Applied Pathophysiology Practice Exam Quiz
Question 1
Which of the following is the primary cause of cellular injury?
A. Hypoxia
B. Genetic mutations
C. Immune reactions
D. Nutritional deficiencies
Question 2
What is the main feature of necrosis?
A. Programmed cell death
B. Inflammation surrounding dead tissue
C. Regeneration of dead cells
D. Absence of mitochondrial damage
Question 3
Which type of shock is characterized by widespread vasodilation and increased vascular permeability?
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Septic shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
Question 4
What is the hallmark of chronic inflammation?
A. Neutrophil infiltration
B. Granuloma formation
C. Acute onset
D. Lack of cytokine production
Question 5
Which of the following best describes apoptosis?
A. An inflammatory response to cellular injury
B. Unregulated and random cell death
C. A tightly regulated process of programmed cell death
D. Loss of membrane integrity and cell swelling
Question 6
The primary pathological process in emphysema is:
A. Alveolar wall destruction and loss of elasticity
B. Mucus hypersecretion in the airways
C. Bronchial hyperreactivity
D. Fibrosis of lung parenchyma
Question 7
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE and involves mast cells?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Question 8
What is the primary cause of edema in nephrotic syndrome?
A. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. Decreased oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia
C. Lymphatic obstruction
D. Sodium retention
Question 9
Which enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of fibrin in fibrinolysis?
A. Plasmin
B. Thrombin
C. Factor XIII
D. Factor X
Question 10
What is the main pathophysiological process in Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
B. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
C. Excessive glucagon secretion
D. Impaired glucose uptake due to obesity
Question 11
Which of the following contributes to the development of atherosclerosis?
A. Low levels of LDL cholesterol
B. Endothelial injury and inflammation
C. Reduced oxidative stress
D. Decreased macrophage activity
Question 12
Which organ is most affected by systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Pancreas
Question 13
In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), what is the primary problem?
A. Increased surfactant production
B. Alveolar-capillary membrane damage
C. Bronchoconstriction
D. Excessive mucus secretion
Question 14
Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with Chvostek’s sign?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
Question 15
Which is a common complication of cirrhosis?
A. Increased ammonia clearance
B. Portal hypertension
C. Hyperalbuminemia
D. Decreased bilirubin levels
Question 16
What is the primary cause of myocardial infarction?
A. Aortic valve stenosis
B. Coronary artery obstruction due to atherosclerosis
C. Arrhythmias
D. Pericardial effusion
Question 17
Which factor increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Hypocoagulability
B. Immobility
C. High oxygen saturation
D. Increased vascular compliance
Question 18
Which of the following conditions is characterized by a “butterfly” facial rash?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
C. Psoriasis
D. Contact dermatitis
Question 19
Which hormone is overproduced in Cushing’s syndrome?
A. Insulin
B. Cortisol
C. Thyroxine
D. Aldosterone
Question 20
What is the primary cause of Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Increased dopamine levels
B. Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques and tau tangles
C. Demyelination of neurons
D. Reduced glutamate activity
Question 21
Which of the following is a feature of right-sided heart failure?
A. Pulmonary congestion
B. Peripheral edema
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
D. Increased cardiac output
Question 22
What is the primary characteristic of multiple sclerosis?
A. Loss of acetylcholine receptors
B. Autoimmune demyelination of CNS neurons
C. Decreased production of dopamine
D. Increased myelin sheath thickness
Question 23
What is the most common site for an aortic aneurysm?
A. Thoracic aorta
B. Abdominal aorta
C. Ascending aorta
D. Aortic arch
Question 24
What is the hallmark of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A. Symmetric ascending muscle weakness
B. Asymmetric muscle atrophy
C. Cognitive decline
D. Spastic paralysis
Question 25
Which type of hepatitis virus is transmitted via the fecal-oral route?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
Question 26
Which blood marker indicates myocardial infarction?
A. Troponin
B. Bilirubin
C. C-reactive protein
D. Ferritin
Question 27
Which condition is associated with an increased risk of esophageal adenocarcinoma?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Barrett’s esophagus
C. Celiac disease
D. Ulcerative colitis
Question 28
What is the most common type of stroke?
A. Hemorrhagic
B. Ischemic
C. Lacunar
D. Subarachnoid
Question 29
Which is a characteristic of osteoarthritis?
A. Autoimmune joint destruction
B. Degeneration of articular cartilage
C. Presence of rheumatoid factor
D. Inflammation of synovial fluid
Question 30
Which condition is characterized by “strawberry tongue”?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Kawasaki disease
C. Both A and B
D. Rheumatic fever
Question 31
What is the primary cause of rheumatic heart disease?
A. Viral infection
B. Autoimmune reaction to group A streptococcal infection
C. Congenital heart defect
D. Chronic hypertension
Question 32
Which of the following is a characteristic of systemic hypertension?
A. Systolic blood pressure >140 mmHg
B. Increased vascular compliance
C. Reduced cardiac workload
D. Low peripheral vascular resistance
Question 33
Which of the following is a feature of Marfan syndrome?
A. Mutation in the CFTR gene
B. Defective fibrillin-1 protein
C. Abnormal hemoglobin synthesis
D. Autoimmune destruction of connective tissue
Question 34
What is the most common cause of chronic kidney disease?
A. Hypertension
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Polycystic kidney disease
Question 35
Which is the main pathological feature of asthma?
A. Airway inflammation and bronchial hyperresponsiveness
B. Destruction of alveoli and capillaries
C. Mucociliary clearance impairment
D. Increased surfactant production
Question 36
Which type of anemia is associated with a vitamin B12 deficiency?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
Question 37
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with Addison’s disease?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypokalemia
Question 38
What is the primary pathological change in Parkinson’s disease?
A. Increased dopamine levels in the brain
B. Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra
C. Autoimmune destruction of CNS oligodendrocytes
D. Impaired reuptake of serotonin
Question 39
What is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?
