CCNA Security: Implementing Cisco Network Security Practice Exam
Preparing for the CCNA Security: Implementing Cisco Network Security (210-260 IINS) exam? Look no further. This comprehensive practice test on Exam Sage is designed to help you master the essential concepts and skills required to secure Cisco networks effectively.
What is the CCNA Security Exam?
The CCNA Security certification validates your knowledge of network security fundamentals, Cisco security infrastructure, threat mitigation, and firewall technologies. It’s an industry-recognized credential that opens doors to careers in network security administration, security operations, and more.
What You Will Learn
This practice exam covers key topics aligned with the official CCNA Security syllabus, helping you build confidence and sharpen your skills:
Network Security Concepts: Understand threats, vulnerabilities, and mitigation techniques to protect network infrastructure.
Cisco Security Infrastructure: Configure and manage Cisco security devices including Cisco ASA firewalls.
VPN Technologies: Implement secure VPN connections using IPsec and SSL.
Firewall and Intrusion Prevention: Deploy and configure firewall policies and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) for enhanced security.
Access Control: Configure authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) and secure administrative access.
Cisco IOS Security: Secure network devices and implement security features on Cisco routers and switches.
Content and Endpoint Security: Protect networks with Cisco’s advanced security tools and techniques.
Why Choose Exam Sage for Your CCNA Security Exam Prep?
At ExamSage.com, we specialize in creating practice exams that mirror the format, difficulty, and scope of actual certification tests. Our CCNA Security practice exam offers:
Up-to-date questions crafted by industry experts.
Detailed explanations for every question to deepen your understanding.
SEO-optimized and clear content to help you focus on what matters most.
Flexible online access to practice anytime, anywhere.
Boost your exam readiness and increase your chances of success with Exam Sage — your trusted partner in certification preparation.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which Cisco IOS feature is used to prevent unauthorized access by filtering packets based on IP address, protocol, or port number?
A) VLAN
B) Access Control List (ACL)
C) NAT
D) DHCP
Answer: B) Access Control List (ACL)
Explanation: ACLs are used in Cisco IOS to filter traffic by specifying which packets are allowed or denied based on IP addresses, protocols, and port numbers.
2. What protocol is used to securely manage network devices remotely?
A) Telnet
B) FTP
C) SSH
D) HTTP
Answer: C) SSH
Explanation: SSH (Secure Shell) provides encrypted and secure remote access to network devices, unlike Telnet which sends data in clear text.
3. Which command enables the firewall feature on a Cisco ASA device?
A) firewall enable
B) ip inspect name
C) firewall transparent
D) firewall control
Answer: B) ip inspect name
Explanation: Cisco ASA uses Modular Policy Framework and Stateful Inspection; the command ip inspect name defines an inspection policy for firewall features.
4. What is the purpose of VPN in network security?
A) To speed up internet connection
B) To provide a secure encrypted tunnel between two points
C) To block all incoming traffic
D) To monitor network performance
Answer: B) To provide a secure encrypted tunnel between two points
Explanation: VPNs encrypt traffic between two endpoints, allowing secure communication over untrusted networks such as the internet.
5. Which Cisco device is primarily used as a perimeter firewall?
A) Cisco Catalyst Switch
B) Cisco ASA
C) Cisco WLC
D) Cisco ISR Router
Answer: B) Cisco ASA
Explanation: The Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) is a dedicated firewall device used for perimeter security.
6. What is the default behavior of an implicit deny at the end of an ACL?
A) It allows all remaining traffic
B) It denies all traffic not explicitly permitted
C) It logs all traffic
D) It redirects traffic to another ACL
Answer: B) It denies all traffic not explicitly permitted
Explanation: ACLs always have an implicit deny at the end, meaning any traffic not matched by an ACL statement is denied by default.
7. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Cisco ISE?
A) Device profiling
B) Endpoint posture assessment
C) DHCP server functionality
D) Authentication and authorization
Answer: C) DHCP server functionality
Explanation: Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) provides profiling, posture, and AAA services, but it does not function as a DHCP server.
8. What type of attack is mitigated by enabling port security on a switch?
A) MAC flooding
B) IP spoofing
C) ARP poisoning
D) DNS cache poisoning
Answer: A) MAC flooding
Explanation: Port security limits the number of MAC addresses learned on a switch port, helping to prevent MAC flooding attacks.
9. Which Cisco technology allows segmenting a network into multiple virtual networks?
A) VPN
B) VLAN
C) NAT
D) ACL
Answer: B) VLAN
Explanation: VLANs separate devices into different broadcast domains on the same physical switch.
10. Which protocol does IPsec use for encrypting the data payload?
A) AH (Authentication Header)
B) ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
C) ICMP
D) TCP
Answer: B) ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
Explanation: ESP provides confidentiality by encrypting the IP packet payload in IPsec VPNs.
