for serum potassium levels?
A) 2.5-3.5 mEq/L
B) 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
C) 5.5-6.5 mEq/L
D) 7.0-8.0 mEq/L
What is the main side effect of opioid medications?
A) Hypertension
B) Respiratory depression
C) Tachycardia
D) Increased urine output
Which heart sound is associated with heart failure?
A) S1
B) S2
C) S3
D) S4
Which patient position is best for preventing aspiration during feeding?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler’s
C) High Fowler’s
D) Trendelenburg
What is a common symptom of left-sided heart failure?
A) Peripheral edema
B) Jugular vein distention
C) Pulmonary congestion
D) Hepatomegaly
What is the maximum amount of time a peripheral IV site should remain before it is changed?
A) 24 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 72 hours
D) 96 hours
What is the antidote for warfarin toxicity?
A) Vitamin B12
B) Vitamin K
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Calcium gluconate
Which is an early sign of hypoxia?
A) Cyanosis
B) Restlessness
C) Bradycardia
D) Hypotension
Which type of shock is associated with widespread infection?
A) Cardiogenic shock
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Septic shock
What is the best way to assess pain in a non-verbal patient?
A) Assume no pain if the patient is not crying
B) Use a pain scale specific for non-verbal patients
C) Observe vital signs only
D) Ask family members about the patient’s pain level
Which nursing action reduces the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
A) Keeping the drainage bag at bed level
B) Performing hand hygiene before catheter care
C) Avoiding catheter care unless it appears soiled
D) Emptying the bag every 12 hours
What is the normal range for blood pH?
A) 6.5-7.0
B) 7.0-7.2
C) 7.35-7.45
D) 7.45-7.55
Which electrolyte imbalance is a common cause of cardiac arrhythmias?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypophosphatemia
When performing CPR on an adult, what is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio?
A) 15:2
B) 20:1
C) 30:2
D) 40:2
What is a priority nursing intervention for a patient with a seizure?
A) Insert a bite block
B) Restrain the patient
C) Place the patient in a side-lying position
D) Call for immediate intubation
Which stage of pressure injury is characterized by full-thickness skin loss with visible fat?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
What is the normal value for fasting blood glucose?
A) 50-70 mg/dL
B) 70-100 mg/dL
C) 110-140 mg/dL
D) 140-180 mg/dL
What is the most accurate method of checking nasogastric tube placement?
A) X-ray
B) Injecting air and listening for a sound
C) Observing for gastric contents
D) Checking pH of aspirated fluid
Which of the following is a risk factor for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Regular ambulation
B) Dehydration
C) Low body mass index
D) Hypotension
Which vaccine prevents cervical cancer?
A) Hepatitis B vaccine
B) MMR vaccine
C) HPV vaccine
D) Varicella vaccine
What is the appropriate size needle for an intramuscular injection in an adult?
A) 18-gauge, ½ inch
B) 22-gauge, 1-1½ inch
C) 25-gauge, 5/8 inch
D) 28-gauge, ½ inch
Which laboratory test is most specific for kidney function?
A) Hematocrit
B) Serum creatinine
C) Potassium levels
D) Glucose levels
What is the best site for IM injections in infants?
A) Deltoid
B) Vastus lateralis
C) Gluteus maximus
D) Rectus femoris
Which of the following is an adverse effect of loop diuretics?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Ototoxicity
C) Hypertension
D) Constipation
What is the correct term for a heart rate below 60 beats per minute?
A) Tachycardia
B) Arrhythmia
C) Bradycardia
D) Fibrillation
Which lab value is the best indicator of long-term blood glucose control?
A) Fasting blood glucose
B) Random blood glucose
C) Hemoglobin A1C
D) Serum insulin
Which type of IV fluid is considered isotonic?
A) 0.45% sodium chloride
B) Lactated Ringer’s
C) 3% sodium chloride
D) 5% dextrose in water
Which assessment finding is consistent with dehydration?
A) Increased blood pressure
B) Bounding pulse
C) Dry mucous membranes
D) Edema
What is the recommended site for subcutaneous injections?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Upper abdomen
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Gluteus maximus
What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with suspected anaphylaxis?
