What is CCNA Cyber Ops Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Exam?
The CCNA Cyber Ops Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Exam is a crucial certification exam designed for cybersecurity professionals aiming to build foundational skills in monitoring, detecting, and responding to cybersecurity threats within Cisco environments. This exam tests your knowledge of security concepts, network intrusion analysis, incident response, and the operational skills needed to protect Cisco networks from cyber attacks.
What will you learn?
By preparing with this comprehensive practice test on Exam Sage, you will master essential cybersecurity operations concepts, including:
Understanding security monitoring tools and techniques
Analyzing network traffic and security logs
Detecting and responding to threats and incidents
Implementing Cisco security technologies and solutions
Applying best practices for security operations center (SOC) tasks
Covered topics include:
Security concepts and principles
Network fundamentals and protocols relevant to cybersecurity
Monitoring and analyzing network traffic and events
Incident response processes and techniques
Cisco security technologies such as Cisco Firepower, Umbrella, and Stealthwatch
Identity and access management
Threat intelligence and vulnerability management
Access control and security policy implementation
Why choose Exam Sage for your CCNA Cyber Ops preparation?
ExamSage.com offers a high-quality, up-to-date practice test specifically tailored to the CCNA Cyber Ops Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Exam. Our questions are carefully crafted by cybersecurity experts to simulate the actual exam environment, helping you build confidence and reinforce your knowledge effectively. Each question comes with detailed explanations to deepen your understanding and clarify complex concepts.
With Exam Sage, you gain:
Realistic exam-style questions aligned with Cisco’s current syllabus
Comprehensive answer explanations to support learning
Flexible online practice accessible anytime, anywhere
Trusted by aspiring cybersecurity professionals worldwide
Prepare smarter, improve your exam readiness, and increase your chances of certification success with Exam Sage — your trusted partner in cybersecurity exam preparation.
Sample Questions and Answers
✅ 1. What is the primary purpose of NetFlow in a cybersecurity context?
A. To scan open ports on a host
B. To block traffic at the perimeter firewall
C. To collect metadata on network traffic for analysis
D. To provide deep packet inspection
Answer: C
Explanation: NetFlow is used to collect IP traffic information for monitoring and analysis. It helps in understanding network usage and detecting anomalies.
✅ 2. Which tool would a SOC analyst most likely use for centralized logging?
A. Wireshark
B. Netcat
C. Syslog
D. Nmap
Answer: C
Explanation: Syslog is a standard protocol used to collect and centralize log messages from network devices and servers, making it vital in SOC operations.
✅ 3. What is the most effective way to prevent unauthorized physical access to a server room?
A. Using a complex password policy
B. Installing antivirus software
C. Implementing biometric authentication at entry
D. Encrypting all data
Answer: C
Explanation: Biometric access control ensures that only authorized personnel can physically enter secure areas, preventing unauthorized physical access.
✅ 4. Which protocol is used to securely manage network devices over an encrypted channel?
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. SSH
D. SNMPv1
Answer: C
Explanation: SSH (Secure Shell) encrypts communication and is used to securely manage network devices, unlike Telnet or SNMPv1, which are insecure.
✅ 5. What is the main purpose of a sandbox in malware analysis?
A. Encrypt sensitive files
B. Execute and observe file behavior in isolation
C. Hide malicious code
D. Block outbound DNS traffic
Answer: B
Explanation: A sandbox is an isolated environment where suspicious files or programs can be run to observe their behavior without risk to the actual system.
✅ 6. Which tool is commonly used to capture and analyze packet-level traffic?
A. SIEM
B. Wireshark
C. Nessus
D. Metasploit
Answer: B
Explanation: Wireshark is a packet sniffer used for deep packet inspection and network traffic analysis, often used by cybersecurity analysts.
✅ 7. A user’s device is generating unusual DNS traffic to random domains. What type of attack is this most likely indicative of?
A. DoS
B. DNS tunneling
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. SYN flood
Answer: B
Explanation: DNS tunneling involves using DNS queries and responses to exfiltrate data or maintain command-and-control communication covertly.
✅ 8. Which of the following is considered a Layer 2 attack?
A. IP spoofing
B. MAC flooding
C. SQL injection
D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: B
Explanation: MAC flooding is a Layer 2 attack that overwhelms the switch’s CAM table with bogus MAC addresses, causing the switch to act like a hub.
✅ 9. What does CVE stand for in cybersecurity?
A. Common Virus Enumeration
B. Critical Vulnerability Exposure
C. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. Cybersecurity Vulnerability Event
Answer: C
Explanation: CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures, a public database of known security vulnerabilities.
✅ 10. In the cybersecurity kill chain, what is the second step after reconnaissance?
A. Weaponization
B. Delivery
C. Exploitation
D. Command and Control
Answer: A
Explanation: Weaponization involves creating the malicious payload (e.g., malware) after gathering information during reconnaissance.
✅ 11. Which security technology aggregates data from multiple sources for analysis?
A. IPS
B. SIEM
C. DLP
D. NGFW
Answer: B
Explanation: A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system collects and correlates data from various sources for centralized analysis.
✅ 12. What does the CIA triad stand for in cybersecurity?
A. Cybersecurity, Integrity, Authentication
B. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
C. Control, Identification, Access
D. Confidentiality, Inspection, Availability
Answer: B
Explanation: The CIA triad consists of Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability — the three core principles of information security.
