CCNP Security 210-255 Exam Practice Test
Prepare confidently for the Cisco CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions (210-255) exam with our expertly crafted practice test. Designed for network security professionals aiming to validate their skills in deploying and managing Cisco security solutions, this product offers in-depth coverage of all critical exam topics.
Our practice test includes a wide range of carefully developed multiple-choice questions that reflect the latest exam objectives. Each question comes with clear, detailed explanations to help you understand key concepts and reinforce your knowledge. From Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) configuration and Cisco Firepower Threat Defense management to Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) and Cisco TrustSec segmentation, this practice test covers the essential domains to boost your readiness.
Key Features:
500 up-to-date questions aligned with the 210-255 exam blueprint
Comprehensive explanations for every answer to enhance learning
Focus on real-world scenarios and practical Cisco security technologies
Covers core areas such as Cisco ISE, Firepower, AMP, TrustSec, and policy enforcement
Ideal for self-study and exam preparation at your own pace
By using this practice test, you’ll gain the confidence and knowledge needed to pass the Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions exam on your first try. Whether you are an IT professional working with Cisco security infrastructure or pursuing advanced certification, this product is your essential study companion.
Prepare smart, practice regularly, and achieve your CCNP Security certification with ease.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which Cisco ASA feature enables inspection and control of FTP sessions dynamically?
A) Modular Policy Framework (MPF)
B) Application Inspection and Control (AIC)
C) Threat Detection
D) Context Awareness
Answer: B) Application Inspection and Control (AIC)
Explanation: Cisco ASA’s AIC inspects application-layer protocols like FTP to allow dynamic opening/closing of ports, ensuring proper control of FTP sessions.
2. What is the default action of the Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) when a signature matches traffic?
A) Drop
B) Alert only
C) Block and reset connection
D) Allow with logging
Answer: B) Alert only
Explanation: By default, the Cisco FTD IPS signature triggers an alert. Administrators can configure specific actions such as drop or reset.
3. Which component of Cisco Threat Control Solutions is responsible for collecting, normalizing, and correlating security event data?
A) Firepower Management Center (FMC)
B) Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE)
C) Stealthwatch
D) Cisco AMP for Endpoints
Answer: A) Firepower Management Center (FMC)
Explanation: FMC centrally manages Firepower devices and aggregates event data, providing correlation and comprehensive security monitoring.
4. Which protocol does Cisco TrustSec use to apply security group tags (SGTs)?
A) GRE
B) VXLAN
C) SXP
D) LISP
Answer: C) SXP
Explanation: Cisco Security Group Exchange Protocol (SXP) propagates SGTs between network devices to enforce segmentation policies.
5. In Cisco Firepower, what is the primary purpose of an access control policy?
A) Configure routing protocols
B) Define which traffic is allowed or blocked based on criteria
C) Manage VPN configurations
D) Control device software updates
Answer: B) Define which traffic is allowed or blocked based on criteria
Explanation: Access control policies specify rules for permitting or denying traffic passing through the device.
6. What is the primary difference between Cisco ASA and Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) platforms?
A) ASA is hardware, FTD is software-only
B) ASA focuses on stateful firewall, FTD integrates next-gen IPS, URL filtering, and malware defense
C) ASA supports SD-WAN, FTD does not
D) ASA is cloud-based, FTD is on-premises only
Answer: B) ASA focuses on stateful firewall, FTD integrates next-gen IPS, URL filtering, and malware defense
Explanation: FTD combines traditional ASA firewall features with advanced threat protection capabilities.
7. Which Cisco solution uses NetFlow data for behavioral analysis and anomaly detection?
A) Cisco Stealthwatch
B) Cisco Umbrella
C) Cisco AnyConnect
D) Cisco SecureX
Answer: A) Cisco Stealthwatch
Explanation: Stealthwatch analyzes NetFlow data for network behavior anomaly detection and threat hunting.
8. Which Cisco Firepower feature provides URL categorization and reputation-based filtering?
A) AMP (Advanced Malware Protection)
B) Threat Intelligence Director
C) URL Filtering
D) Talos Intelligence
Answer: C) URL Filtering
Explanation: URL Filtering blocks or allows web access based on URL categories and reputation ratings.
9. What is the primary benefit of deploying Cisco AMP for Endpoints?
A) Endpoint firewall protection
B) Detecting, blocking, and remediating malware and advanced threats on endpoints
C) VPN client for secure remote access
D) Centralized network policy enforcement
Answer: B) Detecting, blocking, and remediating malware and advanced threats on endpoints
Explanation: AMP for Endpoints provides advanced malware detection and retrospective alerting capabilities.
