CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Practice Test
Preparing for the CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 (220-1101) is your essential step toward launching a successful IT career. This globally recognized certification validates your foundational skills in hardware, networking, mobile devices, and troubleshooting — critical for any IT support professional.
What Is the CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification?
The CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam is one of two required tests for the full CompTIA A+ credential, focusing on hardware, networking technology, mobile devices, and cloud computing fundamentals. It assesses your ability to install, configure, and troubleshoot a wide range of devices and technologies found in today’s IT environments.
What Will You Learn?
By preparing with our comprehensive practice test, you will gain hands-on knowledge in:
PC hardware and peripherals
Networking concepts and protocols
Mobile device hardware and management
Troubleshooting hardware and network issues
Understanding and implementing virtualization and cloud computing basics
Our detailed questions and explanations help you grasp core concepts and improve your problem-solving skills, making you confident for the actual exam day.
Why Choose Exam Sage for Your CompTIA A+ Core 1 Preparation?
At Exam Sage, we specialize in delivering top-quality practice exams tailored to your certification goals. Our CompTIA A+ Core 1 practice test features:
Up-to-date multiple-choice questions aligned with the latest exam objectives
Clear, detailed explanations for every answer to deepen your understanding
A user-friendly interface for effective practice and review
Designed to boost your confidence and reduce exam anxiety
Exam Sage is trusted by thousands of IT professionals worldwide for high-quality, reliable exam preparation materials that lead to success.
Start your journey to becoming a certified IT technician today with Exam Sage’s CompTIA A+ Core 1 practice exam — the smartest way to prepare and pass!
Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following types of connectors is used to power a SATA hard drive?
A) Molex
B) SATA power
C) PCIe
D) 4-pin ATX
Answer: B) SATA power
Explanation:
SATA power connectors are flat, 15-pin connectors designed to supply power to SATA devices like hard drives and SSDs. They replaced older Molex connectors and offer improved efficiency and compatibility with newer components. SATA power can provide 3.3V, 5V, and 12V outputs to meet device requirements.
2. A technician needs to replace a laptop screen. What component is most likely to be replaced alongside the screen?
A) CPU
B) Inverter
C) RAM
D) Hard Drive
Answer: B) Inverter
Explanation:
In older laptops with CCFL screens, the inverter powers the backlight. If the screen is replaced, the inverter may also need replacing, especially if it’s malfunctioning. Newer LED screens don’t use inverters, but on older models, it’s a common companion part during screen repairs.
3. Which wireless standard operates only on the 5 GHz band and supports up to 3.5 Gbps speeds?
A) 802.11n
B) 802.11g
C) 802.11ac
D) 802.11b
Answer: C) 802.11ac
Explanation:
802.11ac operates exclusively on the 5 GHz band and can support theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps, thanks to its wider channels and advanced modulation. It’s designed for high-throughput environments like streaming and large file transfers, making it faster than previous Wi-Fi generations.
4. What component is primarily responsible for performing arithmetic and logic operations in a computer?
A) GPU
B) RAM
C) CPU
D) SSD
Answer: C) CPU
Explanation:
The CPU (Central Processing Unit) is the “brain” of the computer and performs all arithmetic and logic operations. It processes instructions from programs and manages tasks by executing computations, which are critical for system functionality and performance.
5. You’re setting up a computer with multiple operating systems. What should you configure to allow a user to choose which OS to boot?
A) BIOS
B) Boot manager
C) Virtual machine
D) Hypervisor
Answer: B) Boot manager
Explanation:
A boot manager enables the selection between multiple operating systems during system startup. It displays a boot menu that allows the user to pick an OS. Tools like GRUB or Windows Boot Manager are common solutions for multi-boot configurations.
6. Which type of printer uses a heated printhead and ribbon to transfer wax-based ink to paper?
A) Inkjet
B) Laser
C) Impact
D) Thermal transfer
Answer: D) Thermal transfer
Explanation:
Thermal transfer printers use heat to melt wax-based ink from a ribbon onto the printing surface. These printers are known for durability and are used for barcodes, labels, and receipts. They differ from direct thermal printers, which use heat-sensitive paper.
