Certified Cybersecurity Technician (212-82) Practice Exam
Are you preparing for the Certified Cybersecurity Technician (212-82) exam and looking for a reliable resource to boost your confidence and test readiness? Exam Sage offers a comprehensive practice exam designed specifically to help you succeed in this essential certification.
What is the Certified Cybersecurity Technician (212-82) Exam?
The 212-82 exam is a key credential for cybersecurity professionals seeking to validate their skills in network security, threat detection, incident response, and fundamental cybersecurity principles. Passing this exam demonstrates your ability to protect information systems, manage vulnerabilities, and apply best practices in the evolving cybersecurity landscape.
What You Will Learn
Our practice exam covers all critical domains tested in the 212-82 exam, including:
Cybersecurity Fundamentals: Understand the core concepts of confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA triad), authentication, and access control.
Network Security: Learn about firewalls, VPNs, wireless security, and common network attacks.
Threats and Vulnerabilities: Identify malware types, phishing attacks, and zero-day vulnerabilities.
Security Tools and Techniques: Gain familiarity with tools such as vulnerability scanners, firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and endpoint protection.
Incident Response: Develop skills in identifying, managing, and mitigating security incidents.
Compliance and Best Practices: Explore industry standards, security policies, and ethical responsibilities.
Why Choose Exam Sage for Your 212-82 Exam Preparation?
Realistic Practice Questions: Our questions mimic the actual exam style and difficulty to give you a true testing experience.
Detailed Explanations: Each question comes with thorough explanations to deepen your understanding and reinforce learning.
Up-to-Date Content: The practice tests are continuously updated to reflect the latest exam objectives and cybersecurity trends.
User-Friendly Platform: Study anytime, anywhere with our easy-to-navigate online platform optimized for desktop and mobile devices.
Affordable and Accessible: Get high-quality exam prep without breaking the bank.
Whether you’re starting your cybersecurity journey or aiming to solidify your technician-level expertise, the Certified Cybersecurity Technician (212-82) Practice Exam from Exam Sage is your trusted partner to exam success.
Prepare confidently, learn effectively, and pass your exam on the first try — start practicing with Exam Sage today!
Sample Questions and Answers
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between applications?
A) Transport
B) Session
C) Presentation
D) NetworkAnswer: B) Session
Explanation: The Session layer (Layer 5) manages sessions or connections between applications, including establishing, maintaining, and terminating them.
What is the primary purpose of a firewall in network security?
A) Encrypt data
B) Filter network traffic
C) Detect malware
D) Backup dataAnswer: B) Filter network traffic
Explanation: A firewall controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules to protect networks from unauthorized access.
Which of the following is a common symmetric encryption algorithm?
A) RSA
B) AES
C) ECC
D) Diffie-HellmanAnswer: B) AES
Explanation: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a widely used symmetric encryption algorithm where the same key is used to encrypt and decrypt data.
What type of attack involves intercepting communication between two parties without their knowledge?
A) Phishing
B) Man-in-the-Middle
C) Denial of Service
D) SQL InjectionAnswer: B) Man-in-the-Middle
Explanation: In a Man-in-the-Middle attack, the attacker secretly intercepts and possibly alters communication between two parties.
Which protocol is primarily used for secure remote command-line access?
A) Telnet
B) FTP
C) SSH
D) HTTPAnswer: C) SSH
Explanation: SSH (Secure Shell) provides encrypted secure remote access to command-line interfaces, replacing insecure protocols like Telnet.
What does the acronym VPN stand for?
A) Virtual Private Network
B) Verified Protected Node
C) Virtual Public Network
D) Variable Private NodeAnswer: A) Virtual Private Network
Explanation: A VPN extends a private network across a public network, enabling secure encrypted connections.
Which cybersecurity concept focuses on ensuring data is not altered during transmission?
A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Availability
D) AuthenticationAnswer: B) Integrity
Explanation: Integrity ensures that data remains accurate and unaltered from source to destination.
Which device operates at the Data Link layer and filters traffic based on MAC addresses?
A) Router
B) Switch
C) Firewall
D) HubAnswer: B) Switch
Explanation: Switches operate at Layer 2 (Data Link layer) and forward traffic based on MAC addresses.
Which of the following is a strong password policy recommendation?
A) Passwords should be at least 8 characters long.
B) Use easily memorable dates.
C) Passwords should include uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and special characters.
D) Reuse the same password across multiple accounts.Answer: C) Passwords should include uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and special characters.
Explanation: Strong passwords use a combination of character types to increase complexity and resist attacks.
What is a primary function of Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)?