A. Helicobacter pylori infection
B. Excessive alcohol consumption
C. Chronic use of beta-blockers
D. Low dietary fiber intake
Question 40
What is the defining feature of hemophilia?
A. Platelet deficiency
B. Deficiency of clotting factors VIII or IX
C. Increased red blood cell count
D. Overactive fibrinolysis
Question 41
What is the primary characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A. Hypoglycemia and metabolic alkalosis
B. Hyperglycemia and metabolic acidosis
C. Decreased ketone production
D. Respiratory acidosis
Question 42
Which condition is most commonly associated with exophthalmos?
A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B. Graves’ disease
C. Addison’s disease
D. Hyperparathyroidism
Question 43
Which hormone is deficient in diabetes insipidus?
A. Aldosterone
B. Vasopressin (ADH)
C. Cortisol
D. Glucagon
Question 44
Which condition results in “teardrop cells” in a blood smear?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Myelofibrosis
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Thalassemia
Question 45
What is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy?
A. Elevated ammonia levels in the blood
B. Increased bilirubin production
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Portal hypertension
Question 46
Which of the following is a complication of chronic pancreatitis?
A. Increased insulin secretion
B. Malabsorption due to enzyme deficiency
C. Hepatic cirrhosis
D. Portal vein thrombosis
Question 47
What is the hallmark feature of polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?
A. Development of fluid-filled cysts in the kidneys
B. Autoimmune destruction of glomeruli
C. Protein loss in the urine
D. Hypertrophy of renal tubules
Question 48
Which of the following is a characteristic of mitral stenosis?
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Increased left atrial pressure
C. Decreased pulmonary artery pressure
D. Regurgitation of blood into the left atrium
Question 49
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in a patient with prolonged vomiting?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
Question 50
What is the main cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
A. Parathyroid adenoma
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Vitamin D deficiency
D. Autoimmune destruction of the parathyroid glands
Question 51
Which type of cells are targeted in multiple myeloma?
A. Red blood cells
B. B lymphocytes (plasma cells)
C. T lymphocytes
D. Macrophages
Question 52
Which condition is characterized by a “ground glass” appearance on a chest X-ray?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Interstitial lung disease
C. Pleural effusion
D. Acute bronchitis
Question 53
What is the primary pathological feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A. Decreased heart size
B. Thickened ventricular walls
C. Dilated ventricular chambers
D. Deposition of amyloid protein
Question 54
Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis?
A. Impaired sodium reabsorption in sweat glands
B. Mutation in the CFTR gene leading to thick mucus production
C. Autoimmune destruction of epithelial cells
D. Overproduction of pulmonary surfactant
Question 55
What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Renal artery stenosis
C. Hyperaldosteronism
D. Sleep apnea
Question 56
Which type of fracture is common in osteoporosis?
A. Transverse fracture
B. Greenstick fracture
C. Compression fracture
D. Stress fracture
Question 57
What is the main pathophysiological mechanism in acute gout?
A. Deposition of uric acid crystals in joints
B. Hyaluronic acid deficiency in synovial fluid
C. Autoimmune destruction of joint cartilage
D. Elevated levels of calcium in the blood
Question 58
Which of the following is a hallmark feature of shock?
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Cellular hypoperfusion and oxygen deprivation
C. Hypertension and bradycardia
D. Vasoconstriction of pulmonary arteries
Question 59
Which condition is most commonly associated with a positive Romberg test?
A. Vestibular dysfunction
B. Cerebellar ataxia
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Peripheral neuropathy
Question 60
What is the primary cause of jaundice in newborns?
A. Hemoglobinopathy
B. Immature liver enzyme activity
C. Biliary obstruction
D. Infection
Question 61
Which condition is characterized by a “butterfly rash” on the face?
A. Psoriasis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Rosacea
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
Question 62
What is the most common site for a myocardial infarction?
A. Left atrium
B. Left anterior descending artery
C. Right coronary artery
D. Circumflex artery
Question 63
What is the key feature of Hodgkin lymphoma?
A. Reed-Sternberg cells
B. Overproduction of plasma cells
C. Genetic mutation in the BCR-ABL gene
D. Elevated serum calcium levels
Question 64
Which condition involves the destruction of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction?
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Question 65
Which pathogen is most commonly associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Escherichia coli
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 66
What is the defining characteristic of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?
A. Hypersecretion of thyroid hormones
B. Autoimmune destruction of thyroid tissue
C. Overproduction of parathyroid hormone
D. Deficiency in iodine intake
Question 67
What is the primary symptom of peripheral arterial disease (PAD)?
A. Pitting edema
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Resting tachycardia
D. Chronic cough
Question 68
What is the hallmark feature of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A. Progressive muscle weakness ascending from the legs
B. Demyelination of central nervous system neurons
C. Genetic mutation affecting myelin production
D. Fluctuating muscle weakness with activity
Question 69
Which condition is associated with the HLA-B27 gene?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Fibromyalgia
Question 70
What is the primary cause of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Diffuse alveolar damage and inflammation
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Hypoventilation syndrome
Question 71
Which condition is characterized by “cobblestoning” in the gastrointestinal tract?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Irritable bowel syndrome
D. Celiac disease
Question 72
What is the key characteristic of osteoarthritis?
A. Autoimmune joint inflammation
B. Erosion of articular cartilage
C. Deposition of urate crystals in joints
D. Inflammation of the synovium
Question 73
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Question 74
Which hormone is responsible for milk ejection during breastfeeding?
A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Question 75
What is the primary cause of aplastic anemia?
A. Bone marrow suppression
B. Increased hemolysis
C. Dietary iron deficiency
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
Question 76
Which condition is associated with “owl’s eye” inclusion bodies?
A. Cytomegalovirus infection
B. Epstein-Barr virus infection
C. Herpes simplex virus infection
D. Rubella virus infection
Question 77
What is the major risk factor for the development of hepatocellular carcinoma?
A. Chronic hepatitis B or C infection
B. Gallstones
C. Alcohol-induced pancreatitis
D. Hyperlipidemia
Question 78
What is the characteristic feature of aplastic anemia?