11. What is the primary purpose of AAA in network security?
A) Assign IP addresses
B) Authenticate, authorize, and account users
C) Block viruses
D) Encrypt data
Answer: B) Authenticate, authorize, and account users
Explanation: AAA stands for Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting and controls user access and tracks their actions.
12. What does the command show crypto isakmp sa display?
A) Active IKE Phase 1 security associations
B) Active VPN tunnels
C) ACL statistics
D) Firewall configurations
Answer: A) Active IKE Phase 1 security associations
Explanation: The command displays the status of ISAKMP (IKE) Phase 1 security associations for VPNs.
13. Which of the following is a method for mitigating DHCP starvation attacks?
A) Disable DHCP
B) Use DHCP snooping
C) Use VLANs
D) Enable ARP inspection
Answer: B) Use DHCP snooping
Explanation: DHCP snooping allows the switch to filter untrusted DHCP messages and prevent DHCP starvation attacks.
14. In Cisco ASA, what does the term “security level” refer to?
A) Encryption strength
B) Interface trust level from 0 to 100
C) Password complexity
D) QoS priority
Answer: B) Interface trust level from 0 to 100
Explanation: Security levels classify interfaces by trustworthiness; higher levels are more trusted.
15. What is the purpose of the Cisco TrustSec solution?
A) Provide device-to-device VPN
B) Classify and secure network traffic based on identity rather than IP address
C) Monitor network performance
D) Provide firewall services
Answer: B) Classify and secure network traffic based on identity rather than IP address
Explanation: TrustSec uses Security Group Tags to control access based on identity, not IP.
16. Which of the following is a characteristic of Stateful Packet Inspection?
A) It checks only the source IP
B) It tracks the state of active connections
C) It does not maintain any session information
D) It allows all incoming packets by default
Answer: B) It tracks the state of active connections
Explanation: Stateful inspection monitors active sessions to ensure packets belong to a valid connection.
17. Which protocol is commonly used to send syslog messages?
A) TCP
B) UDP
C) ICMP
D) HTTP
Answer: B) UDP
Explanation: Syslog messages are typically sent using UDP port 514.
18. Which Cisco feature allows centralized control of user policies for wired and wireless devices?
A) Cisco ISE
B) Cisco ASA
C) Cisco WLC
D) Cisco Nexus
Answer: A) Cisco ISE
Explanation: Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) centralizes policy control across wired and wireless access.
19. What does the command show running-config display?
A) Saved configuration file
B) Current active configuration in RAM
C) Interface statistics
D) Hardware status
Answer: B) Current active configuration in RAM
Explanation: This command shows the current active configuration running on the device.
20. Which attack involves intercepting communication between two parties without their knowledge?
A) Man-in-the-Middle (MitM)
B) Phishing
C) DoS
D) Brute force
Answer: A) Man-in-the-Middle (MitM)
Explanation: MitM attacks intercept and possibly alter communications between two endpoints.
21. Which Cisco ASA mode allows the device to operate transparently at Layer 2?
A) Routed mode
B) Transparent mode
C) Bridge mode
D) Switch mode
Answer: B) Transparent mode
Explanation: Transparent mode allows ASA to function as a Layer 2 firewall, passing traffic without IP routing.
22. Which technology uses certificates for authentication in VPNs?
A) Pre-shared keys
B) Digital certificates with PKI
C) Password authentication
D) Kerberos
Answer: B) Digital certificates with PKI
Explanation: Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) certificates are used for strong authentication in VPNs.
23. What is the default administrative distance of an OSPF route?
A) 90
B) 100
C) 110
D) 120
Answer: C) 110
Explanation: OSPF routes have a default administrative distance of 110.
24. What is a primary benefit of using port-based authentication with 802.1X?
A) Faster network speed
B) Prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network
C) Encrypt data
D) Reduce broadcast traffic
Answer: B) Prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network
Explanation: 802.1X authenticates devices before allowing access to the network.
25. What is the function of the Cisco Firepower Management Center?
A) Configure ASA firewall rules
B) Provide centralized management of Cisco Firepower devices
C) Authenticate users
D) Route traffic
Answer: B) Provide centralized management of Cisco Firepower devices
Explanation: It is a centralized platform to manage Cisco Firepower threat defense devices and policies.
26. Which command is used to enable SSH on a Cisco router?
A) ip ssh enable
B) crypto key generate rsa
C) enable ssh
D) ssh start
Answer: B) crypto key generate rsa
Explanation: Generating RSA keys is required to enable SSH on Cisco devices.
27. What is the primary function of SNMP?
A) Remote device configuration
B) Monitoring and managing network devices
C) Encrypting traffic
D) Routing packets
Answer: B) Monitoring and managing network devices
Explanation: SNMP allows centralized monitoring and management of network devices.