7. A user complains that their laptop is overheating. What is the FIRST step a technician should take?
A) Replace the CPU
B) Install a new fan
C) Check for dust and debris in the vents
D) Reinstall the operating system
Answer: C) Check for dust and debris in the vents
Explanation:
Overheating is often caused by dust accumulation in vents, blocking airflow. Cleaning the vents and fans is the most effective and non-invasive first step to restore proper cooling. Only if this doesn’t resolve the issue should hardware be replaced.
8. Which type of storage media is most commonly found in smartphones?
A) SSD
B) NVMe
C) HDD
D) eMMC
Answer: D) eMMC
Explanation:
Smartphones typically use embedded MultiMediaCard (eMMC) storage due to its compact size and cost-effectiveness. Though slower than SSDs or NVMe, eMMC is adequate for mobile devices where size and power consumption matter more than high speed.
9. What type of memory is non-volatile and used to store firmware on a motherboard?
A) SRAM
B) DRAM
C) ROM
D) Cache
Answer: C) ROM
Explanation:
ROM (Read-Only Memory) stores firmware such as the BIOS/UEFI. It’s non-volatile, meaning it retains its data without power. Unlike RAM, ROM is not meant for frequent updates and is essential for hardware initialization during system boot.
10. Which RAID configuration offers both redundancy and performance by combining mirroring and striping?
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) RAID 10
Answer: D) RAID 10
Explanation:
RAID 10 (or 1+0) combines the benefits of RAID 1 and RAID 0 by mirroring data across pairs of drives and then striping across those mirrors. It provides fault tolerance and increased performance but requires at least four drives.
11. Which of the following devices is used to convert digital signals into analog signals for use with older monitors?
A) HDMI switch
B) VGA adapter
C) DisplayPort splitter
D) USB hub
Answer: B) VGA adapter
Explanation:
A VGA adapter converts digital video output (like HDMI or DisplayPort) into analog signals compatible with older VGA monitors. It’s essential for maintaining compatibility with legacy displays that lack digital input ports, ensuring continued usability of older hardware.
12. A technician is replacing a power supply. Which component must match the new PSU’s wattage rating to avoid underpowering the system?
A) CPU
B) GPU
C) Motherboard
D) Total system load
Answer: D) Total system load
Explanation:
The power supply unit must meet or exceed the total wattage requirements of the system components combined, including the CPU, GPU, drives, and peripherals. Underpowering can cause crashes or hardware damage, so matching or exceeding the system load is critical.
13. What tool is best suited for testing the voltage of a power outlet?
A) Crimper
B) Loopback plug
C) Multimeter
D) Cable tester
Answer: C) Multimeter
Explanation:
A multimeter measures voltage, current, and resistance. It’s the best tool for checking if a power outlet delivers the correct voltage, helping diagnose power supply issues or electrical faults before plugging in sensitive electronics.
14. Which of the following types of displays typically uses backlighting and liquid crystals to produce images?
A) CRT
B) LED
C) LCD
D) OLED
Answer: C) LCD
Explanation:
LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) technology uses a backlight (often LED-based) and liquid crystals to produce images. LCDs are widely used due to their thin profile, energy efficiency, and affordability compared to older CRT and newer OLED displays.
15. What does a POST card test during computer startup?
A) Hard drive speed
B) Power supply voltage
C) BIOS firmware version
D) Hardware initialization
Answer: D) Hardware initialization
Explanation:
A POST (Power-On Self-Test) card plugs into expansion slots to monitor the POST process. It helps diagnose boot issues by displaying codes that correspond to hardware initialization stages, like memory checks and CPU detection, making it valuable for troubleshooting.
16. Which port should be used to connect the latest external storage devices for the highest transfer speeds?
A) USB 2.0
B) USB 3.2 Gen 2
C) FireWire
D) eSATA
Answer: B) USB 3.2 Gen 2
Explanation:
USB 3.2 Gen 2 supports transfer speeds up to 10 Gbps, significantly faster than USB 2.0 and even FireWire or eSATA. It’s the optimal choice for modern high-speed external storage like SSDs and large-capacity backup drives.