A) Administer oxygen
B) Start an IV line
C) Administer epinephrine
D) Place the patient in a prone position
What is a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Weight loss
C) Immunosuppression
D) Bradycardia
Which of the following is a sign of Cushing’s syndrome?
A) Moon face and buffalo hump
B) Low blood pressure
C) Weight loss
D) Hyperpigmentation of skin
What is the most important nursing intervention during a blood transfusion reaction?
A) Increase the transfusion rate
B) Flush the IV with saline
C) Stop the transfusion immediately
D) Administer antihistamines
Which pain scale is most appropriate for a 2-year-old child?
A) Numeric Rating Scale
B) Visual Analog Scale
C) FLACC Scale
D) Faces Pain Scale
What is a key side effect of lithium therapy?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Thyroid dysfunction
D) Hypercalcemia
What is the priority action for a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury?
A) Assess airway and breathing
B) Insert a urinary catheter
C) Logroll the patient onto their side
D) Apply a cervical collar
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause muscle tetany?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypophosphatemia
What is the first priority in the event of a fire in a hospital?
A) Extinguish the fire
B) Rescue patients in immediate danger
C) Pull the fire alarm
D) Close all windows
What is the normal range for urine output in adults per hour?
A) 10-20 mL/hour
B) 20-30 mL/hour
C) 30-50 mL/hour
D) 60-80 mL/hour
Which dietary recommendation is appropriate for a patient with renal failure?
A) High protein, high potassium
B) Low protein, low potassium
C) High calcium, high sodium
D) Low calcium, high phosphorus
What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with neutropenia?
A) Encourage a high-protein diet
B) Provide meticulous hand hygiene
C) Administer diuretics as prescribed
D) Allow unrestricted visitors
Which finding indicates digoxin toxicity?
A) Tachycardia
B) Yellow or blurred vision
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Increased urine output
What is the normal range for serum magnesium?
A) 0.5-1.0 mg/dL
B) 1.5-2.5 mg/dL
C) 3.0-4.0 mg/dL
D) 4.5-5.5 mg/dL
Which patient is at greatest risk for pressure injury?
A) A 25-year-old postoperative patient ambulating frequently
B) A 45-year-old patient with controlled diabetes
C) An 80-year-old immobile patient with poor nutrition
D) A 60-year-old patient with hypertension
Which medication is given to reverse opioid overdose?
A) Naloxone
B) Flumazenil
C) Atropine
D) Epinephrine
What is the proper order for donning personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A) Mask, gown, gloves, goggles
B) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
C) Gloves, gown, mask, goggles
D) Goggles, mask, gown, gloves
Which is a primary symptom of right-sided heart failure?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Ascites
C) Hypertension
D) Wheezing
Which lab value is expected in a patient with anemia?
A) Low hemoglobin
B) High hematocrit
C) Increased platelet count
D) Low WBC count
What is the priority nursing action for a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?
A) Monitor for signs of infection
B) Restrict fluid intake
C) Check bowel sounds every hour
D) Flush the line with saline every shift
Which is the primary reason for administering oxygen to a patient with COPD?
A) Increase oxygen saturation to 100%
B) Prevent carbon dioxide retention
C) Correct hypoxemia
D) Promote bronchodilation
What is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?
A) Supine
B) High Fowler’s
C) Prone
D) Trendelenburg
What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient with a chest tube?
A) Clamp the tube every 2 hours
B) Ensure the tube remains below chest level
C) Fill the water seal chamber with saline
D) Frequently disconnect the tube to check patency
Which of the following medications is classified as a loop diuretic?
A) Spironolactone
B) Furosemide
C) Hydrochlorothiazide
D) Mannitol
Which type of isolation is required for a patient with tuberculosis?
A) Droplet
B) Contact
C) Airborne
D) Protective
Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with prolonged vomiting?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypocalcemia
What is the antidote for heparin overdose?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Activated charcoal
D) Naloxone
Which symptom is most indicative of a urinary tract infection?
