Canadian Practical Nurse Registration Examination

Canadian Practical Nurse Registration Examination (CPNRE) Overview

The Canadian Practical Nurse Registration Examination (CPNRE) is a crucial certification test for individuals seeking to become licensed practical nurses (LPNs) in Canada. The exam is designed to assess the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to safely and effectively practice as an LPN across a variety of healthcare settings.

Examination Structure and Content

The CPNRE is a computer-based test consisting of multiple-choice questions. These questions cover a wide range of nursing topics, including patient care, pharmacology, infection control, ethics, and communication. The exam is structured to reflect real-world scenarios that LPNs will face, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for their professional responsibilities.

Eligibility Requirements

To be eligible for the CPNRE, candidates must have completed a recognized practical nursing program in Canada. The exam is open to graduates who meet the required educational qualifications and have the necessary clinical experience.

Preparation and Study Resources

Effective preparation for the CPNRE involves thorough study using practice exams, review books, and other resources that cover the essential content areas. Exam candidates should focus on both theoretical knowledge and clinical application to succeed on the exam.

Importance of the CPNRE

Passing the CPNRE is a critical step in obtaining the necessary licensure to practice as an LPN in Canada. It ensures that nurses are equipped with the competencies required to provide safe, high-quality care to patients.Visit for More Nursing Examinations: Nursing Examination .”

Sample Questions and Answers for CPNRE Examination

A practical nurse is assigned to care for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to promote oxygenation?

A. Encourage deep breathing with abdominal muscle contractions
B. Administer oxygen at 6L/min via nasal cannula
C. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
D. Restrict fluid intake to reduce secretions

Correct Answer: C. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
Explanation: High Fowler’s position promotes maximal lung expansion and improves breathing. Oxygen should be administered cautiously in COPD patients, and fluids help thin secretions rather than restrict them.

Which of the following is the best response by a nurse when a client asks, “Will I die from this illness?”

A. “Only your doctor can answer that.”
B. “Let’s focus on staying positive.”
C. “Can you tell me what concerns you most about your illness?”
D. “There is no reason to think that right now.”

Correct Answer: C. “Can you tell me what concerns you most about your illness?”
Explanation: This therapeutic communication technique encourages the client to express emotions and fears, which builds trust and supports patient-centered care.

A client newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes asks why diet and exercise are important. What is the most appropriate response?

A. “They prevent you from needing insulin.”
B. “They can help reduce your blood glucose levels naturally.”
C. “They cure diabetes if followed strictly.”
D. “They are optional but can be helpful.”

Correct Answer: B. “They can help reduce your blood glucose levels naturally.”
Explanation: Diet and exercise are essential in managing type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity and helping control blood glucose.

When preparing to administer digoxin, the nurse notes the client’s pulse is 52 bpm. What is the best action?

A. Administer the medication
B. Recheck the pulse in 15 minutes
C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
D. Document the pulse and continue with the medication

Correct Answer: C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
Explanation: Digoxin can slow the heart rate. If the pulse is below 60 bpm, it should be held, and the provider notified.

Which of the following is a violation of client confidentiality?

A. Discussing the client’s condition in a private nursing huddle
B. Reviewing client records for patients under your care
C. Talking about a client’s condition in the hospital cafeteria
D. Sharing relevant information with the client’s physiotherapist

Correct Answer: C. Talking about a client’s condition in the hospital cafeteria
Explanation: Discussing client information in a public area violates confidentiality and privacy regulations.

Which is a primary purpose of the Canadian Nurses Association (CNA) Code of Ethics?

A. Define legal practice boundaries
B. Guide nurses in ethical decision-making
C. Replace institutional policies
D. Mandate disciplinary actions

Correct Answer: B. Guide nurses in ethical decision-making
Explanation: The CNA Code of Ethics offers guidance on moral and ethical dilemmas in nursing care.

The nurse is assessing a client postoperatively. Which of the following requires immediate intervention?

A. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
B. Heart rate of 92 bpm
C. Temperature of 37.2°C
D. Pain rating of 4/10

Correct Answer: A. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
Explanation: A low respiratory rate may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioids or anesthesia.

Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of how to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A. “I should take a bubble bath daily.”
B. “I should wipe from back to front.”
C. “I will drink at least 8 glasses of water daily.”
D. “I should hold my urine as long as possible.”

Correct Answer: C. “I will drink at least 8 glasses of water daily.”
Explanation: Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, preventing infection.

A nurse suspects a colleague is impaired while on duty. What is the nurse’s ethical responsibility?

A. Ignore it unless there’s patient harm
B. Document and report the behavior to the supervisor
C. Confront the colleague privately
D. Call the police immediately

Correct Answer: B. Document and report the behavior to the supervisor
Explanation: Reporting impaired practice is a legal and ethical duty to protect patient safety.

A nurse is teaching an elderly client about fall prevention. Which instruction is most effective?

A. “Keep your home dark to avoid glare.”
B. “Wear socks on hardwood floors.”
C. “Use a cane or walker for support.”
D. “Place rugs in high-traffic areas.”

Correct Answer: C. “Use a cane or walker for support.”
Explanation: Assistive devices improve balance and stability, reducing fall risk.

A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the nurse’s best response?

A. “Just ignore the voices.”
B. “The voices aren’t real, so stop listening to them.”
C. “I understand you’re hearing voices. Can you tell me what they’re saying?”
D. “Take your medication and try to relax.”

Correct Answer: C. “I understand you’re hearing voices. Can you tell me what they’re saying?”
Explanation: This response validates the client’s experience without reinforcing the hallucination and encourages communication.

Which vital sign change should a nurse report immediately in a pregnant woman at 34 weeks gestation?

A. Pulse rate of 88 bpm
B. Blood pressure of 146/96 mmHg
C. Respiratory rate of 20
D. Temperature of 37.5°C

Correct Answer: B. Blood pressure of 146/96 mmHg
Explanation: Elevated BP may indicate preeclampsia, which is a medical emergency requiring further assessment and intervention.

What is the priority action when administering a blood transfusion?

A. Obtain the client’s temperature before the infusion
B. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes
C. Run the transfusion rapidly to avoid clotting
D. Document the infusion before it starts

Correct Answer: B. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes
Explanation: Most transfusion reactions occur within the first 15 minutes; close monitoring is essential during this time.

A client with depression states, “There’s no point in trying anymore.” What is the best response by the nurse?

A. “Things will get better soon.”
B. “You shouldn’t feel that way.”
C. “Are you thinking of harming yourself?”
D. “Don’t give up just yet.”

Correct Answer: C. “Are you thinking of harming yourself?”
Explanation: This is a direct but nonjudgmental question that assesses suicidal ideation, which is critical for safety.

A nurse is giving discharge teaching to a client on warfarin. Which statement shows understanding?

A. “I’ll eat more green leafy vegetables.”
B. “I’ll take aspirin for pain relief.”
C. “I’ll avoid activities that may cause bleeding.”
D. “I’ll double the dose if I miss one.”

Correct Answer: C. “I’ll avoid activities that may cause bleeding.”
Explanation: Warfarin is an anticoagulant. Preventing trauma is vital to reduce bleeding risk.

When should hand hygiene be performed during client care?

A. Only after glove removal
B. After touching sterile equipment
C. Before and after all client contact
D. Only when entering the client’s room

Correct Answer: C. Before and after all client contact
Explanation: Hand hygiene is essential to prevent the spread of infection and must be done before and after client interactions.

A 4-year-old child is admitted with signs of neglect. What is the nurse’s legal obligation?

A. Wait to gather more evidence
B. Report the suspicion to child protection services
C. Talk to the parents about possible neglect
D. Inform another nurse

Correct Answer: B. Report the suspicion to child protection services
Explanation: Nurses are mandated reporters and must report suspected abuse or neglect.

