Certification Practice Test for Medical Assistants (CMA/CCMA)
Are you preparing to become a certified Medical Assistant? Our Certification Practice Test for Medical Assistant is expertly designed to help you succeed on your official certification exam. Whether you’re entering the healthcare field or looking to advance your career, this practice exam provides comprehensive preparation tailored to meet the current industry standards.
What is this Exam?
This practice test simulates the real Medical Assistant certification exam format, covering essential knowledge and skills required in clinical and administrative medical assisting roles. It consists of 150 carefully crafted multiple-choice questions with detailed explanations, ensuring you understand each concept thoroughly.
What Will You Learn?
By taking this practice exam, you will strengthen your understanding of vital medical assistant competencies, including:
Medical terminology and anatomy
Patient care and clinical procedures
Pharmacology and medication administration
Medical office administration and ethics
Infection control and safety protocols
Vital signs and diagnostic testing
Healthcare laws and regulations
Who Can Take This Exam?
This practice test is ideal for:
Aspiring Medical Assistants preparing for certification exams such as the CMA (AAMA), RMA, or CCMA
Current Medical Assistants seeking to refresh their knowledge or prepare for recertification
Healthcare students and professionals who want to benchmark their skills
Anyone interested in entering the medical assisting profession
Why Choose Exam Sage?
At Exam Sage, we provide trusted, up-to-date, and user-friendly exam preparation resources. Our practice tests are meticulously developed by experts to closely mirror actual certification exams, helping you build confidence and achieve your certification goals faster. Plus, all our materials are designed to be clear, accurate, and easy to understand — no fluff, no filler.
Take advantage of this free Medical Assistant practice test to evaluate your readiness and identify areas for improvement. Start practicing today and take the first step toward a rewarding healthcare career!
Free Questions and Answers for Medical Assistant Exam
1. Which of the following actions demonstrates proper aseptic technique when preparing a sterile field?
A. Touching the inner one-inch margin with gloved hands
B. Placing sterile instruments at the edge of the field
C. Keeping hands above waist level at all times
D. Reaching across the sterile field
Answer: C. Keeping hands above waist level at all times
Explanation: In aseptic technique, hands must remain above the waist and in sight to avoid contamination. Touching the one-inch margin or reaching over the field breaches sterility. Instruments should be placed in the center of the sterile field.
2. What is the appropriate angle for administering an intramuscular (IM) injection?
A. 10 degrees
B. 15 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
Answer: D. 90 degrees
Explanation: IM injections are given at a 90-degree angle to ensure the medication reaches the muscle layer. This angle allows deep penetration and proper absorption, commonly used for vaccines or hormonal therapies.
3. Which of the following best describes the function of the hypothalamus?
A. Produces insulin
B. Regulates thirst, hunger, and body temperature
C. Controls skeletal muscle movement
D. Filters blood to form urine
Answer: B. Regulates thirst, hunger, and body temperature
Explanation: The hypothalamus is part of the brain that regulates vital bodily functions like temperature, hunger, thirst, and circadian rhythms. It helps maintain homeostasis by interacting with the endocrine and nervous systems.
4. A medical assistant schedules a follow-up appointment for a patient. This is considered part of which function?
A. Clinical duty
B. Diagnostic service
C. Administrative duty
D. Laboratory procedure
Answer: C. Administrative duty
Explanation: Scheduling appointments, managing records, and handling insurance paperwork are administrative tasks. These support clinical operations by ensuring patient flow and communication are organized and efficient.
5. Which of the following is an example of a Schedule II controlled substance?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Diazepam
C. Morphine
D. Cough syrup with codeine
Answer: C. Morphine
Explanation: Morphine is a Schedule II drug due to its high potential for abuse and dependence, despite accepted medical uses. Schedule II drugs are tightly regulated and require written prescriptions without refills.
6. Which term describes the process of listening to body sounds with a stethoscope?
A. Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection
Answer: C. Auscultation
Explanation: Auscultation involves listening to internal body sounds such as heartbeats, lung sounds, or bowel activity using a stethoscope. It’s a key step in physical examinations for diagnostic purposes.
7. A patient reports persistent chest pain. Which action should the medical assistant take first?
A. Ask about medication history
B. Schedule a follow-up
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Take a urine sample
Answer: C. Notify the provider immediately
Explanation: Chest pain is a potentially life-threatening symptom. Immediate notification of the provider is essential to rule out conditions such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism.
8. Which document must be signed before performing an invasive procedure?
A. Health proxy
B. HIPAA consent
C. Informed consent
D. Living will
Answer: C. Informed consent
Explanation: Informed consent is legally required before any invasive procedure. It ensures the patient understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives, protecting both the patient and the provider legally and ethically.
9. What is the normal range for adult systolic blood pressure?
A. 80–100 mm Hg
B. 100–120 mm Hg
C. 120–140 mm Hg
D. 140–160 mm Hg
Answer: B. 100–120 mm Hg
Explanation: Normal adult systolic blood pressure ranges between 100–120 mm Hg. Readings above this may indicate hypertension and require monitoring. Accurate measurement is vital in evaluating cardiovascular health.
10. When preparing a patient for an EKG, electrodes should be placed:
A. Above the elbows and knees
B. On bony areas for stability
C. On the chest and limbs as directed
D. Only on the left side of the body
Answer: C. On the chest and limbs as directed
Explanation: Proper electrode placement includes specific chest (precordial) leads and limb leads to obtain accurate cardiac readings. Misplacement can lead to false readings or poor signal quality.