A) Decreased urine output
B) Proteinuria
C) Dysuria
D) Hematuria
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) used for?
A) Assessing pain intensity
B) Measuring level of consciousness
C) Evaluating motor strength
D) Determining respiratory function
What is the primary concern with a patient who has hyperglycemia?
A) Dehydration
B) Weight gain
C) Hypotension
D) Tachycardia
What is the normal range for arterial blood pH?
A) 7.25–7.35
B) 7.35–7.45
C) 7.45–7.55
D) 7.55–7.65
Which vital sign is most important to monitor when administering opioids?
A) Heart rate
B) Respiratory rate
C) Blood pressure
D) Temperature
What is the most common complication of immobility?
A) Hyperthermia
B) Pressure injuries
C) Increased metabolic rate
D) Muscle hypertrophy
Which type of insulin has the fastest onset of action?
A) Regular insulin
B) NPH insulin
C) Lispro insulin
D) Glargine insulin
What is the priority nursing action for a patient having a seizure?
A) Place a padded tongue blade in the mouth
B) Restrain the patient’s movements
C) Protect the patient from injury
D) Administer oxygen immediately
Which lab result indicates acute kidney injury?
A) Elevated creatinine and BUN
B) Decreased potassium levels
C) Low hemoglobin and hematocrit
D) High white blood cell count
What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with diarrhea?
A) Increase dietary fiber
B) Encourage clear fluids
C) Administer a laxative
D) Place the patient in Trendelenburg
Which finding is a complication of long-term corticosteroid therapy?
A) Weight loss
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Increased bone density
D) Low blood pressure
What is the priority nursing action for a patient in hypovolemic shock?
A) Increase oxygen delivery
B) Administer IV fluids
C) Monitor blood glucose levels
D) Elevate the patient’s head
Which medication is most commonly used for rapid sequence intubation?
A) Epinephrine
B) Midazolam
C) Succinylcholine
D) Fentanyl
What does the term “hematemesis” mean?
A) Blood in the stool
B) Blood in the urine
C) Vomiting blood
D) Bleeding gums
Which condition is a contraindication for inserting a nasogastric tube?
A) Gastric ulcer
B) Basilar skull fracture
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Small bowel obstruction
What is the first step in adult CPR?
A) Check for responsiveness
B) Begin chest compressions
C) Open the airway
D) Administer rescue breaths
Which is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a hospital?
A) Administer antibiotics
B) Wear sterile gloves
C) Perform hand hygiene
D) Use disposable equipment
Which is a side effect of long-term furosemide use?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypertension
D) Constipation
What is the primary cause of angina pectoris?
A) Inflammation of the myocardium
B) Spasm of the coronary arteries
C) Decreased oxygen supply to the heart
D) Increased cardiac output
Which position is best for a patient with acute pancreatitis?
A) Supine
B) High Fowler’s
C) Lying on the side with knees flexed
D) Prone
What is the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors?
A) Tachycardia
B) Cough
C) Hypertension
D) Hypoglycemia
Which laboratory value indicates dehydration?
A) Low hematocrit
B) High serum sodium
C) Low blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) High white blood cell count
Which symptom is most indicative of an acute myocardial infarction (MI)?
A) Sharp, stabbing chest pain relieved by rest
B) Substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm
C) Chest pain relieved by antacids
D) Sudden onset of bilateral leg pain
Which assessment finding indicates fluid volume overload?
A) Weak, thready pulse
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Distended neck veins
D) Poor skin turgor
Which intervention is most important for a patient with a new colostomy?
A) Limiting fluid intake
B) Applying a warm compress to the stoma
C) Assessing the stoma for signs of ischemia
D) Encouraging a high-fiber diet immediately
Which type of isolation is required for a patient with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff)?
A) Droplet precautions
B) Contact precautions
C) Airborne precautions
D) Protective precautions
What is the therapeutic level of digoxin?
A) 0.5–2 ng/mL
B) 3–5 ng/mL
C) 5–10 ng/mL
D) 10–20 ng/mL
What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient receiving blood transfusion therapy?