17. What is the maximum cable length for a USB 2.0 device to function reliably without a hub?
A) 2 meters
B) 3 meters
C) 5 meters
D) 10 meters
Answer: C) 5 meters
Explanation:
USB 2.0 supports reliable data transmission up to 5 meters (about 16.4 feet) without using a repeater or powered hub. Beyond this length, signal degradation can occur, potentially causing communication errors or device malfunction.
18. What is the purpose of thermal paste in a computer?
A) Insulates the CPU
B) Enhances GPU speed
C) Prevents short circuits
D) Improves heat transfer
Answer: D) Improves heat transfer
Explanation:
Thermal paste fills microscopic gaps between the CPU and the heatsink, allowing better thermal conductivity. This ensures efficient heat transfer from the processor to the cooling system, helping maintain safe operating temperatures and system stability.
19. Which expansion card would be most useful in a system used for high-end 3D modeling?
A) TV tuner
B) RAID controller
C) Network card
D) Graphics card
Answer: D) Graphics card
Explanation:
High-end 3D modeling requires powerful GPUs to render complex textures and perform real-time calculations. A dedicated graphics card significantly improves rendering performance and graphical processing, making it essential for modeling, animation, and gaming.
20. What is the most secure method of disposing of a magnetic hard drive?
A) Deleting all files
B) Quick format
C) Degaussing
D) Disk compression
Answer: C) Degaussing
Explanation:
Degaussing involves using a strong magnetic field to disrupt the magnetic domains on a hard drive, rendering the data irrecoverable. It’s a secure method for permanently destroying sensitive data and ensuring it can’t be recovered by forensic tools.
21. Which of the following best describes the function of a power inverter in a laptop?
A) Converts DC to AC for screen backlighting
B) Converts AC to DC for battery charging
C) Provides Wi-Fi signal
D) Controls processor speed
Answer: A) Converts DC to AC for screen backlighting
Explanation:
In older laptops with CCFL screens, the power inverter converts the DC power from the battery into AC power to light the fluorescent backlight. LED screens no longer need inverters, but they were crucial in older display tech.
22. What feature of SSDs makes them more durable than HDDs in mobile devices?
A) Larger capacity
B) Spinning platters
C) No moving parts
D) Magnetic storage
Answer: C) No moving parts
Explanation:
SSDs (Solid State Drives) have no moving parts, making them resistant to shock and vibration—ideal for mobile devices. Unlike HDDs, which have spinning platters and read/write heads, SSDs use flash memory, offering better durability and reliability.
23. What type of IP address is assigned manually and does not change automatically?
A) Dynamic
B) Private
C) Static
D) Public
Answer: C) Static
Explanation:
A static IP address is configured manually and remains constant until manually changed. It’s useful for servers, printers, and devices that need consistent network identification. Unlike dynamic IPs, static addresses do not change with each network connection.
24. A user needs to connect a laptop to a wired Ethernet network. What port should they use?
A) HDMI
B) USB
C) RJ-45
D) RJ-11
Answer: C) RJ-45
Explanation:
The RJ-45 port is used to connect Ethernet cables, allowing wired network connectivity. It supports high-speed data transmission and is standard on most laptops and desktops for local network and internet access.
25. Which protocol is used to securely manage network devices over an encrypted connection?
A) FTP
B) SNMP
C) SSH
D) Telnet
Answer: C) SSH
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell) allows encrypted remote access to network devices, ensuring secure management and configuration. It replaces insecure protocols like Telnet, protecting login credentials and command traffic from interception or tampering.
26. What is the purpose of BIOS/UEFI in a computer system?
A) Store user data
B) Handle email communication
C) Manage print jobs
D) Initialize hardware and load the OS
Answer: D) Initialize hardware and load the OS
Explanation:
BIOS or UEFI initializes hardware components like CPU, RAM, and drives during the boot process. It also loads the operating system from storage into memory, serving as the bridge between firmware and software at startup.
27. A customer wants the most portable device for light web browsing and email. What is the best recommendation?
A) Gaming desktop
B) Tower PC
C) Chromebook
D) Server
Answer: C) Chromebook
Explanation:
A Chromebook is a lightweight, cost-effective, and portable device ideal for browsing, streaming, and using web apps. It’s optimized for online use with minimal local storage needs, making it ideal for casual users on the go.