11. Which type of thermometer provides the most accurate core body temperature?
A. Oral
B. Tympanic
C. Temporal
D. Rectal
Answer: D. Rectal
Explanation: Rectal thermometers give the most accurate measurement of core body temperature, particularly in pediatric or critical care settings. However, due to invasiveness, it’s not always the first method used.
12. A hematocrit test measures:
A. White blood cell count
B. Hemoglobin concentration
C. Proportion of red blood cells
D. Platelet aggregation
Answer: C. Proportion of red blood cells
Explanation: Hematocrit represents the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. It’s used to diagnose anemia, dehydration, and other blood disorders.
13. Which abbreviation means “as needed”?
A. qd
B. prn
C. bid
D. stat
Answer: B. prn
Explanation: “prn” stands for “pro re nata” in Latin, meaning “as needed.” It’s commonly used in prescriptions and care instructions for pain relief or other symptom-based treatments.
14. What is the primary purpose of the chain of custody in specimen handling?
A. To preserve patient privacy
B. To ensure accurate test results
C. To document specimen handling and transfer
D. To maintain refrigeration
Answer: C. To document specimen handling and transfer
Explanation: Chain of custody tracks every individual who handles the specimen from collection to analysis. It’s crucial in forensic or legal cases to maintain integrity and prevent tampering.
15. Which structure connects muscles to bones?
A. Ligaments
B. Cartilage
C. Tendons
D. Fascia
Answer: C. Tendons
Explanation: Tendons are strong connective tissues that attach muscles to bones, enabling movement. Ligaments connect bones to other bones, while cartilage provides cushioning in joints.
16. Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Answer: D. Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D enhances calcium absorption in the gastrointestinal tract, supporting bone health and preventing conditions like rickets or osteoporosis. It also modulates immune function.
17. When a patient expresses anxiety about a procedure, the medical assistant should:
A. Ignore the concern and proceed
B. Refer the patient to a therapist
C. Provide empathetic reassurance and explain the process
D. Cancel the procedure immediately
Answer: C. Provide empathetic reassurance and explain the process
Explanation: Empathetic communication reduces anxiety and increases patient cooperation. Educating the patient builds trust and facilitates informed participation in care.
18. A spirometry test is used to evaluate:
A. Kidney function
B. Visual acuity
C. Lung capacity and function
D. Cardiac rhythm
Answer: C. Lung capacity and function
Explanation: Spirometry assesses lung function by measuring airflow and volume during inhalation and exhalation. It’s commonly used to diagnose conditions like asthma, COPD, or pulmonary fibrosis.
19. What does the abbreviation “CBC” stand for?
A. Central Blood Count
B. Complete Blood Count
C. Coagulation Blood Chemistry
D. Cumulative Baseline Count
Answer: B. Complete Blood Count
Explanation: A CBC measures several components of blood, including red and white cells, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelets. It helps diagnose infections, anemia, and other hematologic conditions.
20. A patient with a BMI of 32 is considered:
A. Underweight
B. Normal
C. Overweight
D. Obese
Answer: D. Obese
Explanation: A BMI of 30 or higher classifies a patient as obese. BMI helps assess weight-related health risks, although it should be used alongside other clinical data.
21. A urinalysis showing positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase suggests:
A. Diabetes
B. Pregnancy
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Kidney stones
Answer: C. Urinary tract infection
Explanation: Nitrites and leukocyte esterase in urine indicate the presence of bacteria and white blood cells, respectively—common markers of a urinary tract infection (UTI).
22. Which pulse site is used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in adults?
A. Brachial
B. Popliteal
C. Carotid
D. Radial
Answer: C. Carotid
Explanation: The carotid artery is used to assess circulation during CPR because it’s a central and strong pulse point. Peripheral pulses may be weak or absent during cardiac arrest.
23. What is the role of insulin in the body?
A. Increases blood pressure
B. Stimulates bone growth
C. Regulates glucose uptake into cells
D. Controls body temperature
Answer: C. Regulates glucose uptake into cells
Explanation: Insulin, produced by the pancreas, helps cells absorb glucose from the blood for energy or storage. It’s crucial in managing blood sugar levels, particularly in diabetes.
24. Which federal act protects patient health information?
A. OSHA
B. ADA
C. HIPAA
D. FMLA
Answer: C. HIPAA
Explanation: HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) ensures confidentiality and security of patient health information. It governs data handling in all healthcare environments.
25. Which needle gauge is typically used for venipuncture?
A. 16 gauge
B. 18 gauge
C. 21 gauge
D. 30 gauge
Answer: C. 21 gauge
Explanation: A 21-gauge needle is commonly used for adult venipuncture, offering a balance between minimal discomfort and effective blood flow. Smaller numbers denote larger diameters.
26. What color tube top is used for a CBC test?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Lavender
D. Green
Answer: C. Lavender
Explanation: Lavender-top tubes contain EDTA, an anticoagulant ideal for hematologic testing like CBCs. It preserves blood cell morphology during processing.
27. The suffix “-algia” refers to:
A. Inflammation
B. Enlargement
C. Pain
D. Disease
Answer: C. Pain
Explanation: In medical terminology, “-algia” denotes pain. For example, “myalgia” means muscle pain. Understanding prefixes and suffixes aids in deciphering clinical terms.
28. Which site is recommended for capillary blood collection in adults?
A. Earlobe
B. Big toe
C. Middle finger
D. Forearm
Answer: C. Middle finger
Explanation: The middle or ring finger is typically used for capillary blood collection in adults. These sites provide easy access and minimize discomfort and nerve damage risk.