A) Administering the transfusion quickly
B) Monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction
C) Warming the blood before transfusion
D) Encouraging the patient to remain supine
Which of the following is a priority for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?
A) Administering epinephrine
B) Starting an IV infusion of antibiotics
C) Performing gastric lavage
D) Checking the patient’s blood sugar
What does the presence of a positive Chvostek’s sign indicate?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hyponatremia
Which of the following is a symptom of lithium toxicity?
A) Bradycardia
B) Polydipsia
C) Confusion
D) Weight loss
What is the most important nursing action for a patient with a new tracheostomy?
A) Providing oral fluids
B) Assessing for airway patency
C) Removing the inner cannula daily
D) Performing postural drainage
Which finding indicates that a patient with diabetes is experiencing hypoglycemia?
A) Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
B) Cold, clammy skin
C) Fruity breath odor
D) Rapid, deep respirations
Which drug class is commonly used to treat asthma exacerbations?
A) Beta blockers
B) Anticholinergics
C) Corticosteroids
D) Calcium channel blockers
What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A) Severe hypoglycemia
B) Insulin deficiency
C) Overhydration
D) Infection
Which intervention is a priority for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A) Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees
B) Performing a lumbar puncture
C) Restricting fluid intake
D) Administering sedatives to induce sleep
What is the most common side effect of nitroglycerin?
A) Bradycardia
B) Hypertension
C) Headache
D) Nausea
Which of the following increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Prolonged bed rest
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Chronic anemia
D) Frequent exercise
Which nursing action is most appropriate for a patient with a Foley catheter?
A) Clean the catheter with alcohol every shift
B) Change the catheter daily
C) Maintain the drainage bag below bladder level
D) Inflate the balloon with 20 mL of sterile water
Which of the following indicates a positive Mantoux test for tuberculosis?
A) A red, flat area measuring 5 mm
B) An indurated area greater than 10 mm
C) A small blister at the injection site
D) Pain at the injection site
Which of the following is a potential complication of parenteral nutrition?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hyperlipidemia
C) Air embolism
D) Metabolic alkalosis
What is the most common sign of a hip fracture in an older adult?
A) Pain radiating to the knee
B) Shortened, externally rotated leg
C) Swelling at the knee
D) Loss of sensation in the foot
Which laboratory test is most specific for myocardial infarction?
A) Troponin
B) Creatinine
C) Amylase
D) C-reactive protein
What is the purpose of pursed-lip breathing in patients with COPD?
A) Increase respiratory rate
B) Improve oxygen saturation
C) Prevent airway collapse
D) Reduce secretions
Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients with chronic kidney disease?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypocalcemia
Which symptom indicates compartment syndrome?
A) Pulsating pain
B) Pain relieved by elevation
C) Severe pain unrelieved by medication
D) Numbness improving with exercise
Which action should the nurse take first for a patient with autonomic dysreflexia?
A) Lower the patient’s head
B) Administer pain medication
C) Identify and remove the trigger
D) Call the healthcare provider
What is the primary goal of palliative care?
A) Cure the patient’s illness
B) Provide symptom management
C) Improve nutritional status
D) Promote functional independence
What is the most common site for checking the pulse in an emergency?
A) Radial artery
B) Femoral artery
C) Carotid artery
D) Brachial artery
Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with Trousseau’s sign?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypomagnesemia
What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with suspected sepsis?
A) Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Applying warm compresses
C) Placing the patient in a Trendelenburg position
D) Monitoring urine output
Which diet is recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
A) High-protein, low-carb
B) Low-sodium, low-potassium
C) High-sodium, low-fat
D) High-potassium, high-protein
Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A) Impaired skin integrity
B) Ineffective airway clearance
C) Risk for impaired tissue perfusion
D) Deficient fluid volume
Which vital sign change is most concerning in a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A) Bradycardia
B) Hypotension
C) Tachypnea
D) Low-grade fever
What is the purpose of chest physiotherapy in a patient with pneumonia?
