Canadian Family Nurse Practitioner Examination
Preparing for the Canadian Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) exam can be a challenging yet rewarding journey. To help you succeed, Exam Sage offers a comprehensive Canadian Family Nurse Practitioner Practice Test, designed to provide you with the tools and knowledge you need to pass the exam with confidence. Whether you are a nursing student or an experienced healthcare professional seeking certification, this practice test is an essential resource.
Why Choose the Canadian Family Nurse Practitioner Practice Test?
The role of a Family Nurse Practitioner in Canada is pivotal in providing primary care, assessing patients, and diagnosing and treating a wide range of conditions. Our practice test is specifically designed to help you understand the complexities of this role and ensure you are fully prepared for the certification exam. With carefully crafted questions that reflect real exam content, you will be able to identify your strengths and areas that need improvement.
Key Topics Covered in the Practice Test
Primary Care and Health Promotion: Focus on the strategies and approaches used in promoting health and preventing illness across different age groups.
Clinical Decision-Making: Understand how to make evidence-based decisions in diagnosing, treating, and managing a variety of health conditions.
Patient Assessment: Learn the techniques involved in conducting comprehensive assessments, including history taking, physical examination, and diagnostic testing.
Pharmacology and Prescribing: Review your knowledge on pharmacology, drug classes, and prescribing practices that are integral to the FNP role in Canada.
Chronic Disease Management: Study the management of long-term health conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, and asthma.
Pediatrics and Geriatrics: Understand the unique healthcare needs of pediatric and elderly populations and how to address them effectively as an FNP.
Who Can Take the Canadian Family Nurse Practitioner Practice Test?
This practice test is ideal for:
Aspiring Family Nurse Practitioners: If you are preparing for the Canadian FNP certification exam, this test is the perfect resource to boost your knowledge and confidence.
Registered Nurses (RNs): RNs looking to advance their careers and become certified Family Nurse Practitioners will find this practice test an essential study tool.
Healthcare Professionals: Those working in the healthcare field who want to familiarize themselves with FNP responsibilities or who are planning to pursue further certification.
Features of the Canadian Family Nurse Practitioner Practice Test
Comprehensive Coverage: The test is designed to cover all aspects of the FNP exam, ensuring a well-rounded preparation experience.
Real-World Questions: The questions closely mirror the actual exam format, allowing you to practice under realistic conditions.
Detailed Explanations: Each question includes an in-depth explanation, helping you understand the reasoning behind the correct answers and reinforcing key concepts.
Flexible Learning: Take the practice test at your own pace, track your progress, and revisit any areas where you need additional practice.
Why Choose Exam Sage for Canadian Family Nurse Practitioner Exam?
At Exam Sage, we are dedicated to providing high-quality, expertly crafted practice tests that help students and professionals achieve their goals. Our Canadian Family Nurse Practitioner Practice Test is no exception. It is designed to ensure that you are fully prepared for the exam, offering a thorough and effective study tool.
Sample Questions and Answers
Which of the following immunizations is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Influenza (inactivated)
B. Tdap
C. MMR
D. Hepatitis B
Answer: C. MMR
Explanation: MMR is a live vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.
A 5-year-old presents with a barking cough and inspiratory stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Asthma
B. Epiglottitis
C. Croup
D. Bronchiolitis
Answer: C. Croup
Explanation: Croup is common in young children and presents with a characteristic “barking” cough and stridor due to upper airway inflammation.
Which antihypertensive is most appropriate in a patient with diabetes and proteinuria?
A. Beta-blocker
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. ACE inhibitor
D. Thiazide diuretic
Answer: C. ACE inhibitor
Explanation: ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular pressure and are renal-protective in diabetic patients.
What is the gold standard for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?
A. Random glucose test
B. Fasting plasma glucose
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. HbA1c
Answer: C. Oral glucose tolerance test
Explanation: The 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing diabetes.
A 72-year-old woman presents with acute confusion. What is the most appropriate first step?
A. Start antipsychotics
B. Order a CT scan
C. Assess for infection or metabolic causes
D. Refer to psychiatry
Answer: C. Assess for infection or metabolic causes
Explanation: Acute confusion (delirium) in the elderly often has an underlying medical cause such as UTI or electrolyte imbalance.
What is the first-line treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in a healthy adult?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Azithromycin
D. Doxycycline
Answer: A. Amoxicillin
Explanation: Amoxicillin is recommended first-line for community-acquired pneumonia in otherwise healthy adults.
A patient with suspected DVT should first receive which diagnostic test?
A. D-dimer
B. Venous Doppler ultrasound
C. CT angiography
D. MRI
Answer: B. Venous Doppler ultrasound
Explanation: Ultrasound is the preferred initial diagnostic tool for evaluating deep vein thrombosis.
Which of the following is a red flag symptom for back pain?
A. Pain relieved by rest
B. Pain worse at night
C. Pain after lifting
D. Pain with prolonged standing
Answer: B. Pain worse at night
Explanation: Nocturnal pain can indicate serious pathology such as malignancy or infection.
Which lab test best monitors long-term glycemic control?
A. Fasting glucose
B. Random glucose
C. HbA1c
D. Insulin level
Answer: C. HbA1c
Explanation: HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months and is used for long-term monitoring.
Which symptom is more characteristic of hyperthyroidism than hypothyroidism?