29. Which of the following is a symptom of hypoglycemia?
A. Bradycardia
B. Cold, clammy skin
C. Blurred vision
D. Yellow skin
Answer: B. Cold, clammy skin
Explanation: Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, often causes cold sweats, confusion, shakiness, and dizziness. It requires prompt glucose intake to prevent complications.
30. What action should a medical assistant take when correcting an error in a paper medical record?
A. Erase the mistake completely
B. Use white-out
C. Draw a single line through it, initial, and date
D. Tear out the page
Answer: C. Draw a single line through it, initial, and date
Explanation: Legal documentation protocols require that errors be crossed out with a single line, initialed, and dated to maintain transparency and protect the integrity of the record.
31. What is the most appropriate method for disposing of a used lancet?
A. Place it in a regular trash can
B. Recap the lancet and dispose of it in the trash
C. Dispose of it immediately in a sharps container
D. Wash and reuse the lancet
Answer: C. Dispose of it immediately in a sharps container
Explanation: Lancets are considered biohazard sharps and must be disposed of in puncture-resistant sharps containers to prevent injury and cross-contamination.
32. Which of the following vital signs is measured when assessing perfusion and pulse strength?
A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse rate
C. Respiratory rate
D. Temperature
Answer: B. Pulse rate
Explanation: Pulse rate reflects heartbeats per minute and indicates perfusion quality and pulse strength. It provides essential information about cardiac function and circulatory status.
33. How long should you wait before taking an oral temperature if the patient has just consumed a hot beverage?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: C. 15 minutes
Explanation: Hot or cold drinks can temporarily alter oral temperature readings. Waiting 15 minutes ensures an accurate measurement unaffected by external temperature changes.
34. What type of medication is aspirin classified as?
A. Antipyretic
B. Analgesic and antiplatelet
C. Antibiotic
D. Antihistamine
Answer: B. Analgesic and antiplatelet
Explanation: Aspirin reduces pain and fever (analgesic and antipyretic) and inhibits platelet aggregation, making it useful for cardiovascular disease prevention.
35. Which medical term means “inflammation of the liver”?
A. Hepatitis
B. Nephritis
C. Dermatitis
D. Gastritis
Answer: A. Hepatitis
Explanation: Hepatitis refers to inflammation of the liver, which can be caused by infections, toxins, or autoimmune diseases.
36. A patient has a blood glucose level of 240 mg/dL. This level is:
A. Normal
B. Hypoglycemic
C. Hyperglycemic
D. Indicative of dehydration
Answer: C. Hyperglycemic
Explanation: A blood glucose above 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, a high blood sugar condition often associated with diabetes mellitus.
37. Which is the proper sequence when donning (putting on) personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A. Gloves, gown, mask, goggles
B. Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
C. Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
D. Goggles, mask, gloves, gown
Answer: B. Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
Explanation: The correct order protects the wearer from contamination and follows CDC guidelines: gown first, then mask, goggles, and gloves last.
38. Which of the following is NOT a component of the chain of infection?
A. Reservoir
B. Portal of entry
C. Vaccine
D. Susceptible host
Answer: C. Vaccine
Explanation: The chain of infection includes a reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host. Vaccines help break the chain by increasing immunity.
39. What is the term for a patient’s refusal to comply with medical advice?
A. Compliance
B. Adherence
C. Noncompliance
D. Consent
Answer: C. Noncompliance
Explanation: Noncompliance occurs when patients do not follow prescribed treatments, potentially impacting outcomes and requiring reassessment and patient education.
40. Which test is used to detect tuberculosis infection?
A. Mantoux tuberculin skin test
B. Complete blood count
C. Electrocardiogram
D. Liver function test
Answer: A. Mantoux tuberculin skin test
Explanation: The Mantoux test involves injecting purified protein derivative (PPD) intradermally to evaluate immune response indicating TB exposure.
41. Which position is appropriate for a pelvic exam?
A. Prone
B. Lithotomy
C. Fowler’s
D. Sims’
Answer: B. Lithotomy
Explanation: The lithotomy position involves lying on the back with legs elevated and supported in stirrups, allowing access to the pelvic region for examination.
42. When drawing blood, what is the correct order of draw for multiple tubes?
A. Lavender, red, blue
B. Blue, red, lavender
C. Red, blue, lavender
D. Blue, lavender, red
Answer: B. Blue, red, lavender
Explanation: The order of draw prevents cross-contamination of additives: blue (coagulation), red (no additive), lavender (EDTA for CBC).
43. Which gland is responsible for regulating metabolism through hormone secretion?
A. Pituitary gland
B. Thyroid gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. Pineal gland
Answer: B. Thyroid gland
Explanation: The thyroid produces hormones (T3 and T4) that regulate metabolism, growth, and development.
44. Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial infection?
A. Flu acquired at school
B. Infection developed in the hospital
C. Food poisoning from a restaurant
D. Cold contracted from a family member
Answer: B. Infection developed in the hospital
Explanation: Nosocomial infections are hospital-acquired infections occurring after 48 hours of admission, often due to invasive procedures or immunocompromised status.
45. Which blood type is known as the universal donor?
A. AB+
B. O-
C. A+
D. B-
Answer: B. O-
Explanation: O negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, making it compatible with all blood types in emergencies.
46. What does the abbreviation “NPO” instruct a patient to do?
A. Take medication only
B. Do not eat or drink
C. Get laboratory tests
D. Avoid exercise
Answer: B. Do not eat or drink
Explanation: NPO stands for “nil per os,” instructing patients to refrain from all oral intake before procedures or surgery.
