Certified SOC Analyst (312-39) Practice Exam
Prepare confidently for the Certified SOC Analyst (312-39) exam with Exam Sage’s comprehensive practice test designed specifically to help you succeed. Whether you’re new to Security Operations Centers (SOC) or an experienced analyst looking to validate your skills, this practice exam offers everything you need to sharpen your knowledge and boost your exam readiness.
What is the Certified SOC Analyst (312-39) Exam?
The Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) certification, exam code 312-39, is a highly respected credential for professionals working in Security Operations Centers. It validates your ability to monitor, detect, analyze, and respond to cybersecurity threats effectively. The exam covers essential SOC analyst skills, including threat intelligence, incident handling, log analysis, and security monitoring tools.
What You Will Learn
By using Exam Sage’s Certified SOC Analyst practice exam, you will:
Gain a deep understanding of SOC fundamentals and operations
Learn how to analyze and interpret security alerts and logs
Master techniques for incident detection, triage, and response
Develop skills in using common SOC tools and technologies
Understand common attack vectors and mitigation strategies
Build confidence in applying knowledge under real exam conditions
Key Topics Covered
Our practice exam covers all critical topics tested on the Certified SOC Analyst exam, including:
SOC operations and roles
Security information and event management (SIEM)
Network traffic analysis
Incident response lifecycle
Cyber kill chain and attack methodologies
Malware analysis basics
Threat intelligence gathering
Common security protocols and their weaknesses
Log and event correlation techniques
Why Choose Exam Sage for Your Certified SOC Analyst Exam Prep?
ExamSage.com is a trusted platform dedicated to providing high-quality, up-to-date practice exams tailored for certification success. Our Certified SOC Analyst practice test:
Contains realistic, exam-relevant questions with detailed explanations
Reflects the latest industry trends and exam objectives
Helps identify your strengths and areas needing improvement
Enables unlimited practice anytime, anywhere on any device
Supports exam readiness with clear, concise answers and rationales
Prepare smarter and increase your chances of passing the Certified SOC Analyst (312-39) exam on your first attempt with Exam Sage’s expert-crafted practice tests. Start practicing today and take the next step toward advancing your cybersecurity career!
Sample Questions and Answers
1. What is the primary purpose of a Security Operations Center (SOC)?
A) Develop new software tools
B) Monitor and respond to security incidents
C) Manage company finances
D) Design network infrastructure
Answer: B
Explanation: A SOC is primarily focused on monitoring, detecting, and responding to cybersecurity threats and incidents within an organization.
2. Which tool is commonly used for log management and analysis in a SOC?
A) Wireshark
B) Splunk
C) Photoshop
D) AutoCAD
Answer: B
Explanation: Splunk is widely used in SOCs for collecting, analyzing, and visualizing machine data and logs.
3. What is the first step in the incident response process?
A) Containment
B) Identification
C) Eradication
D) Recovery
Answer: B
Explanation: Identification involves detecting and recognizing a security incident, which is the first step in responding to it.
4. Which type of attack involves an attacker intercepting and potentially altering communication between two parties without their knowledge?
A) Phishing
B) Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
C) SQL Injection
D) Ransomware
Answer: B
Explanation: MITM attacks occur when an attacker secretly intercepts and possibly alters communication between two parties.
5. What does the acronym SIEM stand for?
A) Security Incident and Event Management
B) Security Information and Event Management
C) Secure Internet Email Management
D) Security Information and Encryption Management
Answer: B
Explanation: SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which collects and analyzes security data from various sources.
6. What is the purpose of network segmentation in cybersecurity?
A) To improve network speed
B) To isolate sensitive data and reduce attack surface
C) To reduce the cost of hardware
D) To increase the number of IP addresses
Answer: B
Explanation: Network segmentation divides a network into segments to isolate sensitive data and minimize the spread of attacks.
7. Which phase of the Cyber Kill Chain involves the attacker gathering information about the target?
A) Reconnaissance
B) Weaponization
C) Delivery
D) Exploitation
Answer: A
Explanation: Reconnaissance is the initial phase where attackers gather intelligence about the target.
8. What is the main function of Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)?
A) Block all incoming traffic
B) Detect malicious activities or policy violations
C) Encrypt sensitive data
D) Monitor employee productivity
Answer: B
Explanation: IDS detect suspicious activity and alert administrators without necessarily blocking traffic.
9. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a zero-day vulnerability?
A) It is publicly known
B) It has no available patch
C) It is exploited by attackers before a fix is released
D) It poses a significant risk to systems
Answer: A
Explanation: Zero-day vulnerabilities are unknown to the public and the vendor at the time of exploitation.