A) Reduce fever
B) Clear airway secretions
C) Prevent atelectasis
D) Promote oxygenation
What is the primary action of insulin in the body?
A) Stimulate glucagon release
B) Facilitate glucose uptake by cells
C) Inhibit glycogen storage
D) Increase blood glucose levels
Which assessment finding indicates possible dehydration?
A) Bounding pulse
B) Decreased skin turgor
C) Increased urine output
D) Low hematocrit
Which medication is most effective in treating atrial fibrillation?
A) Atropine
B) Amiodarone
C) Epinephrine
D) Aspirin
Which action should the nurse take for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
A) Encourage ambulation
B) Administer oxygen
C) Place the patient in a Trendelenburg position
D) Increase fluid intake
Which lab value indicates anemia?
A) Hemoglobin 8 g/dL
B) Hematocrit 50%
C) Platelets 300,000/mm³
D) WBC count 10,000/mm³
What is a common side effect of opioids?
A) Hypertension
B) Diarrhea
C) Constipation
D) Hyperactivity
Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with tuberculosis?
A) Contact precautions
B) Airborne precautions
C) Droplet precautions
D) Standard precautions
Which symptom is most common in hypoglycemia?
A) Fruity breath odor
B) Shaking and sweating
C) Slow wound healing
D) Increased urination
What is the purpose of Fowler’s position for a patient with respiratory distress?
A) Promote circulation to lower extremities
B) Enhance lung expansion
C) Increase intracranial pressure
D) Reduce gastric reflux
Which intervention is a priority for a patient with suspected stroke?
A) Encourage oral fluids
B) Obtain a head CT scan
C) Administer heparin immediately
D) Perform a lumbar puncture
What is the primary nursing concern for a patient with a chest tube?
A) Encourage coughing to expel air
B) Monitor for subcutaneous emphysema
C) Keep the collection chamber above chest level
D) Clamp the tube routinely
Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate for a patient taking warfarin?
A) Increase intake of vitamin K-rich foods
B) Avoid foods high in vitamin K
C) Increase salt intake
D) Avoid high-protein diets
Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with hypokalemia?
A) Administer potassium chloride IV push
B) Provide a high-potassium diet
C) Restrict fluid intake
D) Monitor for hyperactive reflexes
Which finding indicates hypovolemic shock?
A) Bradycardia and low blood pressure
B) Tachycardia and hypotension
C) Hypertension and bounding pulses
D) Bradypnea and hyperthermia
Which symptom is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A) Peripheral edema
B) Jugular vein distention
C) Pulmonary congestion
D) Hepatomegaly
What is the most common symptom of a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
A) Hematuria
B) Dysuria
C) Proteinuria
D) Polyuria
Which medication is used to treat bradycardia?
A) Epinephrine
B) Atropine
C) Dopamine
D) Amiodarone
Which lab value indicates kidney dysfunction?
A) BUN 8 mg/dL
B) Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
C) Sodium 140 mEq/L
D) Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Which position is most appropriate for a patient in shock?
A) Trendelenburg position
B) High Fowler’s position
C) Supine with legs elevated
D) Prone position
Which nursing action is most appropriate for a patient with a blood glucose of 45 mg/dL?
A) Administer rapid-acting insulin
B) Provide a carbohydrate snack
C) Start a glucagon infusion
D) Restrict fluid intake
Which finding is a priority in a patient with a fractured femur?
A) Muscle spasms
B) Warmth and redness at the fracture site
C) Absence of distal pulses
D) Pain rated 5/10
What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A) Naloxone
B) Flumazenil
C) Atropine
D) Protamine sulfate
Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a fever of 104°F (40°C)?
A) Provide warm blankets
B) Administer antipyretics
C) Offer ice chips
D) Reduce fluid intake
Questions and Answers for Study Guide
Discuss the role of evidence-based practice (EBP) in improving patient outcomes in nursing.
