312-85 Certified Threat Intelligence Analyst Practice Exam
Prepare confidently for the 312-85 Certified Threat Intelligence Analyst (CTIA) certification with Exam Sage’s comprehensive practice exam. Designed specifically to mirror the latest official exam format and content, this practice test is your essential tool for mastering the skills and knowledge needed to excel as a threat intelligence professional.
What is the 312-85 Certified Threat Intelligence Analyst Exam?
The 312-85 CTIA exam validates your expertise in identifying, analyzing, and responding to cyber threats. It covers critical areas such as threat actor profiling, intelligence gathering, malware analysis, attack frameworks, and threat mitigation strategies. Passing this exam demonstrates your ability to leverage threat intelligence to protect organizations against advanced cyberattacks.
What You Will Learn
By using Exam Sage’s practice exam, you will:
Understand key threat intelligence concepts, methodologies, and frameworks
Master techniques for collecting and analyzing cyber threat data
Learn to identify Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) and perform attribution
Gain knowledge of attack lifecycle phases, including reconnaissance, exploitation, and command and control
Develop skills in using tools like the Diamond Model and MITRE ATT&CK framework for threat analysis
Enhance your ability to detect, respond to, and mitigate sophisticated cyber threats
Topics Covered
Our practice exam covers all essential CTIA domains, including:
Threat Intelligence Lifecycle and Process
Cyber Threat Actors and Their Tactics
Intelligence Collection and Analysis Techniques
Malware and Attack Vector Analysis
Threat Attribution and Reporting
Tools and Frameworks for Threat Intelligence
Incident Response Integration
Why Choose Exam Sage for Your CTIA Exam Preparation?
ExamSage.com is a trusted name in exam preparation, offering meticulously crafted practice tests designed by experts. Our CTIA practice exam includes:
Realistic, updated multiple-choice questions reflecting current exam standards
Detailed explanations for every answer to deepen your understanding
Flexible online access allowing you to study anytime, anywhere
A user-friendly interface tailored to help you track your progress and identify weak areas
Get ready to advance your cybersecurity career with confidence. Use Exam Sage’s 312-85 Certified Threat Intelligence Analyst Practice Exam as your ultimate study companion and step into the exam room fully prepared.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following best defines Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI)?
A. Data collected from security breaches
B. Information about past incidents
C. Evidence-based knowledge about existing or emerging threats
D. An antivirus tool that scans for known malware
Answer: C
Explanation: CTI refers to evidence-based knowledge, including context, mechanisms, indicators, implications, and actionable advice about an existing or emerging menace or hazard to assets.
2. What is the primary objective of a threat intelligence program?
A. To react to incidents after they occur
B. To predict weather patterns affecting networks
C. To provide actionable intelligence for informed decision-making
D. To perform network performance assessments
Answer: C
Explanation: The primary goal of threat intelligence is to provide actionable insights that help organizations make informed security decisions proactively.
3. Which phase of the threat intelligence lifecycle involves validating the reliability of the collected data?
A. Dissemination
B. Collection
C. Evaluation
D. Planning
Answer: C
Explanation: The evaluation phase ensures the data collected is accurate, reliable, and relevant to the organization’s security needs.
4. In the intelligence lifecycle, what is the main activity during the “Dissemination” phase?
A. Collecting data
B. Analyzing information
C. Delivering intelligence to stakeholders
D. Evaluating intelligence sources
Answer: C
Explanation: Dissemination refers to distributing the final intelligence product to appropriate decision-makers and stakeholders.
5. What is a major benefit of strategic threat intelligence?
A. It helps block individual IP addresses
B. It improves user behavior analytics
C. It supports long-term decision-making and security investments
D. It prevents SQL injection attacks directly
Answer: C
Explanation: Strategic threat intelligence offers insights into threat trends and patterns, enabling high-level planning and investment in cybersecurity.
6. What is an Indicator of Compromise (IoC)?
A. A response procedure for security events
B. A legal contract between vendors
C. A forensic artifact or piece of evidence indicating a breach
D. A compliance standard
Answer: C
Explanation: IoCs are artifacts observed in network or system environments that indicate a potential intrusion.
7. What does TTP stand for in threat intelligence?
A. Threats, Tokens, Protocols
B. Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures
C. Technical Training Program
D. Tactical Toolset Protocols
Answer: B
Explanation: TTPs describe how threat actors orchestrate their attacks – their strategy, methods, and implementation.