A. Pancytopenia
B. Elevated erythropoietin levels
C. Macrocytic red blood cells
D. Hypersegmented neutrophils
Question 79
Which condition is commonly associated with a positive Babinski sign?
A. Stroke
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Peripheral neuropathy
Question 80
What is the hallmark of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?
A. Decreased renal perfusion and ischemic injury
B. Autoimmune attack on renal tubules
C. Glomerular hypertrophy
D. Overactive renin-angiotensin system
Question 81
Which condition is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the colon?
A. Hirschsprung’s disease
B. Intussusception
C. Crohn’s disease
D. Ulcerative colitis
Question 82
Which of the following is a common complication of long-term corticosteroid use?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Increased growth hormone production
D. Hypotension
Question 83
What is the most common symptom of pheochromocytoma?
A. Persistent bradycardia
B. Episodic hypertension
C. Polyuria
D. Hypercalcemia
Question 84
What is the primary pathophysiology of tension pneumothorax?
A. Air trapping in the pleural space with mediastinal shift
B. Fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
C. Chronic inflammation of alveoli
D. Overproduction of surfactant
Question 85
What is the key pathological change in emphysema?
A. Destruction of alveolar walls
B. Accumulation of fluid in alveoli
C. Obstruction of airways by mucus
D. Hypertrophy of bronchial smooth muscle
Question 86
Which of the following is a key feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?
A. Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency
B. Increased intracranial pressure
C. Hypernatremia
D. Elevated homocysteine levels
Question 87
What is the primary cause of Cushing’s syndrome?
A. Excessive cortisol production
B. Insufficient cortisol production
C. Chronic hypothyroidism
D. Prolactinoma
Question 88
Which of the following is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A. Barrett’s esophagus
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal varices
D. Tracheoesophageal fistula
Question 89
Which condition is characterized by the triad of hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts?
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Renal artery stenosis
Question 90
Which genetic disorder results in progressive muscle degeneration?
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Huntington’s disease
Question 91
Which hormone is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms?
A. Melatonin
B. Cortisol
C. Thyroxine
D. Insulin
Question 92
Which condition is associated with decreased dopamine levels in the brain?
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Huntington’s disease
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. Multiple sclerosis
Question 93
What is the primary cause of Addison’s disease?
A. Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex
B. Overproduction of adrenal hormones
C. Deficiency of pituitary hormones
D. Excess aldosterone secretion
Question 94
Which of the following is a common symptom of meningitis?
A. Nuchal rigidity
B. Hemoptysis
C. Jaundice
D. Peripheral edema
Question 95
What is the primary feature of sickle cell disease?
A. Abnormally shaped red blood cells
B. Overproduction of white blood cells
C. Deficiency in platelets
D. Iron overload
Question 96
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with hyperaldosteronism?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
Question 97
Which condition is characterized by a “steeple sign” on a neck X-ray?
A. Croup
B. Epiglottitis
C. Foreign body aspiration
D. Bronchiolitis
Question 98
What is the hallmark symptom of nephrotic syndrome?
A. Proteinuria
B. Hematuria
C. Pyuria
D. Oliguria
Question 99
Which of the following is a key risk factor for osteoporosis?
A. Postmenopausal state
B. Increased physical activity
C. Hyperkalemia
D. High protein diet
Question 100
What is the primary pathophysiology of Graves’ disease?
A. Autoimmune stimulation of the thyroid gland
B. Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland
C. Decreased TSH secretion
D. Deficiency in iodine
Question 101
Which condition is associated with a “string of pearls” appearance on an abdominal X-ray?
A. Small bowel obstruction
B. Diverticulitis
C. Crohn’s disease
D. Intestinal perforation
Question 102
Which genetic disorder is caused by a deletion on chromosome 15?
A. Prader-Willi syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Down syndrome
Question 103
What is the primary characteristic of aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease?
A. Sudden drop in hemoglobin levels
B. Increased platelet count
C. Widespread inflammation
D. Increased white blood cell production
Question 104
What is the primary feature of cardiogenic shock?
A. Decreased cardiac output
B. Increased systemic vascular resistance
C. Elevated blood glucose levels
D. Overhydration
Question 105
Which condition is characterized by excessive cortisol production?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Addison’s disease
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Hyperparathyroidism
Question 106
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE antibodies?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Question 107
Which electrolyte imbalance can cause prolonged QT intervals on an ECG?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypokalemia
Question 108
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with a “boot-shaped” heart on a chest X-ray?
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. Transposition of the great arteries
D. Ventricular septal defect
Question 109
What is the most common cause of viral encephalitis?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Adenovirus
Question 110
Which condition is characterized by noncaseating granulomas?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Histoplasmosis
D. Blastomycosis
Question 111
Which of the following is a hallmark feature of multiple sclerosis?
A. Demyelination of central nervous system neurons
B. Overproduction of dopamine
C. Peripheral nerve inflammation
D. Decreased acetylcholine levels
Question 112
Which type of shock is caused by a severe allergic reaction?
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Septic shock
Question 113
Which of the following conditions is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome?
A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Hodgkin lymphoma
D. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Question 114
Which condition is characterized by a “cherry-red spot” on the macula?
A. Tay-Sachs disease
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Diabetic retinopathy
D. Glaucoma
Question 115
What is the primary feature of acute pancreatitis?
A. Elevated serum lipase and amylase
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Decreased serum albumin
Question 116
Which of the following conditions is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Question 117
What is the primary pathophysiology of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A. Lack of insulin leads to fatty acid breakdown
B. Increased insulin secretion
C. Overhydration of cells
D. Excessive glycogen storage
Question 118
Which condition is characterized by Bence-Jones proteins in urine?
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Acute myeloid leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Question 119
Which of the following is associated with high levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)?
A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Renal cell carcinoma
D. Colorectal cancer
Question 120
What is the key diagnostic feature of pernicious anemia?