28. A user complains of poor wireless signal in a specific room. What’s the best solution?
A) Use a longer Ethernet cable
B) Disable the firewall
C) Install a Wi-Fi extender
D) Replace the ISP
Answer: C) Install a Wi-Fi extender
Explanation:
A Wi-Fi extender boosts the signal into weak coverage areas by repeating it from the main router. It’s a quick, affordable solution for extending wireless coverage in homes or offices without additional network infrastructure.
29. What color coding is typically used for USB 3.x Type-A ports?
A) White
B) Black
C) Blue
D) Green
Answer: C) Blue
Explanation:
USB 3.x Type-A ports are commonly color-coded blue to distinguish them from USB 2.0 (black or white). This visual cue helps users identify high-speed ports capable of supporting faster data transfer rates for compatible devices.
30. A technician needs to prevent ESD while working inside a PC. Which tool should they use?
A) Rubber gloves
B) Antistatic wrist strap
C) Multimeter
D) Insulated screwdriver
Answer: B) Antistatic wrist strap
Explanation:
An antistatic wrist strap safely grounds a technician to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD) from damaging sensitive components like RAM or CPUs. It’s an essential safety tool for anyone working inside electronic devices.
31. Which component is responsible for providing power to the motherboard, drives, and peripherals?
A) CPU
B) PSU
C) Northbridge
D) Heat sink
Answer: B) PSU
Explanation:
The Power Supply Unit (PSU) converts electricity from a wall outlet into usable DC voltage for internal components. It distributes power to the motherboard, storage devices, CPU, and other peripherals, making it essential for system operation and stability.
32. Which connector is commonly used to supply power to a hard drive or optical drive?
A) SATA power
B) Molex
C) USB
D) PCIe
Answer: A) SATA power
Explanation:
SATA power connectors are specifically designed to supply power to SATA-based devices such as hard drives and optical drives. These connectors provide 3.3V, 5V, and 12V rails and are slimmer than the older 4-pin Molex connectors.
33. Which type of expansion slot offers the fastest data throughput for modern GPUs?
A) PCI
B) PCIe x1
C) AGP
D) PCIe x16
Answer: D) PCIe x16
Explanation:
PCIe x16 slots provide the highest bandwidth and throughput required for modern graphics cards. They are the standard slot for discrete GPUs, enabling high-speed data transfer critical for gaming, rendering, and high-performance computing.
34. What type of storage device uses NAND flash memory and no moving parts?
A) SSD
B) HDD
C) Tape drive
D) Blu-ray disc
Answer: A) SSD
Explanation:
Solid State Drives (SSDs) use NAND flash memory for data storage. With no moving parts, they offer faster boot times, lower latency, and improved durability compared to traditional hard disk drives (HDDs), making them ideal for modern computing.
35. A user reports their laptop screen appears very dim, even after adjusting brightness. What is the most likely cause?
A) Faulty GPU
B) Corrupted OS
C) Failing backlight
D) Overheating CPU
Answer: C) Failing backlight
Explanation:
If the screen remains dim regardless of brightness settings, a failed or failing backlight (in older CCFL screens) or backlight driver (in newer LED screens) is the likely cause. Replacing the screen or backlight component typically resolves the issue.
36. Which type of memory is used to temporarily store data that the CPU actively processes?
A) HDD
B) SSD
C) RAM
D) BIOS
Answer: C) RAM
Explanation:
Random Access Memory (RAM) stores active processes and data for quick access by the CPU. It’s volatile memory, meaning it loses data when power is off. Sufficient RAM improves system performance, particularly in multitasking and application speed.
37. What type of connector is typically used for modern laptop power adapters?
A) RJ-45
B) Thunderbolt
C) Barrel connector
D) Molex
Answer: C) Barrel connector
Explanation:
Most laptop chargers use a barrel connector to deliver DC power. Though USB-C is increasingly common in newer models, barrel connectors are still widely used and identifiable by their cylindrical shape and center pin for voltage transfer.
38. Which network cable type provides the best shielding from electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
A) UTP
B) STP
C) Coaxial
D) Fiber optic
Answer: D) Fiber optic
Explanation:
Fiber optic cables transmit data using light instead of electrical signals, making them immune to EMI. They’re ideal for high-speed, long-distance communication and are commonly used in backbone networks and environments with high electrical interference.