Answer:
Evidence-based practice (EBP) involves integrating the best available research evidence with clinical expertise and patient preferences to deliver optimal care. In nursing, EBP helps improve patient outcomes by ensuring that interventions are scientifically validated and tailored to individual needs. For example, using evidence-based protocols for preventing hospital-acquired infections, such as central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI), has significantly reduced infection rates in healthcare facilities. EBP fosters continuous learning among nurses and encourages critical thinking, making healthcare delivery more efficient and effective.
Explain the nursing interventions for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiencing respiratory distress.
Answer:
For a patient with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, nursing interventions include:
- Positioning: Place the patient in a high Fowler’s position to promote lung expansion and ease breathing.
- Oxygen therapy: Administer oxygen as prescribed, monitoring saturation levels closely to prevent hypercapnia.
- Medication administration: Provide bronchodilators and corticosteroids as prescribed to reduce airway inflammation and improve airflow.
- Encouraging controlled breathing techniques: Teach the patient pursed-lip breathing to enhance oxygenation and decrease the work of breathing.
- Hydration and secretion management: Encourage fluid intake to loosen mucus, and assist with suctioning if necessary.
The goal is to stabilize the patient’s respiratory status and prevent complications.
Describe the ethical principles involved in end-of-life care in nursing.
Answer:
End-of-life care in nursing involves several ethical principles, including:
- Autonomy: Respecting the patient’s right to make decisions about their care, including the choice to refuse treatment.
- Beneficence: Acting in the best interest of the patient to alleviate pain and ensure comfort.
- Non-maleficence: Avoiding harm, such as by preventing unnecessary interventions that may prolong suffering.
- Justice: Providing equitable care and resources to the patient, regardless of socioeconomic status.
Effective communication with the patient and their family is essential to uphold these principles, ensuring that care aligns with the patient’s values and wishes.
Analyze the impact of cultural competence in nursing care.
Answer:
Cultural competence in nursing involves understanding and respecting the diverse cultural beliefs, values, and practices of patients. This competency enhances communication, builds trust, and ensures that care is patient-centered. For instance, understanding dietary restrictions in a Muslim patient during Ramadan can guide meal planning in a hospital setting. Similarly, being aware of language barriers and using interpreters can help nurses provide clearer instructions. Cultural competence reduces health disparities, improves patient satisfaction, and fosters a more inclusive healthcare environment.
Outline the nursing responsibilities in administering medications to pediatric patients.
Answer:
When administering medications to pediatric patients, nursing responsibilities include:
- Accurate dosage calculation: Ensure doses are weight- or age-appropriate to avoid toxicity.
- Double-checking orders: Verify medication orders for accuracy and appropriateness.
- Communication: Explain the purpose and procedure of medication administration in age-appropriate language to the child and their caregivers.
- Monitoring for adverse effects: Observe for any signs of allergic reactions or side effects, given the sensitivity of pediatric patients to medications.
- Documentation: Record the medication name, dose, time, route, and any observations related to the administration.
These responsibilities help ensure safe and effective medication administration tailored to the unique needs of children.
Evaluate the role of interprofessional collaboration in managing a patient with diabetes.
Answer:
Interprofessional collaboration is crucial in managing patients with diabetes, as it brings together various healthcare professionals to address the multifaceted needs of the patient. For example:
- Nurses: Monitor blood glucose levels, administer insulin, and educate patients on self-care practices.
- Dietitians: Develop personalized meal plans to help manage blood sugar levels.
- Pharmacists: Provide guidance on medication adherence and potential side effects.
- Physicians: Adjust treatment plans based on the patient’s progress.
Collaboration ensures comprehensive care, reduces complications, and empowers the patient to manage their condition effectively.
Discuss the importance of infection control measures in nursing practice.
Answer:
Infection control measures are critical in nursing practice to prevent the spread of pathogens and protect both patients and healthcare workers. Key strategies include:
- Hand hygiene: The most effective way to reduce healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).
- Use of personal protective equipment (PPE): Such as gloves, gowns, and masks to create barriers against infection.
- Aseptic techniques: For procedures like catheter insertion and wound care.
- Environmental cleaning: Regularly disinfecting surfaces and equipment.