8. Which source of threat intelligence involves data from the dark web?
A. Internal telemetry
B. Open-source intelligence (OSINT)
C. Commercial feeds
D. Human Intelligence (HUMINT)
Answer: D
Explanation: HUMINT involves human-to-human sources and may include intelligence from underground forums or dark web conversations.
9. A threat actor is gathering domain registrar info. Which intelligence phase does this fall under?
A. Collection
B. Planning
C. Dissemination
D. Feedback
Answer: A
Explanation: Collecting WHOIS data for domains is part of the data collection phase in intelligence gathering.
10. Which of the following is an example of tactical threat intelligence?
A. A report on global threat actor trends
B. An alert with an IP address of a known botnet
C. Budget projections for security infrastructure
D. Legal compliance documentation
Answer: B
Explanation: Tactical intelligence focuses on the immediate threats and specific indicators like IPs or hashes used in recent attacks.
11. What is the main purpose of threat modeling?
A. Budget forecasting
B. Identifying and prioritizing potential threats
C. Scheduling IT maintenance
D. Generating compliance reports
Answer: B
Explanation: Threat modeling helps identify security threats, assess risks, and prioritize defenses accordingly.
12. What does the MITRE ATT&CK framework provide?
A. Antivirus signatures
B. Guidelines for physical security
C. A matrix of adversary behavior and TTPs
D. Compliance audit tools
Answer: C
Explanation: MITRE ATT&CK offers a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations.
13. Which tool would best help an analyst monitor real-time cyber threats globally?
A. Metasploit
B. Shodan
C. ThreatMap
D. Wireshark
Answer: C
Explanation: ThreatMap-type tools offer live views of cyber-attacks around the world for situational awareness.
14. What’s the difference between internal and external threat intelligence sources?
A. Only internal sources use encryption
B. Internal sources are never useful
C. External sources involve third-party and public information
D. There’s no difference
Answer: C
Explanation: External sources include OSINT, commercial feeds, and partner data, while internal comes from logs and network sensors.
15. What is the most effective way to validate threat intelligence?
A. Compare with competitor data
B. Use public shaming
C. Cross-reference with trusted intelligence feeds
D. Delete all unknown entries
Answer: C
Explanation: Cross-validating against trusted threat intel feeds helps ensure data accuracy and relevance.
16. In the cyber kill chain model, what comes after “Delivery”?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Installation
C. Exploitation
D. Weaponization
Answer: C
Explanation: The kill chain order is: Reconnaissance → Weaponization → Delivery → Exploitation → Installation → C2 → Actions.
17. Which of the following best describes “threat hunting”?
A. Waiting for alerts
B. Passively analyzing logs
C. Proactive search for cyber threats
D. Running antivirus scans
Answer: C
Explanation: Threat hunting is a proactive approach where analysts look for hidden threats within the network before they cause damage.
18. What type of threat actor is motivated by financial gain and uses ransomware?
A. Nation-state
B. Hacktivist
C. Cybercriminal
D. Insider
Answer: C
Explanation: Cybercriminals typically seek monetary gain and often use ransomware or phishing.
19. Which intelligence type would help a CISO align budget priorities?
A. Strategic
B. Operational
C. Tactical
D. Technical
Answer: A
Explanation: Strategic intelligence assists leadership in making long-term cybersecurity decisions and investments.
20. What does STIX stand for in threat intel sharing?
A. Security Token Integration eXchange
B. Structured Threat Information eXpression
C. Secure Threat Intelligence XML
D. Shared Tactics, Indicators, and eXfiltration
Answer: B
Explanation: STIX is a standardized language for sharing threat intelligence in a structured, machine-readable format.
21. TAXII is a protocol designed to do what?
A. Encrypt hard drives
B. Transfer threat intelligence securely
C. Detect insider threats
D. Archive data for compliance
Answer: B
Explanation: TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information) is used for secure and automated threat data exchange.
22. What is an example of technical threat intelligence?
A. Hacker ideology
B. CVE report with vulnerability exploit
C. Strategic policy recommendation
D. Employee satisfaction survey
Answer: B
Explanation: Technical intelligence includes specific technical details like exploits, malware signatures, and CVEs.
23. How do “confidence levels” support threat intelligence?
A. They show analyst bias
B. They indicate how quickly to act
C. They help determine trustworthiness of the data
D. They predict attack vectors
Answer: C
Explanation: Assigning confidence levels to threat intel helps prioritize responses based on how reliable the source or info is.