47. Which of the following describes tachycardia?
A. Slow heart rate
B. Normal heart rate
C. Rapid heart rate
D. Irregular heart rhythm
Answer: C. Rapid heart rate
Explanation: Tachycardia is a heart rate exceeding 100 beats per minute in adults, which may indicate stress, fever, or cardiac pathology.
48. Which PPE is essential when performing a venipuncture?
A. Face shield
B. Gloves
C. Gown
D. Shoe covers
Answer: B. Gloves
Explanation: Gloves protect against bloodborne pathogens and are mandatory during any procedure involving potential contact with blood or bodily fluids.
49. What is the main function of red blood cells?
A. Fight infections
B. Clot blood
C. Carry oxygen to tissues
D. Regulate body temperature
Answer: C. Carry oxygen to tissues
Explanation: Red blood cells contain hemoglobin, which binds and transports oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and returns carbon dioxide for exhalation.
50. What is the first step in responding to a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?
A. Administer oral antihistamines
B. Call emergency services and administer epinephrine
C. Lay the patient down and elevate legs
D. Give fluids intravenously
Answer: B. Call emergency services and administer epinephrine
Explanation: Anaphylaxis is life-threatening and requires immediate epinephrine administration and emergency response to prevent airway obstruction and shock.
51. How often should a patient’s medical records be updated?
A. Only during annual visits
B. After every patient encounter
C. Once a year regardless of visits
D. Only if the patient requests
Answer: B. After every patient encounter
Explanation: Accurate, timely documentation after every visit ensures continuity of care, legal protection, and effective communication among healthcare providers.
52. Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure?
A. Stethoscope
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Otoscope
D. Thermometer
Answer: B. Sphygmomanometer
Explanation: A sphygmomanometer, often used with a stethoscope, measures arterial blood pressure by occluding and releasing blood flow in the arm.
53. What is the term for difficulty swallowing?
A. Dysphagia
B. Dyspnea
C. Dysuria
D. Dystonia
Answer: A. Dysphagia
Explanation: Dysphagia refers to difficulty or discomfort swallowing, often indicating neurological or esophageal disorders.
54. When should hand hygiene be performed in the clinical setting?
A. Before and after patient contact
B. Only after patient contact
C. Only if hands look dirty
D. Once at the start of the day
Answer: A. Before and after patient contact
Explanation: Hand hygiene prevents transmission of pathogens and must be performed before and after all patient interactions.
55. Which document authorizes another person to make healthcare decisions if the patient becomes incapacitated?
A. Living will
B. Durable power of attorney for healthcare
C. Consent form
D. Advance directive
Answer: B. Durable power of attorney for healthcare
Explanation: This legal document designates a trusted individual to make healthcare decisions when the patient cannot.
56. What is the proper technique for cleaning a wound before applying a bandage?
A. Clean from dirty area to clean area
B. Clean from clean area to dirty area
C. Use the same gauze for all areas
D. Rinse with soap only
Answer: B. Clean from clean area to dirty area
Explanation: Cleaning from clean to dirty prevents introducing bacteria into the wound and reduces infection risk.
57. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
A. 8–12 breaths per minute
B. 12–20 breaths per minute
C. 20–30 breaths per minute
D. 30–40 breaths per minute
Answer: B. 12–20 breaths per minute
Explanation: Normal adult respiratory rates range between 12 and 20 breaths per minute at rest.
58. Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of hypoglycemia?
A. Excessive thirst
B. Sweating and shakiness
C. Blurred vision
D. Frequent urination
Answer: B. Sweating and shakiness
Explanation: Hypoglycemia causes neurogenic symptoms like sweating, trembling, hunger, and confusion due to low blood sugar.
59. What is the function of platelets in blood?
A. Transport oxygen
B. Fight infection
C. Promote clotting
D. Regulate pH
Answer: C. Promote clotting
Explanation: Platelets (thrombocytes) aggregate at injury sites to form blood clots and prevent bleeding.
60. The abbreviation “stat” means:
A. Immediately
B. Twice daily
C. As needed
D. Before meals
Answer: A. Immediately
Explanation: “Stat” indicates an urgent action requiring immediate attention or administration of medication.
61. Which of the following is the correct way to identify a patient before administering medication?
A. Ask the patient their birthdate only
B. Check the patient’s wristband and ask for full name
C. Ask the nurse for the patient’s room number
D. Verify medication label only
Answer: B. Check the patient’s wristband and ask for full name
Explanation: Proper patient identification involves verifying two identifiers, usually wristband and patient’s full name, to prevent medication errors.
62. What does the term “aseptic technique” refer to?
A. Using antibiotics to treat infections
B. Procedures to reduce contamination and infection risk
C. Sterilizing instruments after use
D. Disinfecting hands with soap and water only
Answer: B. Procedures to reduce contamination and infection risk
Explanation: Aseptic technique includes practices to maintain sterility and minimize infection, such as hand hygiene, sterilizing equipment, and proper dressing changes.
63. What is the primary purpose of the informed consent form?
A. To document patient’s agreement to treatment after understanding risks and benefits
B. To prove insurance coverage
C. To provide a list of medications
D. To outline hospital policies
Answer: A. To document patient’s agreement to treatment after understanding risks and benefits
Explanation: Informed consent ensures patients are aware of and agree to the proposed treatment, protecting patient autonomy and legal rights.