A. Weight gain
B. Cold intolerance
C. Bradycardia
D. Heat intolerance
Answer: D. Heat intolerance
Explanation: Patients with hyperthyroidism often report heat intolerance due to increased metabolism.
What is the most appropriate contraception for a 17-year-old who desires long-term pregnancy prevention?
A. Combined oral contraceptives
B. Condoms
C. Depo-Provera
D. IUD
Answer: D. IUD
Explanation: Long-acting reversible contraception like IUDs is highly effective and suitable for adolescents.
A 6-month-old has a fever and pulling at their ear. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Otitis externa
B. Sinusitis
C. Otitis media
D. Mastoiditis
Answer: C. Otitis media
Explanation: Fever and ear pulling are common signs of otitis media in infants.
What should a nurse practitioner do if a patient discloses intimate partner violence?
A. Report to the police immediately
B. Document the disclosure and offer resources
C. Contact the partner for confirmation
D. Ignore if patient denies danger
Answer: B. Document the disclosure and offer resources
Explanation: The NP should document and provide support and resources; mandatory reporting depends on local laws.
Which of the following is recommended colorectal cancer screening for average-risk adults?
A. Start at age 40
B. Colonoscopy every 10 years starting at age 50
C. Colonoscopy annually
D. FIT every 2 years starting at age 45
Answer: B. Colonoscopy every 10 years starting at age 50
Explanation: This is the standard screening protocol unless risk factors suggest earlier testing.
A positive Phalen’s and Tinel’s sign is most indicative of:
A. Rotator cuff tear
B. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome
D. Radial nerve palsy
Answer: C. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation: Both Phalen’s and Tinel’s are physical exam maneuvers to assess median nerve compression.
Which vaccine is recommended annually for patients with chronic respiratory illness?
A. Tetanus
B. Pneumococcal
C. Influenza
D. Hepatitis A
Answer: C. Influenza
Explanation: Annual influenza vaccination is essential in patients with chronic respiratory conditions.
Which of the following lab values is most concerning in a patient taking warfarin?
A. INR of 1.2
B. INR of 2.5
C. INR of 3.5
D. INR of 5.0
Answer: D. INR of 5.0
Explanation: An INR of 5.0 indicates a high bleeding risk and warrants immediate intervention.
Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Lisinopril
C. Insulin
D. Erythromycin
Answer: B. Lisinopril
Explanation: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is contraindicated due to risks of fetal renal damage.
A child presents with vesicles on the hands, feet, and mouth. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Chickenpox
C. Hand, foot, and mouth disease
D. Scarlet fever
Answer: C. Hand, foot, and mouth disease
Explanation: Caused by coxsackievirus, this condition is common in children.
Which screening is most appropriate for a sexually active woman under 25?
A. Pap smear
B. HIV test only
C. Chlamydia and gonorrhea NAAT
D. Mammogram
Answer: C. Chlamydia and gonorrhea NAAT
Explanation: Annual STI screening is recommended for sexually active females under 25.
First-line pharmacologic therapy for generalized anxiety disorder includes:
A. Benzodiazepines
B. SSRIs
C. Beta-blockers
D. Antipsychotics
Answer: B. SSRIs
Explanation: SSRIs are the first-line treatment due to safety and efficacy for long-term use.
What is the most appropriate step in smoking cessation counseling?
A. Provide medication only
B. Use the 5 A’s framework
C. Refer to a cardiologist
D. Recommend cutting down slowly
Answer: B. Use the 5 A’s framework
Explanation: The 5 A’s (Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange) is the recommended approach.
What is the most appropriate test for diagnosing streptococcal pharyngitis?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Rapid antigen detection test
C. Nasal swab
D. Blood culture
Answer: B. Rapid antigen detection test
Explanation: This test provides quick diagnosis of Group A streptococcus.
What does an elevated TSH with low free T4 indicate?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Euthyroid sick syndrome
C. Subclinical hypothyroidism
D. Overt hypothyroidism
Answer: D. Overt hypothyroidism
Explanation: Elevated TSH and low free T4 confirm a diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism.
A female with BMI 17.2 and amenorrhea likely has:
A. PCOS
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Endometriosis
Answer: B. Anorexia nervosa
Explanation: Underweight with amenorrhea suggests hypothalamic suppression seen in anorexia.
Which of the following lab findings suggests bacterial over viral sinusitis?
A. Normal WBC
B. Low CRP
C. High neutrophils
D. Lymphocytosis
Answer: C. High neutrophils
Explanation: Neutrophilia typically indicates a bacterial infection.
A man presents with right lower quadrant pain and rebound tenderness. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Diverticulitis
B. Appendicitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Cholecystitis
Answer: B. Appendicitis
Explanation: RLQ pain with rebound tenderness is classic for acute appendicitis.
Which of the following is a hallmark sign of congestive heart failure on exam?
A. Hepatosplenomegaly
B. Jugular venous distension
C. Periorbital edema
D. Wheezing
Answer: B. Jugular venous distension
Explanation: JVD is a key physical finding in right-sided heart failure.
For a patient with chronic asthma, which medication is used for long-term control?
A. Albuterol
B. Oral corticosteroids
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. Theophylline
Answer: C. Inhaled corticosteroids
Explanation: ICS are the cornerstone of long-term asthma management.
Which test confirms a urinary tract infection?
A. Urinalysis
B. Blood culture
C. CT abdomen
D. Urine culture
Answer: D. Urine culture
Explanation: A urine culture is the gold standard for confirming UTI.
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