24. Which of the following is a passive data collection method?
A. Phishing attack
B. Honeypot logging
C. Packet sniffing
D. Exploitation attempt
Answer: C
Explanation: Passive collection doesn’t interfere with target systems; sniffing network traffic is a classic example.
25. The primary aim of operational threat intelligence is to:
A. Guide executive-level decisions
B. Provide long-term investment advice
C. Deliver insights into ongoing campaigns and actor capabilities
D. Replace firewall configurations
Answer: C
Explanation: Operational intelligence bridges the gap between strategic and tactical intel by focusing on threat actor operations and motivations.
26. Which entity is commonly responsible for Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs)?
A. Script kiddies
B. Hacktivists
C. Nation-state actors
D. Insiders only
Answer: C
Explanation: APTs are sophisticated, stealthy, and long-term attacks often orchestrated by nation-state actors.
27. The “Diamond Model” of intrusion analysis includes which core feature?
A. Phases of malware behavior
B. Four elements: Adversary, Capability, Infrastructure, Victim
C. Seven-layer OSI model
D. Pyramid of Pain
Answer: B
Explanation: The Diamond Model offers a structured way to understand threats using four interconnected components.
28. What role does feedback play in the threat intelligence lifecycle?
A. It is optional
B. It refines future intelligence requirements
C. It creates encryption keys
D. It ends the process permanently
Answer: B
Explanation: Feedback from intelligence consumers informs improvements to future collection and analysis efforts.
29. Why is context crucial in threat intelligence analysis?
A. To confuse attackers
B. To increase storage efficiency
C. To accurately assess the threat’s relevance
D. To anonymize the threat actor
Answer: C
Explanation: Without context, raw data cannot be effectively used to guide decisions or actions.
30. A cyber analyst collects indicators from phishing emails. What intelligence level is this?
A. Strategic
B. Technical
C. Operational
D. Tactical
Answer: D
Explanation: Tactical intelligence includes frontline data such as phishing email headers, sender domains, and IPs.
31. What is the primary role of a Threat Intelligence Lifecycle?
A. To define antivirus software configurations
B. To establish a structured approach for collecting and refining threat data
C. To schedule employee security awareness training
D. To patch outdated systems
Answer: B. To establish a structured approach for collecting and refining threat data
Explanation: The Threat Intelligence Lifecycle ensures threat data is collected, processed, analyzed, and disseminated systematically. It includes six phases: direction, collection, processing, analysis, dissemination, and feedback.
32. In the context of CTI, what is a “false positive”?
A. A valid indicator confirmed by external sources
B. A malicious event not detected by monitoring tools
C. A benign event incorrectly flagged as malicious
D. A vulnerability confirmed by a penetration test
Answer: C. A benign event incorrectly flagged as malicious
Explanation: A false positive occurs when a security tool mistakenly identifies harmless activity as a threat, potentially wasting resources and causing alert fatigue.
33. Which intelligence type focuses on long-term threat trends and geopolitical considerations?
A. Tactical intelligence
B. Operational intelligence
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Technical intelligence
Answer: C. Strategic intelligence
Explanation: Strategic intelligence provides high-level insights that assist executives and decision-makers in formulating long-term security strategies and risk management policies.
34. What is a “pivoting” technique in threat hunting?
A. Moving laterally within a compromised network
B. Rewriting malware binaries
C. Generating hash collisions
D. Spoofing IP addresses to evade detection
Answer: A. Moving laterally within a compromised network
Explanation: Pivoting allows attackers or defenders to move from one compromised system to others in the network by leveraging existing credentials or connections.
35. What is the most valuable benefit of consuming commercial threat intelligence feeds over open-source feeds?
A. Lower cost
B. Guaranteed zero-day coverage
C. Higher data validation and enrichment
D. Automatic firewall patching
Answer: C. Higher data validation and enrichment
Explanation: Commercial feeds are often curated and validated by expert analysts, offering enriched, accurate, and timely data compared to free open-source feeds.
36. What is the function of the “Processing” phase in the Threat Intelligence Lifecycle?
A. Organizing and filtering raw threat data
B. Launching incident response plans
C. Writing executive security reports
D. Correlating threat data with known malware signatures
Answer: A. Organizing and filtering raw threat data
Explanation: The processing phase involves converting unstructured raw threat data into structured and usable formats suitable for analysis.