64. Which of the following is a symptom of dehydration?
A. Increased urination
B. Dry mouth and decreased skin turgor
C. Excessive sweating
D. Low blood pressure only
Answer: B. Dry mouth and decreased skin turgor
Explanation: Dehydration causes dry mucous membranes and poor skin elasticity due to fluid loss.
65. When performing an EKG, what is the correct placement for the V1 lead?
A. Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
B. Fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line
C. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Answer: A. Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
Explanation: V1 is placed at the 4th intercostal space on the right side of the sternum to record anterior heart activity.
66. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a myocardial infarction (heart attack)?
A. Chest pain or pressure
B. Shortness of breath
C. Severe headache
D. Nausea
Answer: C. Severe headache
Explanation: Headache is not typical for myocardial infarction; chest pain, dyspnea, and nausea are common symptoms.
67. What is the term for excessive sweating?
A. Xerosis
B. Anhidrosis
C. Diaphoresis
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C. Diaphoresis
Explanation: Diaphoresis is the medical term for profuse sweating, often related to stress, illness, or fever.
68. Which of the following actions is part of proper handwashing technique?
A. Using hand sanitizer only if hands are visibly dirty
B. Scrubbing hands with soap for at least 20 seconds
C. Rinsing hands with cold water
D. Drying hands on a shared towel
Answer: B. Scrubbing hands with soap for at least 20 seconds
Explanation: Effective handwashing requires scrubbing for 20 seconds with soap and water to remove pathogens.
69. What does the term “tachypnea” mean?
A. Slow breathing
B. Fast breathing
C. Normal breathing
D. Labored breathing
Answer: B. Fast breathing
Explanation: Tachypnea is an abnormally rapid respiratory rate, which may indicate respiratory distress or illness.
70. What should a medical assistant do if a patient refuses a necessary procedure?
A. Perform the procedure anyway
B. Document the refusal and inform the healthcare provider
C. Ignore the refusal
D. Try to convince the patient without documenting
Answer: B. Document the refusal and inform the healthcare provider
Explanation: Patient autonomy must be respected, and refusals should be documented and communicated to the provider.
71. What is the normal pH range of blood?
A. 6.8 to 7.0
B. 7.35 to 7.45
C. 7.8 to 8.0
D. 5.5 to 6.5
Answer: B. 7.35 to 7.45
Explanation: Blood pH is tightly regulated and normally ranges between 7.35 and 7.45, indicating slight alkalinity.
72. Which organ produces insulin?
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Kidney
D. Gallbladder
Answer: B. Pancreas
Explanation: The pancreas produces insulin, a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels.
73. What is the purpose of a medical history form?
A. To record patient’s current medications and past illnesses
B. To schedule appointments
C. To bill insurance companies
D. To list hospital policies
Answer: A. To record patient’s current medications and past illnesses
Explanation: Medical history forms collect essential health information to assist in diagnosis and treatment planning.
74. Which of the following routes is used for intramuscular injections?
A. Subcutaneous tissue
B. Muscle tissue
C. Vein
D. Skin surface
Answer: B. Muscle tissue
Explanation: Intramuscular injections deliver medication deep into muscle tissue for rapid absorption.
75. What is the abbreviation “PRN” used to indicate?
A. As needed
B. Before meals
C. After meals
D. Every day
Answer: A. As needed
Explanation: “PRN” is a Latin abbreviation for “pro re nata,” meaning the medication is taken only when necessary.
76. What is the main purpose of a physical examination?
A. To treat the patient
B. To assess the patient’s health status
C. To fill out insurance forms
D. To teach patients about health insurance
Answer: B. To assess the patient’s health status
Explanation: A physical exam gathers objective data about a patient’s health to guide diagnosis and care.
77. What is the best site for measuring an infant’s temperature?
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Axillary
D. Tympanic
Answer: B. Rectal
Explanation: Rectal temperatures are the most accurate for infants and young children but should be done carefully to avoid injury.
78. What type of tissue connects muscle to bone?
A. Ligament
B. Tendon
C. Cartilage
D. Fascia
Answer: B. Tendon
Explanation: Tendons attach muscles to bones, enabling movement.
79. What is the abbreviation “BID” mean on a prescription?
A. Twice daily
B. Once daily
C. Before meals
D. After meals
Answer: A. Twice daily
Explanation: BID stands for “bis in die,” indicating medication should be taken two times a day.
80. Which organ is primarily affected by hepatitis?
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Heart
Answer: B. Liver
Explanation: Hepatitis causes inflammation of the liver, which can impair its function.
81. What is the normal adult heart rate range?
A. 40-60 bpm
B. 60-100 bpm
C. 100-120 bpm
D. 120-140 bpm
Answer: B. 60-100 bpm
Explanation: Normal resting heart rate for adults ranges between 60 and 100 beats per minute.
82. What does the term “bradycardia” mean?
A. Slow heart rate
B. Fast heart rate
C. Irregular heart rhythm
D. Normal heart rhythm
Answer: A. Slow heart rate
Explanation: Bradycardia refers to a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.
83. Which of the following is an example of subjective data?
A. Blood pressure reading
B. Patient’s report of pain
C. Temperature measurement
D. Pulse rate
Answer: B. Patient’s report of pain
Explanation: Subjective data comes from patient-reported symptoms, while objective data is measurable by the healthcare provider.
84. What is the main function of white blood cells?
A. Carry oxygen
B. Fight infection
C. Clot blood
D. Carry nutrients
Answer: B. Fight infection
Explanation: White blood cells are part of the immune system and help defend against infections.