A) Prevent attacks before they happen
B) Detect suspicious activity and alert administrators
C) Encrypt network traffic
D) Back up critical dataAnswer: B) Detect suspicious activity and alert administrators
Explanation: IDS monitors network or system activities for malicious behavior and sends alerts.
Which type of malware is designed to replicate itself and spread across networks?
A) Trojan
B) Worm
C) Spyware
D) AdwareAnswer: B) Worm
Explanation: Worms self-replicate and spread independently without needing to attach to other programs.
What port number is used by HTTPS traffic?
A) 80
B) 21
C) 443
D) 25Answer: C) 443
Explanation: HTTPS uses port 443 for secure web traffic encrypted with SSL/TLS.
Which of the following is a common method for securing wireless networks?
A) WEP
B) WPA2
C) FTP
D) TelnetAnswer: B) WPA2
Explanation: WPA2 is a secure protocol that encrypts wireless network traffic better than the outdated WEP.
Which authentication method relies on something the user has, like a smart card?
A) Something you know
B) Something you have
C) Something you are
D) Something you doAnswer: B) Something you have
Explanation: Possession-based authentication uses physical tokens like smart cards or key fobs.
What is the main purpose of a DMZ in network architecture?
A) Isolate untrusted external traffic from internal network
B) Encrypt internal communications
C) Host internal company databases
D) Backup data from internal serversAnswer: A) Isolate untrusted external traffic from internal network
Explanation: A DMZ (demilitarized zone) isolates publicly accessible services to protect internal networks.
What is social engineering?
A) Using software exploits to gain unauthorized access
B) Manipulating individuals to divulge confidential information
C) Encrypting sensitive data
D) Scanning networks for vulnerabilitiesAnswer: B) Manipulating individuals to divulge confidential information
Explanation: Social engineering attacks trick people into giving sensitive info or access.
What does the acronym CIA stand for in cybersecurity?
A) Central Intelligence Agency
B) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
C) Cybersecurity Incident Analysis
D) Control, Identify, AuthenticateAnswer: B) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
Explanation: The CIA triad is the core principle of cybersecurity focusing on data confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
Which tool is commonly used for packet analysis in cybersecurity?
A) Nmap
B) Wireshark
C) Metasploit
D) NessusAnswer: B) Wireshark
Explanation: Wireshark captures and analyzes network packets in real-time.
Which cybersecurity term refers to the process of verifying a user’s identity?
A) Authorization
B) Authentication
C) Accounting
D) AuditingAnswer: B) Authentication
Explanation: Authentication verifies who the user is, typically via credentials.
What does multi-factor authentication (MFA) require?
A) Password only
B) Password and username
C) Two or more independent authentication factors
D) Single password resetAnswer: C) Two or more independent authentication factors
Explanation: MFA combines at least two factors like something you know, have, or are.
Which cyber attack exploits a software vulnerability before a patch is released?
A) Zero-day attack
B) Phishing
C) Brute force
D) RansomwareAnswer: A) Zero-day attack
Explanation: Zero-day attacks target unknown or unpatched vulnerabilities.
What is the purpose of penetration testing?
A) To encrypt network data
B) To identify and exploit vulnerabilities to improve security
C) To perform routine backups
D) To update software automaticallyAnswer: B) To identify and exploit vulnerabilities to improve security
Explanation: Penetration testing simulates attacks to uncover security weaknesses.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ransomware?
A) Encrypts victim’s files
B) Demands payment for decryption
C) Self-replicates across networks
D) Causes denial of access to dataAnswer: C) Self-replicates across networks
Explanation: Unlike worms, ransomware does not self-replicate; it encrypts files and demands ransom.
What is phishing?
A) A technique to bypass firewalls
B) Attempting to trick users into revealing sensitive information by impersonation
C) A form of password cracking
D) Monitoring network trafficAnswer: B) Attempting to trick users into revealing sensitive information by impersonation
Explanation: Phishing involves fraudulent communication to steal credentials or data.
Which technology ensures data confidentiality over an insecure network?
A) VPN
B) Proxy server
C) Load balancer
D) DHCPAnswer: A) VPN
Explanation: VPNs encrypt data to provide secure communication over public networks.
Which of the following is a key principle in least privilege access?
A) Users get access to all network resources.
B) Users receive the minimum level of access necessary.
C) Access is granted indefinitely without review.
D) Passwords are shared among users.Answer: B) Users receive the minimum level of access necessary.
Explanation: Least privilege limits access rights to reduce security risks.
Which protocol is used to automatically assign IP addresses on a network?
A) DNS
B) DHCP
C) FTP
D) SMTPAnswer: B) DHCP
Explanation: DHCP dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network.
What is a common indicator of a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack?