A client is receiving morphine sulfate for pain. Which is the most important nursing action?

A. Encourage fluid intake
B. Monitor respiratory rate
C. Assess for constipation
D. Record pain levels hourly

Correct Answer: B. Monitor respiratory rate
Explanation: Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of opioids and must be monitored closely.

Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with a pressure ulcer?

A. Reposition every 2 hours
B. Use cold compresses on the wound
C. Limit protein in the diet
D. Massage the reddened area

Correct Answer: A. Reposition every 2 hours
Explanation: Repositioning prevents further skin breakdown and promotes healing of pressure injuries.

What is the main goal of palliative care?

A. Cure the disease
B. Delay death as long as possible
C. Provide comfort and quality of life
D. Promote complete independence

Correct Answer: C. Provide comfort and quality of life
Explanation: Palliative care focuses on symptom relief, emotional support, and improving life quality—not curing disease.

The nurse notices a colleague repeatedly documenting vital signs without actually taking them. What is the best course of action?

A. Ignore the situation to avoid conflict
B. Document the issue and report it to the supervisor
C. Confront the colleague immediately in public
D. Tell another co-worker to handle it

Correct Answer: B. Document the issue and report it to the supervisor
Explanation: Falsifying documentation is a serious ethical and legal violation and must be reported.

A nurse prepares to administer insulin but notices the dosage is unusually high. What is the first action?

A. Double-check the doctor’s order
B. Administer half the dose
C. Ask another nurse to verify
D. Call the pharmacy

Correct Answer: A. Double-check the doctor’s order
Explanation: Verifying the medication order ensures safe administration and prevents dosage errors.

What is the best approach for a nurse dealing with a confused elderly client who tries to climb out of bed?

A. Apply physical restraints
B. Use a bed alarm and frequent checks
C. Sedate the client at bedtime
D. Raise all side rails

Correct Answer: B. Use a bed alarm and frequent checks
Explanation: Bed alarms and frequent monitoring help ensure safety without resorting to restraints or sedation.

Which statement by a nursing student requires intervention?

A. “I always wash my hands before wound care.”
B. “I recap used needles to avoid sticking myself.”
C. “I use PPE when required by policy.”
D. “I double-check client ID before giving medication.”

Correct Answer: B. “I recap used needles to avoid sticking myself.”
Explanation: Needles should never be recapped after use due to the risk of needlestick injury.

A client on furosemide reports muscle cramps. What should the nurse do first?

A. Document the complaint
B. Encourage walking
C. Check potassium levels
D. Reassure the client

Correct Answer: C. Check potassium levels
Explanation: Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to muscle cramps.

What does informed consent require?

A. Only a witness signature
B. That the client is competent and understands the procedure
C. That the nurse explains the procedure
D. That the family approves the procedure

Correct Answer: B. That the client is competent and understands the procedure
Explanation: Informed consent requires client understanding, voluntary agreement, and legal capacity.

The nurse is assessing a newborn. Which finding should be reported immediately?

A. A respiratory rate of 58 bpm
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Nasal flaring and grunting
D. Positive Babinski reflex

Correct Answer: C. Nasal flaring and grunting
Explanation: These are signs of respiratory distress and require immediate intervention.

What is the most appropriate response when a client refuses a medication?

A. Disguise the medication in food
B. Report the refusal and document it
C. Persuade the client until they agree
D. Give it anyway if it’s a critical drug

Correct Answer: B. Report the refusal and document it
Explanation: Clients have the right to refuse treatment. It should be documented and reported to the provider.

Which of the following is a key indicator of elder abuse?

A. Increased appetite
B. Clean clothing and grooming
C. Multiple bruises in different stages of healing
D. Requests for frequent bathroom visits

Correct Answer: C. Multiple bruises in different stages of healing
Explanation: This pattern may indicate repeated trauma, often associated with abuse.