37. What is an advantage of Structured Threat Information eXpression (STIX)?
A. It encrypts threat data at rest
B. It provides a universal method to describe threat intelligence in machine-readable format
C. It accelerates malware reverse engineering
D. It prevents insider threats
Answer: B. It provides a universal method to describe threat intelligence in machine-readable format
Explanation: STIX standardizes the representation of threat information, enabling automated sharing and analysis among different systems.
38. Which of the following is a key challenge in threat intelligence analysis?
A. Lack of cloud computing
B. Overdependence on antivirus
C. High volume of unstructured and irrelevant data
D. Absence of legal compliance frameworks
Answer: C. High volume of unstructured and irrelevant data
Explanation: Threat intelligence analysts often face information overload from various sources, requiring careful filtering and validation to extract actionable insights.
39. What does “confidence score” in threat intelligence signify?
A. The likelihood that a threat actor will attack again
B. The reliability and accuracy of the threat data
C. The reputation score of a user account
D. The encryption level of a data packet
Answer: B. The reliability and accuracy of the threat data
Explanation: A confidence score measures how trustworthy or credible a given threat indicator or feed is, helping analysts prioritize their attention.
40. Which method is commonly used to collect dark web threat intelligence?
A. Passive DNS logging
B. Crawler bots and forum scraping
C. WHOIS lookups
D. Honeypot deployment
Answer: B. Crawler bots and forum scraping
Explanation: Collecting intelligence from the dark web often involves using automated crawlers to scrape underground forums, marketplaces, and paste sites for leaked data or threat actor discussions.
41. What type of intelligence would be most useful for predicting future cyberattacks?
A. Real-time alerts
B. Trend and pattern analysis
C. IOC feeds
D. Penetration test results
Answer: B. Trend and pattern analysis
Explanation: Predictive intelligence uses historical data, threat trends, and pattern analysis to anticipate future attack vectors and threat actor behavior.
42. Which organization manages the MITRE ATT&CK framework?
A. EC-Council
B. ISACA
C. MITRE Corporation
D. CERT-IN
Answer: C. MITRE Corporation
Explanation: The MITRE Corporation develops and maintains the ATT&CK framework, which categorizes adversary behavior for defensive planning and threat analysis.
43. Which of the following best describes a zero-day vulnerability?
A. A vulnerability that has been patched but remains unexploited
B. A vulnerability that is known and exploited after 30 days
C. A previously unknown flaw exploited before a fix is available
D. A flaw that only affects internal applications
Answer: C. A previously unknown flaw exploited before a fix is available
Explanation: Zero-day vulnerabilities are dangerous because they are exploited before vendors have the opportunity to develop patches, leaving systems exposed.
44. How does threat intelligence aid in incident response?
A. It delays response until full forensics are available
B. It prevents phishing attacks completely
C. It enables faster and more accurate identification of threats
D. It eliminates the need for firewall rules
Answer: C. It enables faster and more accurate identification of threats
Explanation: Threat intelligence gives incident response teams the context and indicators needed to recognize and address threats quickly, minimizing damage.
45. Which tool is commonly used for correlating threat data and security events in a centralized environment?
A. Burp Suite
B. Nmap
C. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
D. Wireshark
Answer: C. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
Explanation: SIEM platforms aggregate and correlate logs and events from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents using integrated threat intelligence.
46. What is the purpose of the Diamond Model in threat intelligence?
A. To describe the lifecycle of malware
B. To measure the severity of cybersecurity incidents
C. To establish relationships among adversaries, capabilities, infrastructure, and victims
D. To rank threat actors by sophistication
Answer: C. To establish relationships among adversaries, capabilities, infrastructure, and victims
Explanation: The Diamond Model helps analysts understand and visualize cyber intrusions by mapping four key features: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. It provides context and reveals attacker patterns.
47. Which component of the ATT&CK framework represents the goals attackers try to achieve?
A. Tactics
B. Techniques
C. Procedures
D. Controls
Answer: A. Tactics
Explanation: Tactics are the adversary’s strategic objectives or goals, such as privilege escalation or lateral movement, in the MITRE ATT&CK framework.
48. What is the primary benefit of Indicator of Compromise (IOC) correlation?
A. Reducing compliance risk
B. Identifying zero-day exploits
C. Detecting advanced persistent threats across systems
D. Generating malware automatically
Answer: C. Detecting advanced persistent threats across systems
Explanation: IOC correlation helps identify patterns of compromise across systems, revealing ongoing or coordinated attacks like APTs by linking various threat indicators.