85. Which of the following is the first step in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?
A. Deliver rescue breaths
B. Check responsiveness and breathing
C. Begin chest compressions
D. Call emergency services
Answer: B. Check responsiveness and breathing
Explanation: CPR begins by assessing the patient’s responsiveness and breathing to determine the need for intervention.
86. Which of the following would be considered a medical emergency?
A. Mild headache
B. Chest pain with shortness of breath
C. Slight fever
D. Chronic back pain
Answer: B. Chest pain with shortness of breath
Explanation: Chest pain with dyspnea may indicate a life-threatening cardiac event and requires immediate attention.
87. What type of immunity is gained after vaccination?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
Answer: B. Artificial active immunity
Explanation: Vaccines stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies without causing disease, providing artificial active immunity.
88. What is the function of the small intestine?
A. Absorb nutrients from food
B. Store waste
C. Filter blood
D. Produce insulin
Answer: A. Absorb nutrients from food
Explanation: The small intestine is the primary site for digestion and nutrient absorption.
89. What does the abbreviation “Dx” mean in medical terminology?
A. Diagnosis
B. Prescription
C. Treatment
D. Discharge
Answer: A. Diagnosis
Explanation: “Dx” is the standard abbreviation for diagnosis in medical records.
90. Which PPE should be worn when there is a risk of splash or spray of blood?
A. Gloves only
B. Mask and eye protection
C. Gown and gloves only
D. Shoe covers only
Answer: B. Mask and eye protection
Explanation: Masks and eye protection prevent mucous membrane exposure to potentially infectious fluids during procedures.
91. What is the correct angle for an intramuscular injection?
A. 15 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 30 degrees
Answer: C. 90 degrees
Explanation: Intramuscular injections are administered at a 90-degree angle to ensure the medication reaches deep into the muscle tissue for proper absorption.
92. Which vital sign is most commonly associated with hypothermia?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Decreased body temperature
D. Rapid respiratory rate
Answer: C. Decreased body temperature
Explanation: Hypothermia occurs when the body temperature drops below normal, causing various symptoms including slow heart rate and impaired body function.
93. What is the primary function of hemoglobin?
A. Fight infection
B. Carry oxygen to tissues
C. Clot blood
D. Regulate pH balance
Answer: B. Carry oxygen to tissues
Explanation: Hemoglobin in red blood cells binds oxygen in the lungs and transports it throughout the body to tissues.
94. What is the term for difficulty swallowing?
A. Dysphagia
B. Aphasia
C. Dysuria
D. Dyspnea
Answer: A. Dysphagia
Explanation: Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing and can be caused by neurological or structural problems.
95. Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of insulin?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Anemia
D. Hypertension
Answer: B. Diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Diabetes mellitus results from insufficient insulin production or insulin resistance, leading to high blood glucose levels.
96. What is the term for a heart rate over 100 beats per minute?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. Arrhythmia
D. Hypertension
Answer: B. Tachycardia
Explanation: Tachycardia is an abnormally fast heart rate, often defined as over 100 beats per minute in adults.
97. Which of the following is a common site for measuring pulse in adults?
A. Femoral artery
B. Radial artery
C. Carotid artery
D. Brachial artery
Answer: B. Radial artery
Explanation: The radial artery at the wrist is the most common and easily accessible site to measure the pulse.
98. What is the most appropriate action if a patient faints in the clinic?
A. Leave the patient alone to recover
B. Assist the patient to a lying position and elevate legs
C. Immediately call emergency services
D. Give the patient water
Answer: B. Assist the patient to a lying position and elevate legs
Explanation: Lying down and elevating legs improves blood flow to the brain and helps the patient regain consciousness safely.
99. Which of the following is NOT a barrier method of contraception?
A. Condom
B. Diaphragm
C. Oral contraceptive pill
D. Cervical cap
Answer: C. Oral contraceptive pill
Explanation: Oral contraceptives are hormonal methods, not barrier methods, which physically block sperm from entering the uterus.
100. What should be done first if a patient experiences an anaphylactic reaction?
A. Administer epinephrine immediately
B. Call family members
C. Provide oral antihistamines
D. Apply a cold compress
Answer: A. Administer epinephrine immediately
Explanation: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment to rapidly reverse anaphylaxis symptoms and prevent airway obstruction.
101. What is the best method to prevent the spread of infections in a healthcare setting?
A. Use of antibiotics
B. Proper hand hygiene
C. Wearing gloves at all times
D. Disinfecting floors daily
Answer: B. Proper hand hygiene
Explanation: Handwashing is the most effective method to reduce transmission of pathogens between patients and healthcare workers.
102. The abbreviation “NPO” means:
A. Nothing by mouth
B. No pain observed
C. Normal physical output
D. Not permitted orally
Answer: A. Nothing by mouth
Explanation: NPO indicates that a patient should not eat or drink anything before a procedure or surgery.
103. Which blood type is considered the universal donor?
A. A positive
B. AB negative
C. O negative
D. B positive
Answer: C. O negative
Explanation: O negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, making it compatible with all blood types for transfusion.
104. What is the purpose of the HIPAA law?
A. To ensure patient confidentiality and privacy of health information
B. To regulate medical billing procedures
C. To provide insurance coverage guidelines
D. To set medical licensing standards
Answer: A. To ensure patient confidentiality and privacy of health information
Explanation: HIPAA protects sensitive patient health information from unauthorized disclosure.
105. Which of the following instruments is used to measure blood pressure?
A. Thermometer
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Stethoscope
D. Otoscope
Answer: B. Sphygmomanometer
Explanation: The sphygmomanometer is used with a stethoscope to measure blood pressure.