10. In Cisco ISE, which profiling method identifies endpoints by passive monitoring of DHCP and DNS requests?
A) Active Scanning
B) SNMP Profiling
C) RADIUS Profiling
D) Network Probe
Answer: D) Network Probe
Explanation: Network Probe listens passively to traffic (like DHCP, DNS) to profile devices without active queries.
11. What is the function of a Cisco ASA Modular Policy Framework (MPF)?
A) Configures routing protocols
B) Applies modular inspection policies for traffic filtering and inspection
C) Manages VPN tunnels
D) Monitors bandwidth usage
Answer: B) Applies modular inspection policies for traffic filtering and inspection
Explanation: MPF allows flexible application of inspection engines and traffic filtering on the ASA.
12. Which of the following is NOT a capability of Cisco Threat Grid?
A) Malware sandboxing
B) Threat intelligence sharing
C) Endpoint firewall protection
D) Behavioral malware analysis
Answer: C) Endpoint firewall protection
Explanation: Threat Grid focuses on malware analysis and intelligence sharing but does not provide endpoint firewall functions.
13. Which Cisco device feature uses dynamic access policies to enforce security based on user identity?
A) Cisco ASA VPN
B) Cisco ISE Posture
C) Cisco TrustSec
D) Cisco AnyConnect Dynamic Access Policies (DAP)
Answer: D) Cisco AnyConnect Dynamic Access Policies (DAP)
Explanation: DAP applies security policies dynamically during VPN connection based on user and endpoint attributes.
14. What type of attack does Cisco Firepower’s AMP Retroactive Malware Detection help mitigate?
A) Zero-day exploits
B) Insider threats
C) Ransomware attacks
D) Polymorphic malware
Answer: D) Polymorphic malware
Explanation: AMP records file activity and can retroactively detect malware that evades initial detection, including polymorphic variants.
15. What is the primary purpose of Cisco Security Intelligence Feeds in Firepower?
A) Provide updates to routing tables
B) Block malicious IPs, URLs, and domains based on threat intelligence
C) Configure VPN connections automatically
D) Manage firewall software versions
Answer: B) Block malicious IPs, URLs, and domains based on threat intelligence
Explanation: Security Intelligence Feeds provide real-time threat information to block known bad actors.
16. In Firepower, which deployment mode allows inline traffic inspection with blocking capabilities?
A) Passive Sniffer Mode
B) Inline Deployment Mode
C) Tap Mode
D) SPAN Port Mode
Answer: B) Inline Deployment Mode
Explanation: Inline mode actively inspects and can block traffic, unlike passive modes that only monitor.
17. Which Cisco product provides multi-factor authentication and guest access management?
A) Cisco ASA
B) Cisco ISE
C) Cisco Stealthwatch
D) Cisco AMP
Answer: B) Cisco ISE
Explanation: ISE enforces identity-based policies, including MFA and guest access control.
18. Which of the following is a benefit of integrating Cisco Umbrella with Firepower devices?
A) Endpoint anti-virus protection
B) Cloud-delivered DNS-layer security and enforcement
C) Software patch management
D) Network segmentation
Answer: B) Cloud-delivered DNS-layer security and enforcement
Explanation: Cisco Umbrella provides DNS-based protection that complements Firepower’s threat defenses.
19. How does Cisco Stealthwatch help detect internal threats?
A) By analyzing encrypted traffic
B) By correlating endpoint anti-virus logs
C) By detecting anomalous behavior in network flow data
D) By scanning for vulnerabilities
Answer: C) By detecting anomalous behavior in network flow data
Explanation: Stealthwatch uses behavioral analytics on flow data to identify suspicious internal activity.
20. What is the role of Cisco Firepower’s Talos Intelligence Group?
A) Manages VPN sessions
B) Provides global threat intelligence updates and research
C) Conducts network performance monitoring
D) Controls endpoint policies
Answer: B) Provides global threat intelligence updates and research
Explanation: Talos researches vulnerabilities, malware, and threats and feeds intelligence to Cisco security products.
21. Which Cisco device uses a combination of security group tags (SGTs) and security group access control lists (SGACLs) to enforce policies?