A nurse is caring for a terminally ill client who expresses fear of dying. What is the best response?

A. “Everyone feels that way sometimes.”
B. “You should stay strong for your family.”
C. “Can you tell me more about what you’re afraid of?”
D. “Let’s not think about that now.”

Correct Answer: C. “Can you tell me more about what you’re afraid of?”
Explanation: Open-ended, empathetic responses encourage the client to express their emotions and fears in a supportive way.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. What is the nurse’s priority action?

A. Continue as ordered
B. Lower the rate to 2 L/min and notify the physician
C. Switch to a face mask
D. Increase oxygen to 6 L/min

Correct Answer: B. Lower the rate to 2 L/min and notify the physician
Explanation: High oxygen concentrations can suppress the respiratory drive in COPD clients. 2 L/min is safer until orders are clarified.

Which action demonstrates appropriate delegation by the practical nurse?

A. Assigning a newly admitted client to a healthcare aide
B. Asking an RN to complete medication administration
C. Delegating bathing of a stable client to a UCP
D. Telling the ward clerk to monitor blood glucose

Correct Answer: C. Delegating bathing of a stable client to a UCP
Explanation: Delegation is appropriate when the task is within the UCP’s role and the client is stable.

A diabetic client has a blood glucose reading of 2.5 mmol/L. What is the nurse’s immediate action?

A. Call the physician
B. Recheck the glucose in 30 minutes
C. Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
D. Encourage the client to sleep

Correct Answer: C. Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
Explanation: This is a hypoglycemic episode; immediate treatment is essential to prevent deterioration.

Which is an appropriate nursing intervention for a client experiencing acute mania?

A. Encourage group activities
B. Provide a stimulating environment
C. Limit environmental stimuli
D. Engage in lengthy discussions

Correct Answer: C. Limit environmental stimuli
Explanation: Minimizing stimuli helps reduce agitation and risk of harm during manic episodes.

A client post-op day 1 refuses physiotherapy due to pain. What is the nurse’s best response?

A. “You must participate to avoid complications.”
B. “Would you like pain medication before therapy?”
C. “You can skip it just for today.”
D. “Tell the physiotherapist yourself.”

Correct Answer: B. “Would you like pain medication before therapy?”
Explanation: Managing pain encourages participation and supports recovery without forcing compliance.

A nurse is assisting a client with cultural dietary restrictions. What is the best action?

A. Offer standard hospital meals
B. Ask the family to bring food
C. Contact dietary services to accommodate preferences
D. Recommend the client adjust temporarily

Correct Answer: C. Contact dietary services to accommodate preferences
Explanation: Respecting cultural needs supports holistic, client-centered care and nutrition compliance.

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client at risk for falls?

A. Activity intolerance
B. Risk for injury
C. Altered mobility
D. Impaired skin integrity

Correct Answer: B. Risk for injury
Explanation: Falls pose a high risk for harm; preventing injury is the top priority in fall prevention.

A pediatric client with asthma is using a metered-dose inhaler. Which statement by the parent indicates correct understanding?

A. “He should hold his breath for 2 seconds after inhaling.”
B. “He needs to rinse his mouth after using it.”
C. “He can use the inhaler whenever he feels like it.”
D. “The inhaler must be stored in the freezer.”

Correct Answer: B. “He needs to rinse his mouth after using it.”
Explanation: Rinsing reduces the risk of oral thrush, especially when using corticosteroid inhalers.

Which lab value should the nurse monitor in a client taking digoxin?

A. Hemoglobin
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Glucose

Correct Answer: B. Potassium
Explanation: Low potassium increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring levels is essential.

A client reports seeing “bugs crawling on the wall.” What is this symptom called?

A. Illusion
B. Hallucination
C. Delusion
D. Paranoia

Correct Answer: B. Hallucination
Explanation: Hallucinations are sensory perceptions without external stimuli and are common in psychosis.