106. What does the term “polyuria” mean?
A. Excessive thirst
B. Excessive urination
C. Blood in urine
D. Painful urination
Answer: B. Excessive urination
Explanation: Polyuria is frequent or excessive urination, commonly seen in diabetes mellitus.
107. Which of the following is a sign of infection?
A. Swelling and redness at a wound site
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Dry skin
D. Clear discharge
Answer: A. Swelling and redness at a wound site
Explanation: Infection typically causes inflammation, redness, swelling, warmth, and sometimes pus.
108. What is the correct way to clean a blood spill in the clinic?
A. Use water only
B. Use an EPA-approved disinfectant and wear gloves
C. Use a dry cloth to wipe the area
D. Sweep it up with a broom
Answer: B. Use an EPA-approved disinfectant and wear gloves
Explanation: Blood spills should be cleaned with proper disinfectants while wearing gloves to prevent exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
109. What does the medical abbreviation “Rx” stand for?
A. Prescription
B. Treatment
C. Diagnosis
D. Medical history
Answer: A. Prescription
Explanation: “Rx” is derived from Latin “recipe,” meaning a prescription for medication.
110. Which organ is responsible for filtering waste from the blood?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Lungs
Answer: B. Kidney
Explanation: The kidneys filter waste products and excess fluids from the blood, producing urine.
111. Which part of the eye controls the amount of light entering?
A. Retina
B. Cornea
C. Iris
D. Lens
Answer: C. Iris
Explanation: The iris adjusts the size of the pupil to regulate light entering the eye.
112. What type of wound is a surgical incision?
A. Abrasion
B. Laceration
C. Puncture
D. Incision
Answer: D. Incision
Explanation: An incision is a clean, straight cut made intentionally during surgery.
113. Which of the following vaccines is required annually?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Influenza
C. Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
D. Varicella
Answer: B. Influenza
Explanation: The flu vaccine is updated yearly to protect against circulating influenza strains.
114. What does “BMI” stand for in medical terms?
A. Body Mass Index
B. Blood Mass Indicator
C. Bone Mineral Intake
D. Basal Metabolic Information
Answer: A. Body Mass Index
Explanation: BMI is a calculation using height and weight to estimate body fat and assess health risks.
115. What is the medical term for a nosebleed?
A. Epistaxis
B. Hematemesis
C. Hematuria
D. Rhinorrhea
Answer: A. Epistaxis
Explanation: Epistaxis is the term for bleeding from the nose.
116. What type of medication is used to reduce inflammation?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antipyretics
C. Anticoagulants
D. Anti-inflammatory drugs
Answer: D. Anti-inflammatory drugs
Explanation: Anti-inflammatory medications, such as NSAIDs, reduce swelling, redness, and pain.
117. Which of the following terms means “away from the midline of the body”?
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Proximal
D. Distal
Answer: B. Lateral
Explanation: Lateral refers to structures farther from the midline of the body.
118. What is the first step in cleaning medical instruments?
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection
C. Rinsing to remove debris
D. Packaging
Answer: C. Rinsing to remove debris
Explanation: Instruments must first be cleaned of visible debris before disinfection or sterilization.
119. Which of the following is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by airway inflammation and constriction?
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Bronchitis
Answer: A. Asthma
Explanation: Asthma causes recurrent episodes of airway narrowing, causing wheezing and shortness of breath.
120. What does the suffix “-itis” mean in medical terminology?
A. Disease
B. Inflammation
C. Surgical removal
D. Condition of
Answer: B. Inflammation
Explanation: The suffix “-itis” denotes inflammation, such as in arthritis or tonsillitis.
the normal adult respiratory rate at rest?
A. 8–12 breaths per minute
B. 12–20 breaths per minute
C. 20–30 breaths per minute
D. 30–40 breaths per minute
Answer: B. 12–20 breaths per minute
Explanation: The normal adult respiratory rate ranges from 12 to 20 breaths per minute, indicating adequate ventilation and oxygenation.
122. Which term refers to the study of tissues?
A. Histology
B. Pathology
C. Physiology
D. Microbiology
Answer: A. Histology
Explanation: Histology is the branch of biology that studies the microscopic structure of tissues.
123. Which of the following is a common symptom of hyperglycemia?
A. Cold sweat
B. Increased thirst
C. Slow heartbeat
D. Decreased urination
Answer: B. Increased thirst
Explanation: Hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, often causes increased thirst as the body tries to dilute the excess glucose.
124. The term “tachypnea” refers to:
A. Slow breathing
B. Rapid breathing
C. Painful breathing
D. Absence of breathing
Answer: B. Rapid breathing
Explanation: Tachypnea means abnormally fast respiratory rate, often a sign of respiratory distress.
125. Which organ produces insulin?
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Adrenal gland
D. Thyroid
Answer: B. Pancreas
Explanation: The pancreas produces insulin, a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels.
126. What is the primary purpose of a patient’s medical history?
A. To diagnose current illness
B. To evaluate past and current health status
C. To prescribe medications
D. To document insurance information
Answer: B. To evaluate past and current health status
Explanation: A thorough medical history helps healthcare providers understand the patient’s health background for better diagnosis and treatment.
127. Which of the following terms means “below the skin”?
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intravenous
C. Intramuscular
D. Epidermal
Answer: A. Subcutaneous
Explanation: Subcutaneous means beneath the skin and is often the site for certain injections.