A) Cisco ASA
B) Cisco Catalyst Switches with TrustSec
C) Cisco Firepower
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: B) Cisco Catalyst Switches with TrustSec
Explanation: TrustSec uses SGTs and SGACLs on switches to enforce segmentation based on identity.
22. What does Cisco AnyConnect Posture module check on an endpoint?
A) Network bandwidth
B) Compliance with security policies like antivirus and firewall status
C) VPN tunnel health
D) DNS settings
Answer: B) Compliance with security policies like antivirus and firewall status
Explanation: Posture module evaluates endpoint health and compliance before allowing network access.
23. Which Cisco security solution integrates with third-party SIEMs for centralized logging?
A) Cisco ISE
B) Cisco Firepower Management Center
C) Cisco Stealthwatch
D) Cisco AMP
Answer: B) Cisco Firepower Management Center
Explanation: FMC supports integration with SIEMs via syslog and APIs for centralized security event monitoring.
24. What is a key difference between Snort and Cisco Firepower?
A) Snort is hardware only, Firepower is software
B) Snort is open source IDS/IPS, Firepower is a commercial Cisco platform built on Snort technology with additional features
C) Snort supports VPN, Firepower does not
D) Snort is cloud-based only
Answer: B) Snort is open source IDS/IPS, Firepower is a commercial Cisco platform built on Snort technology with additional features
Explanation: Firepower uses Snort rules but adds management, analytics, and integrated threat defense.
25. What protocol does Cisco TrustSec use to enforce access policies at Layer 2?
A) 802.1X
B) MACsec
C) SXP
D) VXLAN
Answer: A) 802.1X
Explanation: 802.1X is used for authentication at Layer 2, which Cisco TrustSec leverages for identity enforcement.
26. How does Cisco AMP for Networks enhance network security?
A) By providing malware blocking at the network perimeter using file reputation and behavioral analysis
B) By providing antivirus on endpoints
C) By encrypting data in transit
D) By routing traffic
Answer: A) By providing malware blocking at the network perimeter using file reputation and behavioral analysis
Explanation: AMP for Networks inspects files in network traffic to detect and block malware.
27. What is the purpose of Cisco Firepower’s SSL decryption feature?
A) Encrypt outbound traffic
B) Decrypt and inspect encrypted SSL/TLS traffic to detect hidden threats
C) Authenticate VPN users
D) Block SSL traffic
Answer: B) Decrypt and inspect encrypted SSL/TLS traffic to detect hidden threats
Explanation: SSL decryption allows Firepower to inspect the content of encrypted sessions for threats.
28. Which Cisco solution can automate threat intelligence sharing across multiple security devices?
A) Cisco SecureX
B) Cisco AnyConnect
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: A) Cisco SecureX
Explanation: SecureX platform integrates multiple Cisco security products for coordinated threat response.
29. What type of attack is mitigated by Cisco Firepower’s Botnet traffic detection?
A) Phishing
B) Command and control (C2) communication
C) Password guessing
D) ARP spoofing
Answer: B) Command and control (C2) communication
Explanation: Botnet detection identifies and blocks traffic to C2 servers used by malware.
30. What is the role of Cisco ISE’s Guest Access Portal?
A) To provide secure remote VPN access
B) To offer a customizable captive portal for guest network authentication and policy enforcement
C) To scan endpoints for malware
D) To deploy firewall policies
Answer: B) To offer a customizable captive portal for guest network authentication and policy enforcement
Explanation: The guest portal allows visitors to authenticate and gain limited network access securely.
31. What is the primary function of Cisco Firepower’s Snort engine?
A) Network routing
B) Stateful packet filtering
C) Signature-based intrusion detection and prevention
D) URL filtering
Answer: C) Signature-based intrusion detection and prevention
Explanation: Snort is an open-source IDS/IPS engine that Firepower leverages for detecting known threats via signatures.
32. In Cisco Firepower, which rule action allows traffic but still logs the event?
A) Block
B) Trust
C) Monitor
D) Allow with Logging
Answer: D) Allow with Logging
Explanation: This action permits traffic to pass but logs the event for monitoring purposes.
33. What Cisco solution helps enforce dynamic role-based access control on wireless networks?
A) Cisco ISE
B) Cisco AMP
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco Firepower
Answer: A) Cisco ISE
Explanation: Cisco ISE integrates with wireless LAN controllers to enforce dynamic access based on user roles.