39. Which of the following features is available in UEFI but not in traditional BIOS?
A) System clock settings
B) Drive detection
C) Secure Boot
D) Boot priority
Answer: C) Secure Boot
Explanation:
Secure Boot is a UEFI feature that ensures only trusted, signed operating systems can boot on the machine. It enhances system security by preventing unauthorized or malicious OS loads, a capability not available in legacy BIOS systems.
40. Which device would best expand a single RJ-45 Ethernet port into multiple usable network connections?
A) Repeater
B) Switch
C) Router
D) Bridge
Answer: B) Switch
Explanation:
A switch allows multiple devices to connect to a network using Ethernet cables, efficiently managing data traffic between them. It’s ideal for expanding a single port into multiple, independent network paths without collisions or broadcast issues.
41. Which of the following is considered a hot-swappable device?
A) RAM
B) SATA drive
C) CPU
D) GPU
Answer: B) SATA drive
Explanation:
SATA drives are hot-swappable, meaning they can be safely removed or replaced while the computer is on—if the OS supports it. This feature is especially useful in RAID configurations and server environments where uptime is critical.
42. What is the main benefit of using an M.2 NVMe SSD over a traditional SATA SSD?
A) Larger storage capacity
B) Lower cost
C) Faster data transfer speeds
D) Better compatibility with all motherboards
Answer: C) Faster data transfer speeds
Explanation:
M.2 NVMe SSDs use the PCIe interface, offering much faster data transfer speeds than SATA SSDs. This results in quicker boot times, file transfers, and application loads, making NVMe drives ideal for performance-focused systems.
43. Which wireless standard supports speeds up to 9.6 Gbps and operates on the 6 GHz band?
A) 802.11n
B) 802.11ac
C) 802.11ax
D) 802.11g
Answer: C) 802.11ax
Explanation:
Also known as Wi-Fi 6 and Wi-Fi 6E (when using the 6 GHz band), 802.11ax delivers high throughput, reduced latency, and improved performance in crowded environments. It supports speeds up to 9.6 Gbps across 2.4, 5, and 6 GHz bands.
44. What does DHCP assign to devices on a network?
A) Hostnames
B) DNS records
C) IP addresses
D) MAC addresses
Answer: C) IP addresses
Explanation:
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration settings to devices on a network. This simplifies network management and prevents address conflicts that can occur with static addressing.
45. Which display technology offers the best color accuracy and viewing angles?
A) LED
B) TN
C) OLED
D) LCD
Answer: C) OLED
Explanation:
OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode) displays offer superior contrast, color accuracy, and viewing angles because each pixel emits its own light. This technology allows for deeper blacks and more vibrant colors, making OLED ideal for high-end displays.
46. What is the most common reason for a laptop keyboard to stop functioning properly?
A) GPU failure
B) Damaged cable or connector
C) BIOS settings
D) Display error
Answer: B) Damaged cable or connector
Explanation:
Laptop keyboards connect to the motherboard via a ribbon cable. Over time or with rough handling, this cable can become loose or damaged. Reseating or replacing the cable often resolves unresponsive keyboard issues.
47. A customer wants to mirror their smartphone screen to a smart TV. Which technology is most appropriate?
A) NFC
B) Bluetooth
C) Miracast
D) LTE
Answer: C) Miracast
Explanation:
Miracast enables wireless screen mirroring from compatible devices like smartphones to TVs. It uses Wi-Fi Direct to stream content without requiring a network connection, making it ideal for presentations and media sharing.
48. What is the typical voltage of a laptop battery?
A) 3.3V
B) 5V
C) 11.1V
D) 220V
Answer: C) 11.1V
Explanation:
Most lithium-ion laptop batteries are configured in a 3-cell or 6-cell setup, with each cell producing around 3.7V. Combined, these cells typically produce 11.1V, which is standard for portable computing devices.
49. Which mobile connection technology allows the highest global compatibility for cellular service?
A) CDMA
B) GSM
C) LTE
D) EDGE
Answer: B) GSM
Explanation:
GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) is widely used across the world, making it the most compatible mobile standard. Devices using GSM can typically be used with SIM cards in different countries, supporting international roaming.