128. What is the recommended needle gauge range for intramuscular injections in adults?
A. 18–25 gauge
B. 25–30 gauge
C. 30–35 gauge
D. 10–15 gauge
Answer: A. 18–25 gauge
Explanation: Needles between 18 and 25 gauge are commonly used for intramuscular injections to ensure proper medication delivery.
129. Which of the following is the primary function of platelets?
A. Oxygen transport
B. Blood clotting
C. Fighting infection
D. Carrying nutrients
Answer: B. Blood clotting
Explanation: Platelets help in the formation of blood clots to stop bleeding after injury.
130. What is the term for inflammation of the liver?
A. Nephritis
B. Hepatitis
C. Gastritis
D. Dermatitis
Answer: B. Hepatitis
Explanation: Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver, often caused by viruses, toxins, or autoimmune diseases.
131. Which of the following personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling blood or bodily fluids?
A. Mask only
B. Gloves only
C. Gloves and gown
D. Gloves, gown, mask, and eye protection
Answer: D. Gloves, gown, mask, and eye protection
Explanation: Full PPE protects healthcare workers from exposure to infectious materials.
132. The abbreviation “BP” stands for:
A. Blood pressure
B. Body posture
C. Basal pulse
D. Bowel pattern
Answer: A. Blood pressure
Explanation: BP is a common abbreviation for blood pressure measurement.
133. Which term describes the absence of breathing?
A. Dyspnea
B. Apnea
C. Tachypnea
D. Bradypnea
Answer: B. Apnea
Explanation: Apnea refers to the temporary cessation of breathing.
134. What is the best site for an intradermal injection?
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Abdomen
C. Forearm
D. Gluteus maximus
Answer: C. Forearm
Explanation: The forearm is commonly used for intradermal injections such as tuberculosis skin tests.
135. Which of the following instruments is used to examine the ear?
A. Otoscope
B. Ophthalmoscope
C. Stethoscope
D. Thermometer
Answer: A. Otoscope
Explanation: An otoscope is used to inspect the ear canal and eardrum.
136. Which electrolyte is most abundant in extracellular fluid?
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Answer: B. Sodium
Explanation: Sodium is the primary electrolyte found outside cells, playing a key role in fluid balance.
137. What does the term “hypertension” mean?
A. Low blood pressure
B. High blood pressure
C. Normal blood pressure
D. Fluctuating blood pressure
Answer: B. High blood pressure
Explanation: Hypertension is a condition characterized by persistently elevated blood pressure.
138. Which of the following routes is fastest for medication absorption?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
D. Subcutaneous
Answer: C. Intravenous
Explanation: Intravenous administration delivers medication directly into the bloodstream, allowing rapid absorption.
139. What is the primary function of white blood cells?
A. Carry oxygen
B. Fight infection
C. Clot blood
D. Regulate temperature
Answer: B. Fight infection
Explanation: White blood cells are key components of the immune system that defend against pathogens.
140. Which medical term means “surgical removal of the appendix”?
A. Appendectomy
B. Tonsillectomy
C. Cholecystectomy
D. Gastrectomy
Answer: A. Appendectomy
Explanation: Appendectomy is the surgical removal of the appendix, typically performed for appendicitis.
141. What is the standard volume of a tuberculin syringe?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1 mL
C. 3 mL
D. 5 mL
Answer: B. 1 mL
Explanation: Tuberculin syringes hold up to 1 mL of fluid and are used for precise dosing, especially intradermal injections.
142. Which condition is characterized by a loss of bone density?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Arthritis
C. Scoliosis
D. Fibromyalgia
Answer: A. Osteoporosis
Explanation: Osteoporosis causes bones to become weak and fragile due to decreased density.
143. Which type of immunity is gained by vaccination?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
Answer: B. Artificial active immunity
Explanation: Vaccination stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies without causing disease.
144. What is the medical abbreviation for “after meals”?
A. AM
B. PM
C. PC
D. AC
Answer: C. PC
Explanation: “PC” stands for “post cibum,” which means after meals.
145. What is the term for abnormally low white blood cell count?
A. Leukocytosis
B. Leukopenia
C. Anemia
D. Thrombocytopenia
Answer: B. Leukopenia
Explanation: Leukopenia is a reduction in white blood cells, increasing susceptibility to infections.
146. Which of the following is a nonverbal sign of pain?
A. Verbal complaint
B. Guarding a body part
C. Elevated temperature
D. Elevated blood pressure
Answer: B. Guarding a body part
Explanation: Guarding is a protective response to pain where a patient avoids movement or touch to the painful area.
147. What is the function of the large intestine?
A. Absorb nutrients
B. Produce digestive enzymes
C. Absorb water and form stool
D. Digest proteins
Answer: C. Absorb water and form stool
Explanation: The large intestine absorbs water from waste material and compacts it into feces.
148. Which of the following instruments is used to listen to heart and lung sounds?
A. Otoscope
B. Stethoscope
C. Sphygmomanometer
D. Reflex hammer
Answer: B. Stethoscope
Explanation: The stethoscope amplifies internal body sounds for assessment.
149. What is the first step in the chain of infection?
A. Portal of exit
B. Reservoir
C. Mode of transmission
D. Susceptible host
Answer: B. Reservoir
Explanation: The reservoir is where pathogens live and multiply before spreading.
150. Which of the following is the best way to identify a patient before a procedure?
A. Ask their name and date of birth
B. Check their medical record number
C. Ask a family member
D. Look at their wristband only
Answer: A. Ask their name and date of birth
Explanation: Verifying both name and birth date ensures accurate patient identification and prevents errors.