34. Which Cisco Firepower feature enables administrators to create policies that vary by application or user?
A) Modular Policy Framework (MPF)
B) Access Control Policy with Application Visibility and Control (AVC)
C) Security Intelligence Feeds
D) Identity Services Engine
Answer: B) Access Control Policy with Application Visibility and Control (AVC)
Explanation: AVC allows granular policies based on specific applications or users.
35. What port does Cisco AnyConnect VPN typically use for SSL VPN connections?
A) TCP 22
B) TCP 443
C) UDP 500
D) TCP 80
Answer: B) TCP 443
Explanation: SSL VPN traffic usually runs over HTTPS on TCP port 443 for secure communication.
36. Which Cisco product integrates endpoint telemetry and behavioral analytics for threat detection?
A) Cisco AMP for Endpoints
B) Cisco Stealthwatch
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco Firepower
Answer: A) Cisco AMP for Endpoints
Explanation: AMP collects endpoint data and applies behavioral analytics to detect advanced threats.
37. In Cisco Firepower, what is a Snort rule composed of?
A) Header and options
B) Source and destination IP only
C) Action and priority
D) Only signature
Answer: A) Header and options
Explanation: Snort rules have a header defining the packet criteria and options specifying the signature or detection details.
38. What is the default logging level for Cisco Firepower intrusion policies?
A) Critical
B) Warning
C) Alert
D) Informational
Answer: C) Alert
Explanation: The default logging level is ‘Alert’ to notify administrators of significant events without excessive logging.
39. Which Cisco tool provides network visibility, anomaly detection, and incident response across hybrid environments?
A) Cisco SecureX
B) Cisco Stealthwatch
C) Cisco Umbrella
D) Cisco ISE
Answer: B) Cisco Stealthwatch
Explanation: Stealthwatch provides broad visibility and analytics across physical, virtual, and cloud environments.
40. Which Cisco feature allows you to isolate compromised endpoints dynamically from the network?
A) Cisco TrustSec
B) Cisco ISE Threat Containment
C) Cisco AMP Retrospective Detection
D) Cisco Firepower Botnet Detection
Answer: B) Cisco ISE Threat Containment
Explanation: ISE can quarantine or restrict endpoints dynamically based on detected threats.
41. What protocol does Cisco AnyConnect use for posture assessment?
A) HTTP
B) RADIUS
C) HTTPS
D) SNMP
Answer: C) HTTPS
Explanation: Posture assessment data is typically transmitted securely over HTTPS.
42. Which Cisco Firepower feature inspects encrypted traffic for malware and threats?
A) SSL Decryption
B) VPN Tunneling
C) IPS Signature Update
D) URL Filtering
Answer: A) SSL Decryption
Explanation: SSL Decryption enables inspection of SSL/TLS encrypted sessions to identify hidden threats.
43. What is the role of the Cisco Firepower Management Center (FMC) in threat control solutions?
A) Provide routing services
B) Centralized management and reporting for Firepower devices
C) Endpoint protection
D) VPN client provisioning
Answer: B) Centralized management and reporting for Firepower devices
Explanation: FMC manages policies, events, and updates for Firepower sensors and devices.
44. How does Cisco AMP’s file trajectory feature help analysts?
A) Shows a map of file’s geographical origin
B) Tracks file movement across endpoints and networks for investigation
C) Encrypts files automatically
D) Compresses files for faster scanning
Answer: B) Tracks file movement across endpoints and networks for investigation
Explanation: File trajectory shows where a suspicious file has been seen and its impact.
45. Which Cisco technology enables endpoint compliance checks before granting network access?
A) Cisco TrustSec
B) Cisco AnyConnect Posture Module
C) Cisco Firepower Inline Mode
D) Cisco AMP
Answer: B) Cisco AnyConnect Posture Module
Explanation: The Posture Module evaluates endpoint security posture during VPN connections.
46. What kind of attacks can Cisco Firepower’s Botnet traffic detection identify?
A) Email spam
B) Command and Control (C2) communication with bots
C) DDoS attacks
D) Phishing
Answer: B) Command and Control (C2) communication with bots
Explanation: Botnet detection identifies attempts by compromised hosts to contact C2 servers.
47. What Cisco ISE function can dynamically assign VLANs based on user identity or device type?
A) Profiling
B) Policy Sets
C) VLAN Assignment via RADIUS
D) Guest Portal
Answer: C) VLAN Assignment via RADIUS
Explanation: ISE can assign endpoints to specific VLANs during authentication based on policy.