Adhering to these measures minimizes infection risks, improves patient outcomes, and ensures a safer healthcare environment.
Describe the pathophysiology of heart failure and its implications for nursing care.
Answer:
Heart failure occurs when the heart cannot pump blood efficiently, leading to insufficient oxygen delivery to tissues. This may result from weakened heart muscles (systolic dysfunction) or impaired ventricular filling (diastolic dysfunction). The condition causes fluid accumulation, leading to symptoms like dyspnea, edema, and fatigue.
Nursing care involves:
- Monitoring fluid balance: Weighing the patient daily to detect fluid retention.
- Administering medications: Such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, or beta-blockers to improve heart function.
- Providing patient education: On dietary restrictions, medication adherence, and recognizing early signs of exacerbation.
Managing heart failure requires a holistic approach to improve the patient’s quality of life.
Examine the role of a nurse in promoting mental health in a community setting.
Answer:
In a community setting, nurses play a vital role in promoting mental health by:
- Providing education: Raising awareness about mental health disorders and reducing stigma.
- Screening and early intervention: Identifying at-risk individuals and connecting them to resources.
- Support groups: Facilitating peer support to foster a sense of community and belonging.
- Advocacy: Advocating for accessible mental health services and policies that support vulnerable populations.
By addressing mental health at the community level, nurses contribute to preventive care and holistic well-being.
Explain the nursing assessment and management of a patient with dehydration.
Answer:
Assessment:
- Monitor vital signs (tachycardia, hypotension).
- Assess for dry mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and concentrated urine.
- Evaluate lab results, such as elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and hematocrit levels.
Management:
- Fluid replacement: Administer oral or intravenous fluids based on severity.
- Monitor intake and output: Ensure adequate hydration and detect fluid retention.
- Patient education: Encourage fluid intake and identify early signs of dehydration.
Early recognition and prompt management are essential to prevent complications such as hypovolemic shock.
Discuss the challenges and strategies for managing patients with multi-drug resistant infections.
Answer:
Challenges:
Managing patients with multi-drug resistant (MDR) infections, such as MRSA or VRE, is challenging due to limited treatment options, prolonged hospital stays, and increased morbidity. Additionally, these infections pose a high risk of transmission within healthcare facilities.
Strategies:
- Infection control measures: Strict adherence to hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, and isolation precautions.
- Antibiotic stewardship: Collaborating with the healthcare team to prescribe appropriate antibiotics and avoid overuse.
- Patient education: Teaching patients about infection prevention and medication adherence.
- Monitoring and early detection: Regularly assessing for signs of infection and implementing timely interventions.
Nurses play a pivotal role in reducing the spread of MDR infections through vigilant care and education.
Explain the pathophysiology and nursing management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
Answer:
Pathophysiology:
DKA is a life-threatening complication of diabetes caused by a severe insulin deficiency. This leads to hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis. The lack of insulin causes the body to break down fats for energy, producing ketones as a byproduct, which accumulate and lower blood pH.
Nursing Management:
- Fluid replacement: Administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
- Insulin therapy: Initiate continuous IV insulin infusion to reduce blood glucose levels and halt ketosis.
- Electrolyte monitoring: Regularly check potassium levels and replace as needed.
- Patient education: Teach about blood sugar monitoring, insulin management, and recognizing early signs of DKA.
Effective management aims to restore metabolic balance and prevent complications.
Analyze the importance of therapeutic communication in psychiatric nursing.
Answer:
Therapeutic communication is crucial in psychiatric nursing as it helps establish trust, build rapport, and promote healing. Key components include:
- Active listening: Showing empathy and understanding to encourage patients to express their feelings.
- Nonjudgmental attitude: Creating a safe environment for open dialogue.
- Validation: Acknowledging the patient’s experiences and emotions.
- Clarification: Ensuring understanding by rephrasing or summarizing the patient’s statements.
Therapeutic communication fosters a supportive nurse-patient relationship, which is essential for effective mental health care.
Discuss the nursing assessment and care plan for a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI).
Answer:
Assessment:
- Monitor urine output and assess for oliguria or anuria.