28. Which Cisco tool allows real-time monitoring of security events?
A) Cisco Prime
B) Cisco AMP for Endpoints
C) Cisco Stealthwatch
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: C) Cisco Stealthwatch
Explanation: Stealthwatch provides network visibility and security analytics.
29. What is the purpose of a DMZ in network security?
A) To isolate a publicly accessible network segment
B) To improve routing efficiency
C) To encrypt internal traffic
D) To increase internal bandwidth
Answer: A) To isolate a publicly accessible network segment
Explanation: A DMZ hosts public-facing services isolated from the internal network to enhance security.
30. Which Cisco IOS feature helps detect and prevent ARP spoofing attacks?
A) DHCP snooping
B) Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
C) Port security
D) VLAN pruning
Answer: B) Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
Explanation: DAI verifies ARP packets to prevent ARP spoofing attacks.
31. What type of VPN is typically used for site-to-site secure communication over the Internet?
A) Remote Access VPN
B) Client-based VPN
C) Site-to-Site VPN
D) MPLS VPN
Answer: C) Site-to-Site VPN
Explanation: Site-to-site VPNs create secure tunnels between entire networks, often connecting branch offices over the Internet.
32. Which Cisco security technology inspects traffic for malware and advanced threats?
A) Cisco ASA
B) Cisco Firepower
C) Cisco ISE
D) Cisco WLC
Answer: B) Cisco Firepower
Explanation: Cisco Firepower provides next-generation firewall capabilities including deep packet inspection and malware protection.
33. What is the default port used by the HTTPS protocol?
A) 80
B) 21
C) 443
D) 22
Answer: C) 443
Explanation: HTTPS traffic is encrypted HTTP and uses TCP port 443.
34. Which Cisco ASA command displays the current firewall policies?
A) show access-list
B) show firewall policies
C) show running-config
D) show ip route
Answer: A) show access-list
Explanation: Access lists define firewall policies, and this command shows their current configuration.
35. What is the primary function of Cisco TrustSec’s Security Group Tag (SGT)?
A) To route traffic between VLANs
B) To assign a security context to users and devices for policy enforcement
C) To encrypt data
D) To monitor network traffic
Answer: B) To assign a security context to users and devices for policy enforcement
Explanation: SGTs provide identity-based access control rather than relying on IP addresses.
36. What is a common cause of a failed SSH connection to a Cisco device?
A) Missing crypto key pairs
B) Incorrect DNS settings
C) Disabled HTTP server
D) Incorrect VLAN configuration
Answer: A) Missing crypto key pairs
Explanation: SSH requires RSA key pairs; without them, SSH connections will fail.
37. What Cisco technology allows for the detection and mitigation of DDoS attacks?
A) Cisco ISE
B) Cisco Firepower
C) Cisco AMP
D) Cisco Umbrella
Answer: B) Cisco Firepower
Explanation: Firepower includes features for DDoS detection and mitigation.
38. Which command on a Cisco ASA would show VPN tunnel status?
A) show vpn-sessiondb
B) show interfaces
C) show crypto isakmp sa
D) show running-config
Answer: A) show vpn-sessiondb
Explanation: This command displays details about active VPN sessions on an ASA.
39. Which protocol is used for automated secure key exchange in IPsec?
A) SSH
B) IKE (Internet Key Exchange)
C) SNMP
D) HTTPS
Answer: B) IKE (Internet Key Exchange)
Explanation: IKE negotiates and establishes secure keying material for IPsec tunnels.
40. What is the function of Cisco’s NetFlow?
A) Enforce firewall policies
B) Monitor and analyze network traffic flows
C) Authenticate users
D) Configure VLANs
Answer: B) Monitor and analyze network traffic flows
Explanation: NetFlow collects IP traffic information for monitoring and analysis.
41. In a Cisco ASA, which interface has the highest default security level?
A) Outside
B) Inside
C) DMZ
D) Guest
Answer: B) Inside
Explanation: By default, the inside interface has a security level of 100, considered most trusted.
42. Which AAA protocol supports centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting?
A) TACACS+
B) SNMP
C) OSPF
D) SMTP
Answer: A) TACACS+
Explanation: TACACS+ separates AAA functions and is widely used for Cisco device management.
43. What does the command ip inspect configure on a Cisco router?
A) NAT translation
B) Stateful packet inspection (CBAC)
C) Routing protocol
D) Interface IP address
Answer: B) Stateful packet inspection (CBAC)
Explanation: ip inspect enables Context-Based Access Control for stateful inspection of traffic.