A. Lack of intrinsic factor
B. Increased erythropoietin levels
C. Low serum ferritin
D. Overproduction of red blood cells
Question 121
Which of the following conditions is characterized by progressive muscle weakness and the presence of Gower’s sign?
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Becker muscular dystrophy
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Question 122
What is the underlying mechanism of hemophilia A?
A. Deficiency of clotting factor VIII
B. Deficiency of clotting factor IX
C. Excessive platelet aggregation
D. Vitamin K deficiency
Question 123
Which hormone is primarily responsible for reabsorption of sodium in the kidneys?
A. Aldosterone
B. Cortisol
C. Antidiuretic hormone
D. Parathyroid hormone
Question 124
Which condition is associated with elevated TSH levels and low free T4?
A. Primary hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Secondary hypothyroidism
D. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
Question 125
Which disease is characterized by the triad of arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis?
A. Reactive arthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Gout
Question 126
Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological feature of Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
B. Loss of dopamine-producing neurons
C. Increased acetylcholine levels
D. Demyelination of peripheral nerves
Question 127
Which condition is commonly associated with a butterfly rash across the cheeks?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Psoriasis
C. Rosacea
D. Dermatomyositis
Question 128
What is the primary defect in cystic fibrosis?
A. Impaired chloride ion transport
B. Decreased surfactant production
C. Increased mucus production in the brain
D. Autoimmune destruction of the pancreas
Question 129
What is the hallmark feature of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A. Ascending paralysis
B. Descending paralysis
C. Muscle rigidity
D. Loss of dopamine in the brain
Question 130
What is the most common pathogen causing urinary tract infections?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 131
What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism of acute coronary syndrome?
A. Rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque
B. Chronic vasospasm of coronary arteries
C. Autoimmune inflammation of the myocardium
D. Genetic mutations in cardiac muscle proteins
Question 132
What is the leading cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A. Cigarette smoking
B. Genetic mutations
C. Environmental allergies
D. Viral infections
Question 133
What is the primary feature of polycystic kidney disease?
A. Formation of fluid-filled cysts in the kidneys
B. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
C. Excessive proteinuria
D. Autoimmune attack on nephrons
Question 134
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with severe diarrhea?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hyponatremia
Question 135
Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Crohn’s disease?
A. Skip lesions in the gastrointestinal tract
B. Continuous mucosal inflammation
C. Intestinal villous atrophy
D. Autoimmune destruction of hepatocytes
Question 136
Which condition is caused by a deficiency of glucocerebrosidase enzyme?
A. Gaucher disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Fabry disease
D. Niemann-Pick disease
Question 137
Which of the following is a common complication of portal hypertension?
A. Esophageal varices
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Aortic dissection
Question 138
What is the hallmark of pernicious anemia?
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor
B. Deficiency of iron due to poor absorption
C. Decreased red blood cell destruction
D. Elevated hemoglobin levels
Question 139
Which of the following conditions is associated with impaired excretion of bilirubin?
A. Jaundice
B. Hematuria
C. Cyanosis
D. Leukopenia
Question 140
Which type of renal stone is most commonly associated with urinary tract infections?
A. Struvite stones
B. Calcium oxalate stones
C. Uric acid stones
D. Cystine stones
Question 141
What is the primary characteristic of multiple myeloma?
A. Abnormal plasma cell proliferation
B. Overproduction of white blood cells
C. Decreased platelet count
D. Excess production of erythropoietin
Question 142
What is the main pathophysiological feature of septic shock?
A. Widespread vasodilation and capillary leakage
B. Increased myocardial contractility
C. Overhydration of tissues
D. Excessive clot formation in large veins
Question 143
Which genetic disorder is associated with an increased risk of aortic dissection?
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Down syndrome
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Huntington’s disease
Question 144
Which electrolyte abnormality is most commonly associated with rhabdomyolysis?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Question 145
What is the primary pathophysiological defect in Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
B. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
C. Overproduction of glucagon
D. Increased glycogen storage in the liver
Question 146
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
A. High number of immature lymphocytes
B. High number of mature neutrophils
C. Increased platelet count
D. Decreased erythropoiesis
Question 147
Which condition is characterized by excessive production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
A. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Addison’s disease
Question 148
Which of the following is a clinical feature of pheochromocytoma?
A. Episodic hypertension
B. Chronic hypotension
C. Hypokalemia
D. Increased insulin secretion
Question 149
Which genetic disorder is caused by a trinucleotide repeat expansion?
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Turner syndrome
Question 150
Which condition is characterized by abnormal hemoglobin leading to chronic hemolysis?
A. Thalassemia
B. Von Willebrand disease
C. Hemophilia B
D. Polycythemia vera
Question 151
Which of the following is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A. Insulin deficiency
B. Excessive insulin secretion
C. Dehydration
D. Hypercalcemia
Question 152
What is the hallmark feature of acute glomerulonephritis?
A. Hematuria and proteinuria
B. Polyuria and glycosuria
C. Hypertension and hypokalemia
D. Edema and leukopenia
Question 153
Which condition is characterized by a “cobblestone” appearance of the intestinal mucosa?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Celiac disease
D. Diverticulitis
Question 154
What is the most common cause of end-stage renal disease (ESRD)?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hypertension
C. Polycystic kidney disease
D. Lupus nephritis
Question 155
What is the primary defect in sickle cell anemia?
A. Abnormal hemoglobin S formation
B. Deficiency of red blood cell enzymes
C. Iron overload in the bloodstream
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
Question 156
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Question 157
What is the most common type of stroke?
A. Ischemic stroke
B. Hemorrhagic stroke
C. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
D. Lacunar stroke
Question 158
Which of the following conditions is associated with Reed-Sternberg cells?
A. Hodgkin lymphoma
B. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Acute myeloid leukemia
Question 159
What is the primary feature of Paget’s disease of bone?
A. Abnormal bone remodeling
B. Autoimmune destruction of bone tissue
C. Increased calcium absorption in the intestines
D. Chronic osteomyelitis
Question 160
Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological feature of acute pancreatitis?