50. Which connector type is used for external high-speed data connections and supports daisy-chaining?
A) HDMI
B) DisplayPort
C) Thunderbolt
D) VGA
Answer: C) Thunderbolt
Explanation:
Thunderbolt supports high-speed data transfer, video output, and power delivery. Thunderbolt 3 and 4 use the USB-C connector and allow daisy-chaining of multiple devices like displays and storage units with minimal latency and maximum convenience.
51. What is the primary function of a UPS in a computing environment?
A) Boost network speed
B) Increase processing power
C) Provide backup power
D) Filter data packets
Answer: C) Provide backup power
Explanation:
An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) provides temporary power to devices during a power outage. It protects systems from sudden shutdowns, allowing safe shutdown or continued operation for a short time. Many UPS units also include surge protection and voltage regulation.
52. Which component is most likely to fail due to overheating in a desktop PC?
A) RAM
B) SSD
C) CPU
D) Power button
Answer: C) CPU
Explanation:
The CPU generates significant heat during operation. Without adequate cooling—via fans, heatsinks, or liquid cooling—excessive heat can cause thermal throttling or permanent damage. Monitoring temperatures and maintaining clean airflow paths is essential to prevent overheating.
53. A user installs a new GPU but receives no video output. What is the most likely cause?
A) Defective hard drive
B) Unplugged keyboard
C) Onboard video not disabled
D) Insufficient power supply
Answer: D) Insufficient power supply
Explanation:
Modern GPUs require substantial power. If the power supply lacks sufficient wattage or lacks the necessary PCIe connectors, the GPU won’t function, resulting in no display. Upgrading to a higher-wattage PSU can often resolve this issue.
54. Which storage technology uses spinning magnetic platters to store data?
A) SSD
B) HDD
C) NVMe
D) RAM
Answer: B) HDD
Explanation:
Hard Disk Drives (HDDs) store data magnetically on spinning platters. A read/write head moves over the surface to access data. While slower than SSDs, HDDs offer large storage capacity at a lower cost per gigabyte.
55. What is the function of thermal paste between a CPU and heatsink?
A) Prevent electrical shorts
B) Improve cooling efficiency
C) Secure the CPU
D) Enhance clock speed
Answer: B) Improve cooling efficiency
Explanation:
Thermal paste fills microscopic air gaps between the CPU surface and the heatsink, improving heat transfer. It ensures efficient cooling by allowing the heatsink to dissipate heat effectively, preventing CPU overheating and system instability.
56. What is the purpose of a POST card in troubleshooting?
A) Extends USB ports
B) Monitors fan speeds
C) Displays BIOS error codes
D) Upgrades system RAM
Answer: C) Displays BIOS error codes
Explanation:
A POST (Power-On Self-Test) card plugs into expansion slots to display error codes generated during system boot. These codes help technicians identify hardware issues like faulty RAM, motherboard errors, or CPU problems when the system fails to boot.
57. Which of the following is an advantage of a modular power supply?
A) Automatically adjusts voltage
B) Better compatibility with GPUs
C) Easier cable management
D) Lower wattage output
Answer: C) Easier cable management
Explanation:
Modular power supplies allow users to attach only the cables needed for their setup, reducing clutter and improving airflow. This makes installation neater, improves cooling, and simplifies troubleshooting and future upgrades.
58. Which connector is most likely used to power a CPU?
A) 24-pin ATX
B) SATA
C) 4/8-pin EPS
D) PCIe
Answer: C) 4/8-pin EPS
Explanation:
The 4/8-pin EPS connector supplies dedicated power to the CPU. It connects directly to the motherboard near the processor socket and is essential for stable CPU operation, especially in multi-core or high-performance systems.
59. Which of the following display types consumes the least power?
A) CRT
B) LCD
C) LED
D) Plasma
Answer: C) LED
Explanation:
LED displays are energy-efficient because they use light-emitting diodes for backlighting instead of cold cathode tubes. They consume less power than LCDs, plasma, or CRTs and are commonly used in laptops, monitors, and TVs.