A) Slow or unavailable services due to overwhelming traffic
B) Unauthorized file deletion
C) Password compromise
D) Malware infectionAnswer: A) Slow or unavailable services due to overwhelming traffic
Explanation: DDoS floods a target with traffic, causing service disruption.
What is the main difference between vulnerability scanning and penetration testing?
A) Vulnerability scanning is manual; penetration testing is automated.
B) Vulnerability scanning identifies potential weaknesses; penetration testing actively exploits them.
C) Vulnerability scanning requires user interaction; penetration testing does not.
D) Both are the same processes.Answer: B) Vulnerability scanning identifies potential weaknesses; penetration testing actively exploits them.
Explanation: Scanning finds vulnerabilities; penetration testing exploits them to assess impact.
Which cybersecurity framework provides best practices for managing cybersecurity risks?
A) COBIT
B) ITIL
C) NIST Cybersecurity Framework
D) ISO 9001Answer: C) NIST Cybersecurity Framework
Explanation: NIST CSF offers guidelines to manage and reduce cybersecurity risks effectively.
What does the term “sandboxing” refer to in cybersecurity?
A) Testing software in an isolated environment
B) Encrypting data at rest
C) Monitoring network traffic for anomalies
D) Blocking unauthorized devices
Answer: A) Testing software in an isolated environment
Explanation: Sandboxing runs suspicious programs in a controlled, isolated environment to prevent harm to the actual system.
Which of the following best describes a “botnet”?
A) A group of compromised computers controlled by an attacker
B) A firewall filtering traffic based on IP addresses
C) A software patch to fix vulnerabilities
D) An antivirus software feature
Answer: A) A group of compromised computers controlled by an attacker
Explanation: Botnets are networks of infected devices controlled remotely to perform malicious actions like DDoS attacks.
Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of a phishing email?
A) Urgent language requesting immediate action
B) Generic greetings like “Dear Customer”
C) Attachments or links to unknown sites
D) Personalized and direct communication from a known contact
Answer: D) Personalized and direct communication from a known contact
Explanation: Phishing emails often use generic greetings and try to mimic trusted sources but rarely come from known contacts.
What is the purpose of hashing in cybersecurity?
A) To encrypt data for confidentiality
B) To create a fixed-length unique representation of data
C) To compress files for storage
D) To authenticate users
Answer: B) To create a fixed-length unique representation of data
Explanation: Hashing generates a unique, fixed-size string from data, commonly used to verify data integrity.
Which of the following tools is primarily used for vulnerability scanning?
A) Metasploit
B) Nessus
C) Wireshark
D) John the Ripper
Answer: B) Nessus
Explanation: Nessus is a widely used tool for scanning systems to detect security vulnerabilities.
What security feature does TLS provide for internet communications?
A) Traffic filtering
B) Encryption and integrity
C) Packet routing
D) Password authentication
Answer: B) Encryption and integrity
Explanation: TLS (Transport Layer Security) encrypts data and ensures it is not tampered with during transmission.
Which cybersecurity principle ensures that only authorized users can access certain data?
A) Availability
B) Integrity
C) Confidentiality
D) Non-repudiation
Answer: C) Confidentiality
Explanation: Confidentiality protects data from unauthorized access.
What is “two-factor authentication” (2FA)?
A) Using two passwords simultaneously
B) Using a username and password
C) Using two different methods to verify identity
D) Logging in twice for access
Answer: C) Using two different methods to verify identity
Explanation: 2FA requires two separate factors (e.g., password + code from a phone) to verify a user.
What kind of attack floods a network with excessive traffic to disrupt services?
A) SQL Injection
B) Denial of Service (DoS)
C) Cross-site scripting
D) Man-in-the-middle
Answer: B) Denial of Service (DoS)
Explanation: DoS attacks overwhelm systems to make services unavailable.
Which type of malware pretends to be legitimate software but performs malicious activities?
A) Worm
B) Trojan horse
C) Ransomware
D) Rootkit
Answer: B) Trojan horse
Explanation: Trojans disguise themselves as legitimate applications to trick users.
Which cybersecurity device can inspect and filter traffic based on application-layer data?
A) Router
B) Stateful firewall
C) Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW)
D) Switch
Answer: C) Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW)
Explanation: NGFWs can inspect application-level data, unlike traditional firewalls.
What is the function of a Digital Certificate?
A) Encrypt data automatically
B) Authenticate the identity of websites or users
C) Scan for viruses
D) Create secure passwords
Answer: B) Authenticate the identity of websites or users
Explanation: Digital certificates verify the authenticity of entities on the internet.
Which protocol is used to securely transfer files over the internet?
A) FTP
B) SFTP
C) HTTP
D) SMTP
Answer: B) SFTP
Explanation: SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) encrypts file transfers, unlike FTP.