A. Autodigestion of the pancreas
B. Obstruction of the pancreatic duct
C. Insulin resistance
D. Hypoglycemia
Question 161
What is the underlying defect in Marfan syndrome?
A. Abnormal fibrillin-1 protein
B. Defective collagen synthesis
C. Impaired elastin production
D. Increased growth hormone secretion
Question 162
Which of the following is the hallmark feature of Grave’s disease?
A. Diffuse thyroid enlargement and hyperthyroidism
B. Nodular thyroid enlargement and hypothyroidism
C. Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia
D. Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
Question 163
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells
B. Macrocytic red blood cells
C. Normocytic normochromic red blood cells
D. Increased reticulocyte count
Question 164
Which condition is caused by excessive growth hormone secretion in adulthood?
A. Acromegaly
B. Gigantism
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Addison’s disease
Question 165
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly seen in Addison’s disease?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Question 166
What is the primary cause of tension pneumothorax?
A. Accumulation of air in the pleural space
B. Excessive fluid in the pleural cavity
C. Chronic pulmonary fibrosis
D. Bronchial obstruction by a foreign object
Question 167
Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Kawasaki disease?
A. Coronary artery aneurysms
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Aortic dissection
Question 168
Which of the following conditions is associated with non-caseating granulomas?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Histoplasmosis
D. Leprosy
Question 169
What is the primary mechanism of injury in ischemic heart disease?
A. Reduced blood flow to the myocardium
B. Excessive oxygen supply to cardiac tissue
C. Autoimmune attack on myocardial cells
D. Infection of the heart valves
Question 170
Which condition is associated with a positive Brudzinski’s sign?
A. Meningitis
B. Encephalitis
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Parkinson’s disease
Question 171
Which of the following is the primary feature of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
A. Degeneration of upper and lower motor neurons
B. Loss of dopamine-producing neurons
C. Demyelination of peripheral nerves
D. Autoimmune destruction of the neuromuscular junction
Question 172
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Question 173
Which condition is characterized by a “starry sky” appearance on histology?
A. Burkitt lymphoma
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
D. Chronic myeloid leukemia
Question 174
Which of the following is the main pathophysiological mechanism of chronic venous insufficiency?
A. Impaired venous valve function
B. Arterial obstruction
C. Chronic inflammation of the veins
D. Increased arterial pressure
Question 175
What is the most common cause of hyperparathyroidism?
A. Parathyroid adenoma
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Vitamin D deficiency
D. Autoimmune destruction of parathyroid tissue
Question 176
Which of the following is a clinical hallmark of Parkinson’s disease?
A. Bradykinesia and resting tremor
B. Spasticity and hyperreflexia
C. Ascending paralysis
D. Progressive muscle weakness
Question 177
Which of the following is a primary cause of angioedema?
A. Bradykinin accumulation
B. Dehydration
C. Increased cortisol levels
D. Vitamin D deficiency
Question 178
Which of the following is the hallmark feature of anaphylactic shock?
A. Widespread vasodilation and bronchoconstriction
B. Increased blood pressure and tachycardia
C. Decreased heart rate and hypoglycemia
D. Hypervolemia and hypertension
Question 179
Which of the following conditions is associated with the formation of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?
A. Autoimmune destruction of platelets
B. Viral suppression of platelet production
C. Decreased vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
D. Hypersensitivity to heparin
Question 180
What is the primary feature of osteogenesis imperfecta?
A. Brittle bones due to collagen defects
B. Overgrowth of bone tissue
C. Loss of bone marrow function
D. Decreased osteoblast activity
Question 181
Which of the following is the primary cause of Cushing syndrome?
A. Chronic exposure to excess glucocorticoids
B. Autoimmune destruction of adrenal glands
C. Excessive secretion of aldosterone
D. Primary deficiency of cortisol
Question 182
Which condition is characterized by the presence of “honeycomb” lung on imaging?
A. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Sarcoidosis
Question 183
What is the primary mechanism underlying pernicious anemia?
A. Vitamin B12 malabsorption due to lack of intrinsic factor
B. Folate deficiency from poor dietary intake
C. Chronic blood loss leading to iron depletion
D. Autoimmune destruction of red blood cells
Question 184
Which of the following conditions is associated with a “butterfly” rash?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Dermatomyositis
D. Psoriasis
Question 185
What is the most common site for the development of atherosclerotic plaques?
A. Large and medium-sized arteries
B. Small capillaries
C. Venous valves
D. Pulmonary veins
Question 186
Which of the following is the hallmark feature of Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
B. Demyelination of central nervous system neurons
C. Loss of dopamine-producing neurons
D. Depletion of acetylcholine receptors
Question 187
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with tumor lysis syndrome?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypophosphatemia
Question 188
Which of the following is the primary cause of nephrotic syndrome?
A. Increased glomerular permeability
B. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
C. Urinary obstruction
D. Autoimmune glomerulonephritis
Question 189
What is the primary mechanism of injury in myocardial infarction?
A. Coronary artery occlusion leading to ischemia
B. Excessive oxygen supply to cardiac tissue
C. Hypertrophy of the myocardium
D. Infection of the myocardium
Question 190
Which condition is characterized by the presence of “helmet cells” or schistocytes in the blood?
A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
Question 191
Which of the following is the most common symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
A. Muscle weakness and visual disturbances
B. Progressive cognitive decline
C. Persistent joint pain and stiffness
D. Severe headaches and vomiting
Question 192
What is the primary feature of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
A. Thiamine deficiency causing encephalopathy
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency causing neuropathy
C. Chronic alcohol use causing liver failure
D. Iron deficiency causing neurological dysfunction
Question 193
Which of the following conditions is characterized by “bronze skin” pigmentation?
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Addison’s disease
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Pheochromocytoma
Question 194
What is the hallmark feature of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A. Ascending muscle paralysis
B. Descending muscle weakness
C. Spastic paralysis
D. Chronic progressive atrophy
Question 195
Which of the following is the most common complication of chronic hypertension?