✅ 13. Which of the following is an example of endpoint detection and response (EDR)?
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. Cisco AMP for Endpoints
C. Snort
D. Zeek
Answer: B
Explanation: Cisco AMP for Endpoints is an example of an EDR solution that detects, investigates, and responds to advanced threats on endpoint devices.
✅ 14. What type of attack involves intercepting communication between two parties without their knowledge?
A. DDoS
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Phishing
D. Brute force
Answer: B
Explanation: In a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack, the attacker secretly relays or alters the communication between two parties.
✅ 15. Which of the following is most useful for detecting lateral movement in a network?
A. Firewall logs
B. Host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)
C. Public key infrastructure
D. Password manager
Answer: B
Explanation: HIDS monitors host-level activity, including unauthorized access or privilege escalation, making it effective for detecting lateral movement.
✅ 16. What is the purpose of a demilitarized zone (DMZ) in network architecture?
A. To encrypt data traffic
B. To provide a buffer zone between internal and external networks
C. To isolate malware
D. To store backup data
Answer: B
Explanation: A DMZ is a subnet that acts as a buffer between a private network and the internet, hosting publicly accessible services.
✅ 17. What kind of threat is described by “zero-day”?
A. An old vulnerability that’s re-exploited
B. A vulnerability with a known patch
C. A previously unknown vulnerability exploited before a patch is available
D. A user clicking a phishing email
Answer: C
Explanation: A zero-day is an unknown security vulnerability that is exploited before the vendor has released a fix.
✅ 18. What is the purpose of a digital certificate in cybersecurity?
A. To detect malware
B. To encrypt logs
C. To verify identity and secure communications
D. To block access to malicious websites
Answer: C
Explanation: Digital certificates use public key infrastructure to verify identities and enable encrypted communication over insecure networks.
✅ 19. What does the term “threat intelligence” refer to?
A. Firewalls and intrusion detection
B. Anti-virus databases
C. Contextual information on threat actors and tactics
D. Network segmentation maps
Answer: C
Explanation: Threat intelligence provides data and context about threat actors, their behavior, and the indicators of compromise.
✅ 20. What is the most important first step in incident response?
A. Eradication
B. Containment
C. Identification
D. Recovery
Answer: C
Explanation: Identification is the first step in incident response to determine whether a security event qualifies as an actual incident.
✅ 21. Which type of malware is designed to replicate itself without user intervention?
A. Worm
B. Trojan
C. Rootkit
D. Spyware
Answer: A
Explanation: Worms are self-replicating programs that spread across networks without needing to attach to a host file.
✅ 22. What is the function of an IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)?
A. To log network traffic
B. To block known malicious traffic in real time
C. To isolate endpoints
D. To scan endpoints for vulnerabilities
Answer: B
Explanation: IPS systems monitor traffic for suspicious behavior and block malicious packets in real time.
✅ 23. Which header field in a TCP packet is most useful for tracking a connection state?
A. Source IP
B. Sequence Number
C. Time-to-Live
D. Header Checksum
Answer: B
Explanation: The TCP sequence number is used to track the state and order of packets in a TCP session, useful for analyzing connection behavior.
✅ 24. A honeypot is best used for which purpose?
A. Encrypting user credentials
B. Scanning networks
C. Luring attackers to monitor behavior
D. Blocking unauthorized emails
Answer: C
Explanation: Honeypots are decoy systems designed to lure attackers so their behavior can be observed and analyzed.
✅ 25. What is exfiltration in the context of cybersecurity?
A. Breaking into a network
B. Moving laterally within a network
C. Extracting sensitive data from the network
D. Installing malware on a server
Answer: C
Explanation: Exfiltration refers to the unauthorized transfer of data from a computer or network.
✅ 26. What type of file is commonly used in phishing attacks?
A. .exe
B. .dll
C. .doc or .pdf
D. .tmp
Answer: C
Explanation: Malicious macros or scripts are often embedded in Word or PDF documents used in phishing emails.
✅ 27. What does an attacker aim to achieve with privilege escalation?
A. Reduce user access
B. Gain unauthorized elevated access
C. Disrupt hardware
D. Delete DNS records
Answer: B
Explanation: Privilege escalation involves gaining higher access rights than intended, such as moving from a user account to admin.
✅ 28. Which framework helps organizations respond to and recover from cybersecurity incidents?
A. NIST Cybersecurity Framework
B. TCP/IP Model
C. OSI Model
D. ITIL
Answer: A
Explanation: The NIST Cybersecurity Framework provides guidelines for identifying, protecting, detecting, responding to, and recovering from cyber threats.
✅ 29. What is a common indication of a botnet infection?
A. Frequent password reset requests
B. High CPU usage during idle periods
C. Missing application updates
D. Disabled screensaver
Answer: B
Explanation: Botnets often use the host’s resources in the background, leading to unusual system activity like high CPU usage.
✅ 30. What is the most appropriate action when a phishing attempt is discovered in the organization?
A. Notify legal counsel
B. Delete the email
C. Report and quarantine the email for analysis
D. Reboot the email server
Answer: C
Explanation: Reporting and quarantining allows SOC analysts to study the phishing attempt, create signatures, and warn others.