49. Which of the following best describes “Threat Attribution”?
A. Assigning a score to malware samples
B. Identifying the firewall rule causing a block
C. Determining the actor or group behind a cyberattack
D. Calculating risk likelihood based on threat vectors
Answer: C. Determining the actor or group behind a cyberattack
Explanation: Threat attribution aims to identify the people, group, or nation-state responsible for a cyberattack, using evidence from TTPs, infrastructure, and metadata.
50. In cyber threat intelligence, which phase involves setting objectives and defining the required information?
A. Collection
B. Analysis
C. Direction
D. Dissemination
Answer: C. Direction
Explanation: The direction phase defines intelligence goals, collection priorities, and resource planning to ensure the intelligence efforts align with organizational needs.
51. Which of the following is an example of tactical threat intelligence?
A. Executive-level reports on geopolitical risks
B. Daily malware signature updates for endpoints
C. Weekly newsletters on threat trends
D. Strategic risk forecasts
Answer: B. Daily malware signature updates for endpoints
Explanation: Tactical intelligence is technical, short-term information like IOCs, TTPs, and malware hashes that supports operational security controls directly.
52. What is the primary objective of a Threat Intelligence Platform (TIP)?
A. To launch exploits in real-time
B. To block DDoS attacks
C. To automate threat data ingestion, enrichment, and distribution
D. To generate phishing templates
Answer: C. To automate threat data ingestion, enrichment, and distribution
Explanation: A TIP centralizes, normalizes, and enriches threat intelligence from multiple sources, facilitating faster analysis, integration with security tools, and distribution.
53. What is a “TTP” in the context of cyber threat intelligence?
A. Technical Threat Parameters
B. Threat Token Parameters
C. Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures
D. Transport Termination Protocol
Answer: C. Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures
Explanation: TTPs describe how adversaries operate: their strategies (tactics), methods (techniques), and specific steps (procedures) used in attacks.
54. Which is the best method for validating threat intelligence before acting on it?
A. Forwarding to a firewall automatically
B. Comparing with known intelligence sources and internal telemetry
C. Uploading to social media groups for discussion
D. Using it without verification to act quickly
Answer: B. Comparing with known intelligence sources and internal telemetry
Explanation: Validation ensures that threat intelligence is accurate and relevant. Comparing with known indicators and telemetry helps reduce false positives.
55. What role does a honeypot serve in threat intelligence gathering?
A. It blocks all external threats from entering the network
B. It encrypts network traffic end-to-end
C. It attracts attackers and collects data about their behavior
D. It filters spam emails
Answer: C. It attracts attackers and collects data about their behavior
Explanation: Honeypots are decoy systems designed to lure attackers and monitor their activities, helping analysts understand attack vectors and tools.
56. Which one is a human-driven threat intelligence source?
A. Domain blacklists
B. Malware hash feeds
C. Analyst-curated reports
D. Vulnerability scanners
Answer: C. Analyst-curated reports
Explanation: Human analysts interpret data, contextualize information, and generate high-value insights that automated systems often miss.
57. What is the Cyber Kill Chain framework primarily used for?
A. User access control
B. Mapping software development cycles
C. Understanding the stages of a cyberattack
D. Encrypting data in transmission
Answer: C. Understanding the stages of a cyberattack
Explanation: The Cyber Kill Chain helps identify, prevent, and respond to threats by outlining the steps an adversary takes, from reconnaissance to actions on objectives.
58. Which tool is commonly used to share threat intelligence in a standardized format?
A. TLS
B. Wireshark
C. TAXII
D. NMAP
Answer: C. TAXII
Explanation: TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information) is a protocol that facilitates sharing of cyber threat intelligence in STIX format between systems.
59. In intelligence sharing, what is the purpose of Traffic Light Protocol (TLP)?
A. Encrypt shared threat data
B. Classify the trustworthiness of threat feeds
C. Indicate the sensitivity and sharing level of information
D. Prioritize incident response tasks
Answer: C. Indicate the sensitivity and sharing level of information
Explanation: TLP is a classification system (TLP:RED, AMBER, GREEN, WHITE) used to manage how information is shared based on sensitivity and trust.
60. What defines “Operational Threat Intelligence”?
A. Non-technical summaries used by executives
B. Network firewall rule documentation
C. Real-time, actionable intelligence about ongoing threats
D. Training content for security teams
Answer: C. Real-time, actionable intelligence about ongoing threats
Explanation: Operational intelligence delivers context-rich, immediate data on active threats, such as campaigns, attack vectors, and actor motivations, to guide incident response teams.