10. What does the CIA triad stand for in cybersecurity?
A) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
B) Control, Investigation, Analysis
C) Compliance, Incident, Alert
D) Configuration, Identification, Authorization
Answer: A
Explanation: The CIA triad represents the core principles of cybersecurity: Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability.
11. What is an Indicator of Compromise (IoC)?
A) A firewall configuration rule
B) Evidence that a system has been breached
C) A network architecture diagram
D) A user access log
Answer: B
Explanation: IoCs are artifacts or evidence indicating a system has been compromised.
12. Which of the following is an example of a passive reconnaissance technique?
A) Scanning open ports
B) Querying WHOIS information
C) Sending phishing emails
D) Deploying malware
Answer: B
Explanation: Passive reconnaissance gathers information without direct interaction, such as looking up WHOIS data.
13. Which log type would you analyze to detect unauthorized user login attempts?
A) Application logs
B) System security logs
C) DNS logs
D) Web server logs
Answer: B
Explanation: System security logs track authentication attempts, including failed or unauthorized logins.
14. What is the primary purpose of threat intelligence in a SOC?
A) Design software patches
B) Provide actionable information on current threats
C) Manage user passwords
D) Backup data
Answer: B
Explanation: Threat intelligence helps SOC teams anticipate, identify, and respond to threats effectively.
15. Which technique is used to evade signature-based detection systems?
A) Encryption
B) Polymorphism
C) Data exfiltration
D) Network sniffing
Answer: B
Explanation: Polymorphism changes the malware’s code to avoid detection by signature-based systems.
16. What does a firewall do in a network environment?
A) Encrypts all outgoing data
B) Controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on rules
C) Stores backups of critical data
D) Monitors employee behavior
Answer: B
Explanation: Firewalls enforce security policies by filtering network traffic according to configured rules.
17. Which port is commonly used by the HTTP protocol?
A) 21
B) 80
C) 443
D) 22
Answer: B
Explanation: HTTP traffic typically uses port 80.
18. What is phishing?
A) A type of malware
B) A social engineering attack to steal sensitive information
C) A method of encrypting data
D) A denial-of-service attack
Answer: B
Explanation: Phishing uses deceptive emails or websites to trick users into providing sensitive data.
19. What is the role of a Security Analyst in a SOC?
A) Writing software code
B) Analyzing security alerts and incidents
C) Managing physical security
D) Marketing cybersecurity products
Answer: B
Explanation: Security Analysts investigate alerts, analyze incidents, and coordinate response actions.
20. What is lateral movement in cybersecurity?
A) Moving laterally across the network to escalate privileges
B) Downloading files from the internet
C) Creating user accounts
D) Blocking IP addresses
Answer: A
Explanation: Lateral movement refers to attackers moving within a network to gain access to more resources.
21. Which tool is commonly used for packet capture and analysis?
A) Metasploit
B) Wireshark
C) Nmap
D) Nessus
Answer: B
Explanation: Wireshark is a popular tool for capturing and analyzing network packets.
22. What is the difference between IDS and IPS?
A) IDS blocks attacks; IPS only detects
B) IDS detects attacks; IPS detects and blocks attacks
C) IDS encrypts data; IPS decrypts data
D) IDS monitors employees; IPS monitors networks
Answer: B
Explanation: IDS detects malicious activity and alerts; IPS can detect and also prevent/block the attack.
23. What is the primary goal of vulnerability scanning?
A) To patch software vulnerabilities
B) To identify weaknesses that could be exploited
C) To monitor network traffic
D) To encrypt sensitive data
Answer: B
Explanation: Vulnerability scanning identifies potential security weaknesses that require remediation.
24. What type of malware restricts access to data and demands ransom?
A) Spyware
B) Ransomware
C) Adware
D) Worm
Answer: B
Explanation: Ransomware encrypts or locks data and demands payment for restoration.
25. What is a threat actor?
A) A software program that defends against attacks
B) An individual or group that performs malicious activities
C) A firewall rule
D) A network monitoring tool
Answer: B
Explanation: A threat actor is an entity (person or group) responsible for malicious cyber activities.
26. Which of the following best describes ‘false positive’ in security alerts?
A) An alert that correctly identifies a threat
B) An alert that incorrectly indicates a threat when none exists
C) An alert that is ignored
D) An alert caused by system failure
Answer: B
Explanation: False positives are alerts triggered by benign activity mistakenly flagged as malicious.
27. What is the benefit of using threat hunting in a SOC?
A) Automatically blocks malware
B) Proactively searches for hidden threats not detected by automated tools
C) Creates backups of security logs
D) Installs security patches
Answer: B
Explanation: Threat hunting involves actively searching for threats that evade automated detection.