What is the main goal of patch management?
A) To reduce network traffic
B) To update software to fix security vulnerabilities
C) To improve user interface
D) To increase bandwidth
Answer: B) To update software to fix security vulnerabilities
Explanation: Patch management ensures systems are updated to protect against known exploits.
Which type of backup captures only data that has changed since the last backup?
A) Full backup
B) Incremental backup
C) Differential backup
D) Snapshot backup
Answer: B) Incremental backup
Explanation: Incremental backups save only changes made after the last backup.
What is spear phishing?
A) Phishing attacks targeting large groups
B) Highly targeted phishing attacks aimed at specific individuals
C) Automated phishing using bots
D) A method of encrypting phishing emails
Answer: B) Highly targeted phishing attacks aimed at specific individuals
Explanation: Spear phishing is a personalized phishing attack on specific targets.
Which of these is NOT a type of firewall?
A) Packet-filtering firewall
B) Stateful firewall
C) Proxy firewall
D) Antivirus firewall
Answer: D) Antivirus firewall
Explanation: Antivirus is a software, not a type of firewall.
What does “least privilege” mean in access control?
A) Users get all permissions by default
B) Users receive only the permissions necessary to perform their tasks
C) Permissions are never revoked
D) Users can share privileges
Answer: B) Users receive only the permissions necessary to perform their tasks
Explanation: Least privilege limits access rights to reduce risk.
Which attack involves injecting malicious code into a website to execute on users’ browsers?
A) SQL Injection
B) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
C) Buffer Overflow
D) Man-in-the-Middle
Answer: B) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Explanation: XSS allows attackers to inject scripts that run in victims’ browsers.
Which method is best for securely disposing of sensitive electronic data?
A) Deleting files and emptying recycle bin
B) Overwriting data multiple times (data wiping)
C) Formatting the hard drive once
D) Leaving files encrypted
Answer: B) Overwriting data multiple times (data wiping)
Explanation: Secure wiping ensures data cannot be recovered.
What is the function of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?
A) Manage network devices
B) Aggregate and analyze security logs for threats
C) Patch management automation
D) Encrypt email communications
Answer: B) Aggregate and analyze security logs for threats
Explanation: SIEM collects logs from multiple sources and helps detect incidents.
What does a “honeypot” do in network security?
A) Redirects malicious traffic
B) Attracts attackers to study their methods
C) Blocks malware automatically
D) Encrypts network data
Answer: B) Attracts attackers to study their methods
Explanation: Honeypots are traps designed to detect and analyze attacker behavior.
Which security concept ensures a user cannot deny performing an action?
A) Authentication
B) Authorization
C) Non-repudiation
D) Confidentiality
Answer: C) Non-repudiation
Explanation: Non-repudiation provides proof of origin and delivery of data to prevent denial.
Which of the following is a common sign of a compromised system?
A) Unexpected system crashes
B) Increased system performance
C) Frequent successful logins by authorized users
D) Faster network speeds
Answer: A) Unexpected system crashes
Explanation: System crashes can indicate malware or unauthorized access.
What is the purpose of network segmentation?
A) To improve system backups
B) To isolate network traffic and reduce attack surfaces
C) To increase internet speed
D) To share passwords securely
Answer: B) To isolate network traffic and reduce attack surfaces
Explanation: Network segmentation divides networks into smaller parts to limit breaches.
Which protocol translates domain names to IP addresses?
A) DHCP
B) DNS
C) FTP
D) HTTP
Answer: B) DNS
Explanation: DNS resolves human-readable domain names into IP addresses.
What type of malware modifies system files to hide itself?
A) Rootkit
B) Virus
C) Worm
D) Spyware
Answer: A) Rootkit
Explanation: Rootkits hide malicious processes by modifying system files or kernel.
What is a primary advantage of multi-layered security?
A) It increases system complexity without benefits
B) It provides multiple defenses, reducing the chance of successful attacks
C) It reduces costs by eliminating firewalls
D) It makes recovery impossible
Answer: B) It provides multiple defenses, reducing the chance of successful attacks
Explanation: Defense in depth uses layers of security controls for better protection.
Which cybersecurity term refers to testing user awareness about phishing?
A) Penetration testing
B) Security audit
C) Phishing simulation
D) Vulnerability scanning
Answer: C) Phishing simulation
Explanation: Phishing simulations educate users by mimicking phishing attacks.
What is the best way to protect against ransomware?
A) Keep regular backups offline
B) Use weak passwords
C) Disable firewalls
D) Share credentials freely
Answer: A) Keep regular backups offline
Explanation: Offline backups allow recovery without paying ransom if files are encrypted.