48. Which of the following is a Cisco recommended method to update Snort rules on Firepower devices?
A) Manual file download and upload
B) Automatic rule updates via Talos intelligence feeds
C) Using third-party rule sets only
D) Firmware upgrades only
Answer: B) Automatic rule updates via Talos intelligence feeds
Explanation: Cisco Talos provides automatic updates for Snort rulesets on Firepower.
49. Which of the following best describes Cisco Umbrella?
A) A cloud-based DNS-layer security service
B) An endpoint antivirus solution
C) A hardware firewall
D) A network traffic analyzer
Answer: A) A cloud-based DNS-layer security service
Explanation: Umbrella provides security by filtering DNS requests to block malicious domains.
50. Which Cisco feature allows for automated threat intelligence sharing across Cisco security devices?
A) Cisco Firepower Management Center (FMC)
B) Cisco SecureX
C) Cisco ISE
D) Cisco AnyConnect
Answer: B) Cisco SecureX
Explanation: SecureX integrates multiple Cisco products to enable automated threat intelligence sharing and orchestration.
51. What is the function of the Cisco Firepower Intrusion Policy?
A) Defines how IPS inspects traffic and reacts to threats
B) Routes network traffic
C) Configures VPN tunnels
D) Assigns IP addresses
Answer: A) Defines how IPS inspects traffic and reacts to threats
Explanation: Intrusion policies specify signature sets, actions, and logging for intrusion prevention.
52. What is the main purpose of Cisco TrustSec’s Security Group Tagging (SGT)?
A) Encrypt data in transit
B) Identify and group users/devices for policy enforcement
C) Route traffic faster
D) Replace VLANs
Answer: B) Identify and group users/devices for policy enforcement
Explanation: SGTs label traffic for identity-based segmentation and access control.
53. Which Cisco technology helps secure communication between Firepower devices and FMC?
A) SSH
B) SSL/TLS
C) Telnet
D) SNMP
Answer: B) SSL/TLS
Explanation: Communication between Firepower devices and FMC is secured using SSL/TLS encryption.
54. How does Cisco AMP for Endpoints detect advanced malware?
A) Signature matching only
B) Behavioral analysis, sandboxing, and retrospective detection
C) Only antivirus scanning
D) Manual user reporting
Answer: B) Behavioral analysis, sandboxing, and retrospective detection
Explanation: AMP combines multiple detection techniques for comprehensive threat detection.
55. What is the Cisco recommended deployment mode for Firepower devices when inline blocking is needed?
A) Passive Sniffer Mode
B) Inline Deployment Mode
C) Tap Mode
D) Span Port Mode
Answer: B) Inline Deployment Mode
Explanation: Inline mode enables Firepower devices to actively block malicious traffic.
56. What does the Cisco ISE Posture service evaluate?
A) Endpoint software and hardware health status before allowing access
B) Network bandwidth
C) VPN tunnel status
D) Firewall configuration
Answer: A) Endpoint software and hardware health status before allowing access
Explanation: Posture evaluates antivirus, patches, and other security measures on endpoints.
57. What is the use of Cisco Firepower’s Reputation-based blocking?
A) Blocks traffic based on IP or domain reputation from threat intelligence
B) Routes trusted IPs faster
C) Limits bandwidth usage
D) Prevents phishing emails
Answer: A) Blocks traffic based on IP or domain reputation from threat intelligence
Explanation: Reputation blocking filters known malicious sources to reduce risk.
58. Which of the following is NOT a Cisco Firepower platform feature?
A) Next-generation IPS
B) URL filtering
C) Endpoint antivirus
D) Malware sandboxing
Answer: C) Endpoint antivirus
Explanation: Endpoint antivirus is handled by AMP for Endpoints, not Firepower devices.
59. What is the purpose of Cisco Firepower’s security intelligence director (SID)?
A) Centralizes management of external threat intelligence feeds for use in policies
B) Provides VPN user management
C) Manages firewall rules
D) Controls switch port security
Answer: A) Centralizes management of external threat intelligence feeds for use in policies
Explanation: SID aggregates threat intelligence from multiple sources for policy enforcement.
60. Which Cisco device is best suited for scalable enterprise threat defense across campus, data center, and cloud?
A) Cisco ASA 5506
B) Cisco Firepower 2100 Series
C) Cisco Catalyst 2960
D) Cisco ISR Router
Answer: B) Cisco Firepower 2100 Series
Explanation: Firepower 2100 series appliances are designed for enterprise-grade threat defense with high throughput.