60. A laptop fails to detect any wireless networks. What should be checked first?
A) Firewall settings
B) Battery health
C) Wireless adapter switch
D) Display settings
Answer: C) Wireless adapter switch
Explanation:
Many laptops have a physical or keyboard-based switch to enable/disable the wireless adapter. If disabled, the device won’t detect Wi-Fi networks. Checking and toggling this switch is a quick and effective first troubleshooting step.
61. Which device translates digital signals into analog for traditional monitors?
A) HDMI adapter
B) VGA splitter
C) DAC
D) RJ-45 connector
Answer: C) DAC
Explanation:
A Digital-to-Analog Converter (DAC) transforms digital output into analog signals. This is essential when connecting modern digital devices to legacy analog displays like VGA monitors that can’t interpret digital video signals directly.
62. Which RAID level offers both redundancy and improved read/write performance?
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) RAID 6
Answer: C) RAID 5
Explanation:
RAID 5 uses striping with distributed parity, providing data redundancy and enhanced performance. If a single drive fails, data can be rebuilt using parity information. It’s popular for balancing performance, cost, and fault tolerance.
63. A technician replaces a failing hard drive with a new SSD. Which installation step is essential before booting?
A) Format using FAT16
B) Install GPU drivers
C) Set SSD as primary boot device
D) Configure RAID
Answer: C) Set SSD as primary boot device
Explanation:
After installing an SSD, the BIOS/UEFI must be configured to boot from it. If the SSD isn’t set as the first boot device, the system may fail to start or boot into the wrong drive, especially if other drives are connected.
64. What’s the primary function of a GPU?
A) Store user data
B) Provide wireless communication
C) Render graphics
D) Control system fans
Answer: C) Render graphics
Explanation:
A Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) is specialized for rendering visual content. It offloads graphics tasks from the CPU, improving performance in gaming, video editing, and 3D modeling by processing complex graphical calculations faster.
65. What connector is typically used for external hard drives with the fastest transfer speeds?
A) USB 2.0
B) USB 3.2
C) eSATA
D) VGA
Answer: B) USB 3.2
Explanation:
USB 3.2 offers data transfer speeds up to 20 Gbps, making it ideal for high-speed external storage. It’s backward compatible and widely supported, allowing rapid file transfers and backup operations for external drives.
66. What is the maximum length for a USB 3.0 cable for optimal performance?
A) 1 meter
B) 3 meters
C) 5 meters
D) 10 meters
Answer: B) 3 meters
Explanation:
For USB 3.0, the recommended maximum cable length is about 3 meters to maintain full data integrity and speed (up to 5 Gbps). Exceeding this may result in signal degradation or communication errors with connected devices.
67. Which connector provides power and data to a SATA SSD or HDD?
A) Molex
B) PCIe
C) USB-C
D) SATA
Answer: D) SATA
Explanation:
SATA connectors include separate cables for data and power, with distinct plugs for each. The SATA data cable links the drive to the motherboard, while the SATA power cable from the PSU delivers the required voltage for operation.
68. What’s a typical symptom of a failing CMOS battery?
A) Loud fan noises
B) BIOS time reset
C) Blue screen on boot
D) USB failure
Answer: B) BIOS time reset
Explanation:
The CMOS battery powers the BIOS/UEFI settings when the system is off. A failing battery causes the system clock to reset and may revert BIOS settings to default, affecting boot sequence or hardware configuration.
69. What type of connector is commonly used for modern monitors supporting 4K and audio?
A) DVI
B) VGA
C) HDMI
D) DB-9
Answer: C) HDMI
Explanation:
HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) supports high-resolution video and audio over a single cable. It’s standard for connecting modern displays, including 4K monitors and TVs, offering better performance than legacy connectors like VGA or DVI.
70. What is the maximum data transfer speed of a Cat 6 Ethernet cable?
A) 100 Mbps
B) 1 Gbps
C) 10 Gbps
D) 40 Gbps
Answer: C) 10 Gbps
Explanation:
Cat 6 cables support data transfer speeds of up to 10 Gbps over distances up to 55 meters. They’re commonly used in modern wired networks, offering faster speeds and better shielding than older Cat 5e cables.