28. What is the role of a Playbook in incident response?
A) Software to encrypt data
B) A predefined set of procedures for handling specific incidents
C) A network scanning tool
D) An email filtering system
Answer: B
Explanation: Playbooks guide SOC teams with structured steps to respond consistently to incidents.
29. What does a port scanner like Nmap do?
A) Analyzes log files
B) Identifies open ports and services on a network host
C) Encrypts data on disk
D) Detects phishing emails
Answer: B
Explanation: Nmap scans networks to discover open ports and services for vulnerability assessment.
30. Which security framework is commonly used to improve security posture through continuous monitoring?
A) ITIL
B) NIST Cybersecurity Framework
C) COBIT
D) ISO 9001
Answer: B
Explanation: The NIST Cybersecurity Framework provides guidelines for managing and reducing cybersecurity risk through continuous monitoring and improvement.
31. What is a common indicator of a brute-force attack?
A) Multiple failed login attempts over a short period
B) A single successful login
C) Frequent software updates
D) Regular password changes
Answer: A
Explanation: Brute-force attacks involve repeated login attempts, so many failed logins in a short time indicate such an attack.
32. Which of the following best describes phishing emails?
A) Emails containing unsolicited advertisements
B) Emails designed to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information
C) Emails that contain system update notifications
D) Emails sent only within an organization
Answer: B
Explanation: Phishing emails aim to deceive users into giving up passwords, credit card numbers, or other sensitive data.
33. What is lateral movement primarily used for by attackers during an intrusion?
A) To cover their tracks after an attack
B) To propagate malware outside the network
C) To escalate privileges and gain access to other systems
D) To encrypt files
Answer: C
Explanation: Lateral movement allows attackers to move across a network to access more systems and escalate privileges.
34. Which log source is most helpful to investigate a DNS tunneling attack?
A) DHCP logs
B) DNS logs
C) Web server logs
D) VPN logs
Answer: B
Explanation: DNS logs can reveal abnormal queries or patterns that indicate DNS tunneling.
35. What is the main advantage of using behavioral analytics in SOC operations?
A) Faster data encryption
B) Detecting anomalies based on user or system behavior
C) Reducing network latency
D) Blocking all inbound traffic automatically
Answer: B
Explanation: Behavioral analytics identify deviations from normal behavior to detect potential threats.
36. Which of these is NOT a common SOC metric?
A) Mean Time to Detect (MTTD)
B) Mean Time to Respond (MTTR)
C) Mean Time to Encrypt (MTTE)
D) Number of incidents handled
Answer: C
Explanation: Mean Time to Encrypt is not a typical SOC metric; MTTD and MTTR measure detection and response efficiency.
37. What does the term “pivoting” mean in penetration testing or threat hunting?
A) Shifting focus from one attack vector to another
B) Using a compromised system to attack other network segments
C) Changing encryption keys during communication
D) Restarting security appliances
Answer: B
Explanation: Pivoting involves using an already compromised host to move deeper into the network.
38. Which of the following is NOT a function of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?
A) Collecting and correlating log data
B) Performing vulnerability scans
C) Alerting on suspicious activities
D) Providing dashboards and reports
Answer: B
Explanation: Vulnerability scanning is typically done by separate tools, not SIEM systems.
39. What is the primary goal of a phishing simulation exercise?
A) To launch an actual phishing attack
B) To train employees to recognize phishing attempts
C) To test network speed
D) To update antivirus signatures
Answer: B
Explanation: Phishing simulations educate employees on identifying and handling phishing emails.
40. What technique does ransomware use to prevent victims from accessing their files?
A) Data deletion
B) File encryption
C) Password stealing
D) IP spoofing
Answer: B
Explanation: Ransomware encrypts files and demands payment for the decryption key.
41. Which of the following is an example of an endpoint detection and response (EDR) capability?
A) Blocking network traffic from suspicious IPs
B) Monitoring and analyzing endpoint behavior for malicious activity
C) Encrypting all endpoint hard drives
D) Managing user identities
Answer: B
Explanation: EDR tools focus on detecting, investigating, and responding to threats on endpoints.
42. What is the primary difference between a vulnerability and an exploit?
A) Vulnerability is a weakness; exploit is an attack using that weakness
B) Vulnerability is a type of malware; exploit is a patch
C) Exploit is a network device; vulnerability is a firewall rule
D) Exploit prevents attacks; vulnerability causes them
Answer: A
Explanation: A vulnerability is a security flaw, while an exploit is the method used to take advantage of it.
43. What is the best way to protect against social engineering attacks?
A) Install antivirus software
B) Employee security awareness training
C) Use firewall rules
D) Regularly update software
Answer: B
Explanation: Educating employees to recognize and respond to social engineering tactics is the most effective defense.