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic dissection
D. Peripheral neuropathy
Question 196
What is the primary feature of achalasia?
A. Impaired relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter
B. Inflammation of the gastric mucosa
C. Obstruction of the pyloric sphincter
D. Hypersecretion of gastric acid
Question 197
Which of the following conditions is associated with a positive Trousseau’s sign?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Question 198
What is the main pathophysiological feature of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Increased alveolar capillary permeability
B. Decreased surfactant production
C. Airway hyperresponsiveness
D. Excessive mucus production
Question 199
Which condition is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Huntington’s disease
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Tay-Sachs disease
Question 200
Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with excessive vomiting?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Question 201
What is the primary cause of ascites in cirrhosis?
A. Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia
B. Increased bilirubin levels
C. Dehydration and hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia and thrombocytopenia
Question 202
Which of the following is the most common cause of lower respiratory tract infections in infants?
A. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Haemophilus influenzae
Question 203
Which of the following conditions is associated with café-au-lait spots?
A. Neurofibromatosis type 1
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Huntington’s disease
D. Wilson’s disease
Question 204
What is the hallmark feature of amyloidosis?
A. Deposition of abnormal protein fibrils in tissues
B. Defective hemoglobin production
C. Autoimmune destruction of epithelial cells
D. Impaired DNA repair mechanisms
Question 205
Which of the following is a key feature of Huntington’s disease?
A. Progressive chorea and dementia
B. Muscle rigidity and tremor
C. Peripheral nerve demyelination
D. Gradual vision loss
Question 206
Which of the following conditions is caused by Helicobacter pylori infection?
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
C. Celiac disease
D. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
Question 207
Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological feature of polycystic kidney disease?
A. Development of fluid-filled cysts in the kidneys
B. Autoimmune destruction of renal tissue
C. Increased glomerular filtration rate
D. Decreased renal perfusion pressure
Question 208
Which of the following is the characteristic feature of pheochromocytoma?
A. Excessive secretion of catecholamines
B. Insufficient secretion of aldosterone
C. Decreased cortisol production
D. Chronic low blood pressure
Question 209
Which of the following is associated with Kussmaul breathing?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Asthma exacerbation
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Question 210
What is the most common cause of death in Marfan syndrome?
A. Aortic dissection
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Heart failure
D. Stroke
Question 211
Which of the following best describes the term “pathogenesis”?
A. The mechanisms by which a disease develops
B. The genetic predisposition to a disease
C. The treatment options for a disease
D. The epidemiological distribution of a disease
Question 212
What is the primary reason hypovolemic shock leads to tissue hypoxia?
A. Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin
B. Inadequate blood volume for tissue perfusion
C. Increased metabolic demand in peripheral tissues
D. Vasodilation causing redistribution of blood
Question 213
Which diagnostic test would best differentiate between bacterial and viral meningitis?
A. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C. Complete blood count (CBC)
D. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
Question 214
How does prolonged hypertension lead to heart failure?
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy reduces diastolic filling
B. Increased preload damages cardiac valves
C. Decreased afterload reduces myocardial contractility
D. Right ventricular dilation causes pulmonary congestion
Question 215
Which of the following is the main pathophysiological change in Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
B. Peripheral insulin resistance
C. Increased hepatic glucose production
D. Hypersecretion of glucagon
Question 216
Why is tissue necrosis more common in patients with peripheral arterial disease (PAD)?
A. Reduced blood flow limits oxygen delivery to tissues
B. Overactive inflammatory response damages healthy tissue
C. Increased venous pressure causes fluid accumulation
D. Excessive angiogenesis leads to tissue ischemia
Question 217
Which of the following nutritional deficiencies is most likely to result in delayed wound healing?
A. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Vitamin A deficiency
C. Iron deficiency
D. Thiamine deficiency
Question 218
How does hyperthyroidism lead to increased cardiac output?
A. Increased metabolic rate stimulates myocardial contractility
B. Peripheral vasoconstriction reduces vascular resistance
C. Elevated cortisol levels enhance blood pressure
D. Increased sodium retention raises blood volume
Question 219
Which of the following laboratory tests is essential for diagnosing acute kidney injury (AKI)?
A. Serum creatinine and urine output
B. Fasting blood glucose
C. Arterial blood gas analysis
D. Complete lipid profile
Question 220
What is the primary mechanism of action for beta-blockers in the treatment of hypertension?
A. Reduction of heart rate and cardiac output
B. Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
C. Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
D. Promotion of diuresis and sodium excretion
Question 221
Which pathophysiological process is central to the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Increased alveolar-capillary membrane permeability
B. Obstruction of airways by mucus
C. Overactivation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
D. Hypoventilation causing respiratory acidosis
Question 222
Why is aspirin contraindicated in children with viral infections?
A. Risk of Reye’s syndrome
B. Increased likelihood of thrombocytopenia
C. Prolongation of prothrombin time
D. Development of autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Question 223
What is the clinical significance of elevated troponin levels in a patient presenting with chest pain?
A. Myocardial cell injury or death
B. Increased risk of thrombus formation
C. Coronary artery vasospasm
D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Question 224
How does chronic alcohol use contribute to liver cirrhosis?
A. Repeated inflammation and fibrosis
B. Accumulation of uric acid crystals
C. Reduced synthesis of digestive enzymes
D. Decreased portal vein pressure
Question 225
Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to metabolic alkalosis?
A. Prolonged vomiting
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Severe diarrhea
D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Question 226
Why is ACE inhibitor therapy beneficial in heart failure?
A. Reduces afterload and preload on the heart
B. Increases myocardial oxygen demand
C. Promotes water and sodium retention
D. Enhances sympathetic nervous system activity
Question 227
How does systemic inflammation contribute to sepsis-induced multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
A. Widespread vasodilation and capillary leakage
B. Increased blood viscosity and thrombus formation
C. Enhanced renal clearance of inflammatory mediators
D. Suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis
Question 228
Which pharmacological treatment is most appropriate for anaphylactic shock?