- Check for fluid overload, such as edema and pulmonary crackles.
- Evaluate lab results, including elevated creatinine, BUN, and potassium levels.
Care Plan:
- Fluid balance management: Administer IV fluids or diuretics as prescribed.
- Electrolyte monitoring: Address hyperkalemia with medications like sodium polystyrene sulfonate.
- Nutritional support: Provide a low-protein, low-potassium diet.
- Preventing further damage: Avoid nephrotoxic drugs and monitor for signs of infection.
Nurses play a critical role in stabilizing the patient’s condition and promoting renal recovery.
Evaluate the role of nursing in promoting maternal and child health in underserved communities.
Answer:
Nurses in underserved communities play a significant role in improving maternal and child health by:
- Providing prenatal and postnatal care: Ensuring regular check-ups, nutrition education, and safe delivery practices.
- Vaccination programs: Promoting immunization to prevent childhood diseases.
- Health education: Teaching about hygiene, breastfeeding, and family planning.
- Advocacy: Addressing barriers to healthcare access and advocating for community resources.
By focusing on preventive care and education, nurses contribute to reducing maternal and infant mortality rates.
Explain the nursing considerations for a patient receiving palliative care.
Answer:
Palliative care focuses on improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses. Nursing considerations include:
- Symptom management: Addressing pain, nausea, dyspnea, and other distressing symptoms.
- Psychosocial support: Providing emotional and spiritual care for the patient and their family.
- Advance care planning: Discussing end-of-life preferences and ensuring that care aligns with the patient’s wishes.
- Communication: Facilitating open discussions about prognosis and goals of care.
Nurses play a compassionate role in ensuring dignity and comfort for patients in palliative care.
Discuss the impact of stress and burnout on nursing practice and strategies to address them.
Answer:
Impact:
Stress and burnout can lead to decreased job satisfaction, impaired decision-making, and reduced patient safety. It may also contribute to physical and mental health issues among nurses.
Strategies:
- Self-care: Encouraging nurses to prioritize rest, exercise, and hobbies.
- Support systems: Providing access to peer support groups and counseling services.
- Workplace interventions: Promoting manageable workloads, adequate staffing, and professional development opportunities.
- Mindfulness practices: Teaching relaxation techniques like meditation and deep breathing.
Addressing stress and burnout is essential to maintain a healthy nursing workforce and deliver quality care.
Outline the nursing management of a patient undergoing chemotherapy.
Answer:
Nursing management for a patient undergoing chemotherapy includes:
- Monitoring side effects: Assess for nausea, vomiting, alopecia, and fatigue.
- Preventing infections: Educate on neutropenic precautions, such as avoiding crowded places and practicing hand hygiene.
- Nutritional support: Encourage a balanced diet and address appetite changes.
- Psychological support: Provide emotional counseling to manage anxiety and depression.
- Medication management: Administer antiemetics and pain relief as prescribed.
Comprehensive care ensures that patients tolerate treatment better and maintain quality of life.
Analyze the role of technology in modern nursing practice.
Answer:
Technology has revolutionized nursing practice by enhancing patient care and efficiency. Examples include:
- Electronic health records (EHRs): Streamlining documentation and improving access to patient data.
- Telehealth: Providing remote consultations, particularly in rural areas.
- Medical devices: Using advanced monitoring equipment for real-time patient assessments.
- Educational tools: Leveraging apps and online platforms for continuous learning.
While technology improves care delivery, nurses must ensure patient privacy and maintain a balance between tech use and personal interaction.
Explain the nursing interventions for a patient with a pressure ulcer.
Answer:
- Assessment: Stage the ulcer and evaluate for signs of infection.
- Pressure relief: Reposition the patient every two hours and use pressure-relieving devices.
- Wound care: Cleanse the wound, apply dressings, and use topical agents to promote healing.
- Nutritional support: Encourage a high-protein diet to aid tissue repair.
- Patient education: Teach about skin care and techniques to prevent further ulcers.
Early intervention is key to promoting healing and preventing complications.