44. Which Cisco feature helps prevent VLAN hopping attacks?
A) Disable unused ports
B) Enable trunk pruning
C) Use native VLAN other than VLAN 1
D) Use VLAN ACLs
Answer: C) Use native VLAN other than VLAN 1
Explanation: Changing the native VLAN reduces VLAN hopping attacks that exploit default VLAN 1.
45. What is the purpose of Cisco’s Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)?
A) Prevent MAC flooding
B) Prevent ARP spoofing by validating ARP packets
C) Manage DHCP leases
D) Monitor VLAN traffic
Answer: B) Prevent ARP spoofing by validating ARP packets
Explanation: DAI intercepts and verifies ARP messages to stop ARP poisoning.
46. Which two components make up an IPsec VPN? (Choose two)
A) AH (Authentication Header)
B) RADIUS
C) ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
D) SNMP
Answer: A) AH and C) ESP
Explanation: AH provides data integrity and authentication; ESP provides encryption and authentication.
47. Which command is used to generate RSA keys for SSH on a Cisco router?
A) crypto key generate rsa
B) enable ssh
C) ssh key generate
D) ip ssh rsa
Answer: A) crypto key generate rsa
Explanation: This command generates the necessary RSA keys for enabling SSH.
48. What does the Cisco Umbrella service primarily provide?
A) Secure DNS filtering and web gateway protection
B) VPN tunneling
C) Firewall services
D) Wireless management
Answer: A) Secure DNS filtering and web gateway protection
Explanation: Umbrella blocks malicious domains and provides cloud-based web security.
49. Which Cisco command displays the NAT translations currently active?
A) show nat
B) show ip nat translations
C) show interfaces
D) show ip route
Answer: B) show ip nat translations
Explanation: This command shows active NAT translation entries.
50. What does Cisco’s Identity-Based Networking Service (IBNS) focus on?
A) Encrypting all network traffic
B) Providing network access control based on user/device identity
C) Load balancing traffic
D) Managing IP addresses
Answer: B) Providing network access control based on user/device identity
Explanation: IBNS controls access and policies by identity rather than IP or MAC.
51. Which Cisco ASA feature enables the inspection of FTP traffic and dynamically opens ports?
A) Stateful inspection
B) Application Layer Gateway (ALG)
C) Static NAT
D) VLAN segmentation
Answer: B) Application Layer Gateway (ALG)
Explanation: ALG inspects and manages protocols like FTP, which open multiple ports dynamically.
52. What is the purpose of the command show crypto ipsec sa?
A) Show active IPsec security associations
B) Show routing table
C) Show interface status
D) Show NAT translations
Answer: A) Show active IPsec security associations
Explanation: It displays details of active IPsec tunnels and encryption status.
53. What is the default VLAN on Cisco switches?
A) VLAN 10
B) VLAN 1
C) VLAN 100
D) VLAN 0
Answer: B) VLAN 1
Explanation: VLAN 1 is the default VLAN for all ports on Cisco switches.
54. What type of attack attempts to guess passwords by systematically trying all combinations?
A) Phishing
B) Brute Force
C) Spoofing
D) Man-in-the-Middle
Answer: B) Brute Force
Explanation: Brute force attacks try many password combinations until the correct one is found.
55. Which of the following is an advantage of using Cisco AnyConnect?
A) Provides secure remote VPN access to users
B) Filters spam emails
C) Monitors network bandwidth
D) Encrypts local files
Answer: A) Provides secure remote VPN access to users
Explanation: AnyConnect is Cisco’s secure VPN client for remote access.
56. Which protocol is used to encrypt email traffic?
A) SMTP
B) POP3
C) S/MIME
D) FTP
Answer: C) S/MIME
Explanation: Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) encrypts and signs email messages.
57. What command configures a Cisco router interface with an IP address?
A) ip address <address> <mask>
B) interface ip address
C) set ip <address>
D) enable ip
Answer: A) ip address <address> <mask>
Explanation: This command assigns an IP address and subnet mask to an interface.
58. Which Cisco tool allows you to centrally manage device configuration backups and updates?
A) Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B) Cisco ISE
C) Cisco AMP
D) Cisco Umbrella
Answer: A) Cisco Prime Infrastructure
Explanation: Cisco Prime provides centralized management for device configurations and updates.
59. What type of firewall inspects traffic at Layer 7 (application layer)?
A) Packet filtering firewall
B) Stateful firewall
C) Next-generation firewall (NGFW)
D) Circuit-level gateway
Answer: C) Next-generation firewall (NGFW)
Explanation: NGFWs perform deep packet inspection up to the application layer.
60. Which Cisco technology uses 802.1X and RADIUS for network access control?
A) Cisco TrustSec
B) Cisco ISE
C) Cisco Firepower
D) Cisco AnyConnect
Answer: B) Cisco ISE
Explanation: Cisco Identity Services Engine uses 802.1X and RADIUS for authentication and policy enforcement.