A. Intramuscular epinephrine
B. Intravenous furosemide
C. Oral antihistamines
D. Subcutaneous insulin
Question 229
What is the most likely cause of acute pancreatitis?
A. Gallstones and chronic alcohol use
B. Iron overload and vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Increased secretion of gastric acid
D. Chronic autoimmune damage to the pancreas
Question 230
How does systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) cause tissue damage?
A. Autoantibody production leading to immune complex deposition
B. Overactivation of T cells attacking epithelial tissues
C. Chronic bacterial infections in susceptible tissues
D. Impaired oxygen delivery to tissues due to anemia
Question 231
Which clinical finding is most consistent with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A. Air trapping and increased residual volume
B. Increased alveolar elasticity
C. Reduced surfactant production
D. Normal arterial oxygen levels
Question 232
Why is low-dose heparin often used in hospitalized patients?
A. Prevention of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
B. Treatment of active myocardial infarction
C. Management of chronic hypertension
D. Reduction of blood glucose levels
Question 233
What is the pathophysiological hallmark of Parkinson’s disease?
A. Loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra
B. Progressive demyelination of motor neurons
C. Widespread beta-amyloid deposition
D. Overproduction of acetylcholine in the brain
Question 234
Which condition is most likely to cause bilateral edema in the lower extremities?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Acute cellulitis
D. Pulmonary embolism
Question 235
What is the primary physiological consequence of chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
A. Accumulation of uremic toxins and electrolyte imbalances
B. Enhanced glomerular filtration rate
C. Increased calcium absorption in the gut
D. Hypersecretion of erythropoietin
Question 236
How does hyperglycemia contribute to diabetic neuropathy?
A. Chronic oxidative stress and vascular damage
B. Excess insulin receptor activation
C. Increased bone resorption and muscle loss
D. Hypoglycemia-induced neuronal death
Question 237
Why is intravenous calcium gluconate administered in severe hyperkalemia?
A. Stabilizes cardiac cell membranes
B. Promotes renal excretion of potassium
C. Inhibits gastrointestinal potassium absorption
D. Enhances muscle contractility
Question 238
Which of the following is a hallmark sign of inflammation?
A. Rubor, tumor, calor, and dolor
B. Fever and leukopenia
C. Hypertension and tachycardia
D. Anemia and fatigue
Question 239
What is the primary role of surfactant in the lungs?
A. Reducing alveolar surface tension
B. Transporting oxygen across the alveolar membrane
C. Enhancing mucus production
D. Facilitating ciliary movement
Question 240
Which hormone is directly responsible for stimulating the production of red blood cells?
A. Erythropoietin
B. Cortisol
C. Thyroxine
D. Growth hormone
Question 241
How does left-sided heart failure commonly manifest?
A. Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea
B. Peripheral edema and ascites
C. Jaundice and hepatomegaly
D. Increased appetite and hyperactivity
Question 242
What is the most common mechanism underlying peptic ulcer disease?
A. Imbalance between gastric acid production and mucosal defenses
B. Overproduction of bile acids
C. Hyperplasia of the gastric lining
D. Increased motility of the gastrointestinal tract
Question 243
What is the underlying cause of jaundice in liver failure?
A. Accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin
B. Reduced albumin synthesis
C. Excess production of clotting factors
D. Increased urea excretion
Question 244
Why does hyperkalemia occur in chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
A. Decreased renal excretion of potassium
B. Excessive release of aldosterone
C. Increased gastrointestinal potassium loss
D. Reduced dietary potassium intake
Question 245
What is the primary clinical manifestation of Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
A. Ascending muscle weakness
B. Loss of cognitive function
C. Chronic joint pain
D. Persistent fever
Question 246
Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of asthma?
A. Chronic inflammation and bronchoconstriction
B. Alveolar fibrosis and reduced elasticity
C. Hyperresponsiveness to infections
D. Excess surfactant production
Question 247
What causes the “butterfly rash” commonly associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A. Immune complex deposition in the skin
B. Hypersensitivity to UV light
C. Secondary bacterial infections
D. Vitamin deficiency
Question 248
Which of the following findings is most specific to nephrotic syndrome?
A. Proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia
B. Hematuria and hypertension
C. Polyuria and hypernatremia
D. Glycosuria and weight loss
Question 249
What is the primary consequence of atherosclerosis in coronary artery disease?
A. Reduced blood flow to the myocardium
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Hyperplasia of the vascular endothelium
D. Vasodilation of coronary arteries
Question 250
How does diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) develop?
A. Accumulation of ketone bodies due to fat breakdown
B. Excess insulin leading to hypoglycemia
C. Overproduction of glucagon causing hyperinsulinemia
D. Chronic retention of sodium and water
Question 251
Why is potassium supplementation used cautiously in patients on ACE inhibitors?
A. Risk of hyperkalemia due to reduced aldosterone
B. Increased risk of hypokalemia
C. Promotion of renal excretion of potassium
D. Inhibition of potassium absorption
Question 252
What is the hallmark feature of hemolytic anemia?
A. Premature destruction of red blood cells
B. Impaired production of hemoglobin
C. Abnormal platelet aggregation
D. Overactive bone marrow
Question 253
How does hypercalcemia affect the nervous system?
A. Depresses neuromuscular excitability
B. Enhances nerve impulse transmission
C. Causes seizures and muscle spasms
D. Leads to increased reflexes
Question 254
Which of the following best describes the function of T helper cells in the immune system?
A. Activating other immune cells
B. Directly killing infected cells
C. Producing antibodies
D. Suppressing autoimmune responses
Question 255
Why does anemia commonly occur in chronic kidney disease?
A. Reduced erythropoietin production
B. Decreased gastrointestinal iron absorption
C. Increased hemolysis
D. Excessive blood loss
Question 256
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in Addison’s disease?
A. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia and hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia and hypermagnesemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia and hypomagnesemia
Question 257
What is the primary mechanism by which corticosteroids reduce inflammation?
A. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
B. Neutralization of bacterial toxins
C. Activation of T lymphocytes
D. Enhancement of fibroblast activity
Question 258
What is the underlying cause of hypoxemia in pulmonary embolism?
A. Impaired blood flow to the alveoli
B. Excessive mucus secretion in the airways
C. Loss of alveolar elasticity
D. Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin
Question 259
What is the characteristic feature of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
A. Demyelination of central nervous system neurons
B. Loss of peripheral nerve function
C. Chronic depletion of acetylcholine
D. Excessive dopamine production
Question 260
How does cirrhosis of the liver lead to portal hypertension?
A. Increased resistance to blood flow through the liver
B. Decreased synthesis of clotting factors
C. Overproduction of bile acids
D. Reduced secretion of bilirubin
Question 261
Which hormone is elevated in response to hypoglycemia?
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. Aldosterone
D. Thyroxine
Question 262
Why does prolonged immobility increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Stasis of blood flow in the veins
B. Decrease in plasma clotting factors
C. Overactivation of fibrinolysis
D. Increased heart rate
Question 263
Which test is most commonly used to confirm a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?
A. Sweat chloride test
B. Complete blood count
C. Pulmonary function test
D. Chest X-ray
Question 264
Which of the following is the primary mediator of the allergic response in anaphylaxis?
A. Histamine
B. Prostaglandins
C. Interleukin-2
D. Bradykinin
Question 265
What is the primary goal of pharmacological treatment for congestive heart failure (CHF)?
A. Reduce myocardial workload and improve cardiac output
B. Enhance myocardial oxygen demand
C. Increase peripheral vascular resistance
D. Suppress the immune response
Question 266
What is the underlying cause of angina pectoris?
A. Insufficient blood flow to the myocardium
B. Overproduction of myocardial enzymes
C. Increased myocardial oxygen supply
D. Hyperplasia of coronary arteries
Question 267
Which laboratory test is most indicative of pancreatitis?
A. Elevated serum amylase and lipase
B. Increased liver transaminases
C. Elevated creatinine
D. Increased hemoglobin levels
Question 268
Which of the following conditions is associated with a “barrel chest” appearance?
A. Emphysema
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pleural effusion
Question 269
What is the primary function of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)?
A. Regulation of blood pressure and fluid balance
B. Synthesis of erythropoietin
C. Breakdown of glucose in the liver
D. Absorption of calcium in the intestines
Question 270
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with hyperaldosteronism?
A. Hypokalemia and hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia
C. Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia
D. Hypocalcemia and hypermagnesemia
Question 271
Which of the following is a common complication of untreated hypertension?
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Chronic anemia
D. Immune suppression
Question 272
What is the most likely consequence of a complete spinal cord injury at the cervical level?
A. Quadriplegia
B. Paraplegia
C. Hemiparesis
D. Loss of sensation below the thorax
Question 273
Which of the following is a common symptom of Grave’s disease?
A. Exophthalmos
B. Bradycardia
C. Hypothermia
D. Weight gain
Question 274
What is the pathophysiological hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
B. Loss of dopamine-producing neurons
C. Decreased acetylcholine receptor sensitivity
D. Destruction of oligodendrocytes
Question 275
Which condition is characterized by excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
A. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Cushing’s syndrome
D. Addison’s disease
Question 276
Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for hypoxemia in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Impaired gas exchange due to alveolar damage
B. Increased airway resistance
C. Hypercapnia due to hypoventilation
D. Overproduction of surfactant
Question 277
Which type of shock is caused by a severe allergic reaction?
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Septic shock
Question 278
Which test is most commonly used to monitor the progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C. Serum glucose levels
D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Question 279
Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Autoimmune destruction of synovial joints
B. Degeneration of articular cartilage
C. Deposition of urate crystals in joints
D. Formation of bone spurs
Question 280
Which of the following is a major complication of aortic aneurysm rupture?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Hypertension
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Hypercoagulability
Question 281
What is the most common site of metastasis for prostate cancer?
A. Bone
B. Liver
C. Brain
D. Skin
Question 282
What is the primary function of bile in digestion?
A. Emulsification of fats
B. Digestion of proteins
C. Breakdown of carbohydrates
D. Absorption of vitamins
Question 283
Which condition is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the colon?
A. Hirschsprung’s disease
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Diverticulitis
Question 284
What is the main clinical feature of Parkinson’s disease?
A. Bradykinesia and tremor
B. Hyperreflexia and spasticity
C. Ataxia and loss of coordination
D. Paralysis and muscle atrophy
Question 285
What is the primary cause of diabetic retinopathy?
A. Microvascular damage due to chronic hyperglycemia
B. Excessive intraocular pressure
C. Decreased oxygen supply to the retina
D. Overproduction of insulin
Question 286
What is the primary mechanism of action for beta-blockers?
A. Decreasing heart rate and myocardial contractility
B. Increasing peripheral vasodilation
C. Enhancing oxygen delivery to tissues
D. Promoting sodium and water retention
Question 287
Which of the following is a common sign of hypovolemic shock?
A. Tachycardia and hypotension
B. Bradycardia and hypertension
C. Fever and diaphoresis
D. Cyanosis and bradypnea
Question 288
Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Pancreas
D. Stomach
Question 289
What is the characteristic feature of von Willebrand disease?
A. Impaired platelet adhesion
B. Overproduction of clotting factors
C. Excessive destruction of red blood cells
D. Reduced synthesis of hemoglobin
Question 290
Which of the following is a primary symptom of myasthenia gravis?
A. Muscle weakness that worsens with activity
B. Persistent muscle spasms
C. Tremors and rigidity
D. Loss of sensation in extremities
Question 291
What is the pathophysiological mechanism behind Type 1 diabetes?
A. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
B. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
C. Excessive glucagon production
D. Hypersecretion of cortisol
Question 292
Which of the following is a common cause of portal hypertension?
A. Cirrhosis of the liver
B. Renal artery stenosis
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Pulmonary hypertension