44. What kind of attack is characterized by overwhelming a system with excessive traffic?
A) Man-in-the-Middle attack
B) Denial of Service (DoS) attack
C) SQL Injection
D) Cross-site scripting (XSS)
Answer: B
Explanation: DoS attacks flood a system with traffic to render it unavailable.
45. Which protocol is primarily used to securely transfer files over a network?
A) FTP
B) SSH
C) SFTP
D) HTTP
Answer: C
Explanation: SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) transfers files securely over SSH.
46. Which of the following best describes an advanced persistent threat (APT)?
A) A one-time cyber attack
B) A prolonged and targeted cyberattack by sophisticated actors
C) A phishing campaign targeting a broad audience
D) Malware that self-replicates
Answer: B
Explanation: APTs are stealthy, prolonged attacks aimed at high-value targets.
47. What is the purpose of a honeypot in cybersecurity?
A) To trap and analyze attackers by simulating vulnerable systems
B) To speed up network traffic
C) To back up data securely
D) To authenticate users
Answer: A
Explanation: Honeypots lure attackers and help analyze their methods.
48. What is an important consideration when creating an incident response plan?
A) Focus only on prevention
B) Define clear roles and communication channels
C) Avoid documenting procedures
D) Ignore post-incident reviews
Answer: B
Explanation: Clear roles and communication are critical for effective incident response.
49. Which cybersecurity principle ensures that data has not been altered or tampered with?
A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Availability
D) Authentication
Answer: B
Explanation: Integrity means data remains accurate and unaltered during storage or transit.
50. What is the main purpose of multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
A) To simplify password management
B) To provide an extra layer of security by requiring multiple proofs of identity
C) To increase system speed
D) To encrypt data at rest
Answer: B
Explanation: MFA requires two or more verification factors, increasing security.
51. What is the main difference between vulnerability assessment and penetration testing?
A) Assessment identifies weaknesses; penetration testing exploits them to assess impact
B) Penetration testing is automated; assessment is manual
C) Assessment is more costly than penetration testing
D) They are exactly the same
Answer: A
Explanation: Vulnerability assessments scan for issues; penetration tests simulate attacks to exploit those vulnerabilities.
52. Which of the following best describes a ‘false negative’ in IDS?
A) Alert generated for benign activity
B) Failure to detect malicious activity
C) A correctly identified attack
D) Alert ignored by analyst
Answer: B
Explanation: False negatives occur when malicious activity goes undetected.
53. What does the term ‘sandboxing’ refer to in malware analysis?
A) Encrypting malware code
B) Running malware in a controlled, isolated environment for study
C) Blocking malware at the firewall
D) Deleting malicious files automatically
Answer: B
Explanation: Sandboxing allows safe execution of malware to observe behavior.
54. Which of the following is NOT a common tactic used in cyber threat intelligence?
A) Collection
B) Analysis
C) Mitigation
D) Monetization
Answer: D
Explanation: Monetization is not a step in cyber threat intelligence processes.
55. What type of attack exploits vulnerabilities in web applications by inserting malicious scripts?
A) SQL Injection
B) Cross-site scripting (XSS)
C) Man-in-the-Middle
D) Phishing
Answer: B
Explanation: XSS involves injecting malicious scripts into trusted websites viewed by users.
56. What is the main role of a firewall?
A) To block unauthorized network traffic based on predefined rules
B) To encrypt data in transit
C) To analyze malware
D) To detect phishing emails
Answer: A
Explanation: Firewalls enforce network security policies by filtering traffic.
57. What is threat hunting?
A) Reactively responding to alerts
B) Proactively searching for hidden threats within a network
C) Creating security policies
D) Running automated scans
Answer: B
Explanation: Threat hunting involves actively looking for threats that bypass automated defenses.
58. What is the main purpose of a digital certificate in cybersecurity?
A) To verify identity and establish secure communication
B) To store passwords
C) To encrypt data at rest
D) To block malware
Answer: A
Explanation: Digital certificates verify identities and enable encryption through SSL/TLS.
59. What is the difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption?
A) Symmetric uses one key; asymmetric uses two keys (public/private)
B) Symmetric is slower than asymmetric
C) Asymmetric does not use keys
D) Symmetric is only for email
Answer: A
Explanation: Symmetric encryption uses a single key for encryption/decryption; asymmetric uses a key pair.
60. What is the best description of a “botnet”?
A) A single malware sample
B) A network of compromised computers controlled by an attacker
C) A firewall rule set
D) An encrypted communication channel
Answer: B
Explanation: A botnet is a collection of infected devices controlled remotely to perform coordinated attacks.
