CompTIA A+ Certification Core 2 (220-1102) Practice Exam
Are you preparing for the CompTIA A+ Certification Core 2 (220-1102) exam? This globally recognized certification validates your expertise in supporting and managing modern operating systems, troubleshooting software issues, and implementing security best practices—critical skills for any IT professional.
What Is the CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Exam?
The Core 2 exam is the second part of the CompTIA A+ certification series, focused on operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures. Passing this exam demonstrates that you have the practical knowledge to install, configure, and troubleshoot Windows, macOS, Linux, and mobile OS environments, as well as protect devices from security threats and perform effective maintenance.
What You Will Learn with This Practice Exam
Our comprehensive practice test covers all essential Core 2 exam objectives to help you build confidence and improve your skills, including:
Operating System Installation and Configuration: Windows, macOS, Linux, Android, iOS
Security Fundamentals: Identifying and mitigating malware, securing devices and networks
Software Troubleshooting: Diagnosing and resolving OS, application, and connectivity issues
Operational Procedures: Best practices for safety, communication, and professionalism in IT environments
Why Choose Exam Sage for Your CompTIA A+ Exam Preparation?
Exam Sage offers carefully crafted, up-to-date practice questions that mimic the real exam format and difficulty. Each question includes detailed explanations to reinforce your understanding and identify knowledge gaps. With Exam Sage, you can:
Practice anywhere, anytime with user-friendly online access
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Prepare effectively and increase your chances of passing the CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam on your first try with Exam Sage — your reliable partner in IT certification success.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following Windows features allows you to restore your system to a previous state without affecting personal files?
A) Disk Cleanup
B) System Restore
C) Safe Mode
D) File History
Answer: B) System Restore
Explanation: System Restore creates restore points to revert system files and settings to an earlier point without affecting personal data.
2. What is the primary purpose of Windows BitLocker?
A) Encrypt files on a per-user basis
B) Encrypt the entire hard drive to protect data
C) Defragment the hard drive
D) Backup data to the cloud
Answer: B) Encrypt the entire hard drive to protect data
Explanation: BitLocker encrypts the entire drive to prevent unauthorized access in case of theft or loss.
3. Which command-line tool can be used to repair corrupted Windows system files?
A) chkdsk
B) sfc
C) ipconfig
D) diskpart
Answer: B) sfc
Explanation: The System File Checker (sfc) scans and repairs corrupted system files.
4. A user reports their laptop is overheating and shutting down unexpectedly. What is the first troubleshooting step?
A) Replace the CPU
B) Clean the cooling vents and fans
C) Reinstall the operating system
D) Update the graphics driver
Answer: B) Clean the cooling vents and fans
Explanation: Overheating is commonly caused by dust buildup blocking airflow, so cleaning vents and fans is the first step.
5. Which Windows tool provides a graphical interface to manage installed programs?
A) Device Manager
B) Programs and Features
C) Task Manager
D) Event Viewer
Answer: B) Programs and Features
Explanation: Programs and Features allows users to uninstall or repair software installed on the system.
6. What port does HTTPS use by default?
A) 21
B) 25
C) 443
D) 80
Answer: C) 443
Explanation: HTTPS uses port 443 for secure web traffic.
7. What type of malware encrypts a user’s files and demands payment for a decryption key?
A) Trojan
B) Spyware
C) Ransomware
D) Worm
Answer: C) Ransomware
Explanation: Ransomware locks or encrypts files and demands a ransom for access.
8. Which Windows feature helps prevent unauthorized applications from making system changes?
A) User Account Control (UAC)
B) Device Manager
C) Task Scheduler
D) Windows Defender
Answer: A) User Account Control (UAC)
Explanation: UAC prompts users when a program tries to make system-level changes, enhancing security.
9. Which of the following file systems is most commonly used by Windows 10?
A) FAT32
B) NTFS
C) exFAT
D) HFS+
Answer: B) NTFS
Explanation: NTFS supports security, encryption, and large file sizes, making it the default for Windows 10.
10. You want to troubleshoot network connectivity on a Windows PC. Which command displays the current IP configuration?
A) ping
B) ipconfig
C) tracert
D) nslookup
Answer: B) ipconfig
Explanation: ipconfig shows the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.
11. What is the best way to prevent phishing attacks?
A) Install a faster processor
B) Educate users to recognize suspicious emails and links
C) Disable Wi-Fi
D) Use a VPN only
Answer: B) Educate users to recognize suspicious emails and links
Explanation: User education is crucial to prevent phishing, which relies on social engineering.
12. Which of the following is NOT a common feature of a VPN?
A) Encrypts internet traffic
B) Masks IP address
C) Provides physical firewall protection
D) Allows remote access to private networks
Answer: C) Provides physical firewall protection
Explanation: VPNs secure data transmission and mask IPs but do not provide physical firewall hardware protection.
13. What type of backup copies only files that have changed since the last full backup?
A) Full backup
B) Incremental backup
C) Differential backup
D) Mirror backup
Answer: C) Differential backup
Explanation: Differential backups copy all changes since the last full backup.
14. Which mobile OS uses the Google Play Store for apps?
A) iOS
B) Android
C) Windows Phone
D) BlackBerry OS
Answer: B) Android
Explanation: Android uses the Google Play Store to download and install apps.
15. You suspect a user’s Windows system is infected with malware. Which tool can help you scan and remove threats?
A) Task Manager
B) Windows Defender Antivirus
C) Disk Cleanup
D) Device Manager
Answer: B) Windows Defender Antivirus
Explanation: Windows Defender provides built-in antivirus protection to detect and remove malware.
16. What Windows feature can you use to automatically run a program at a specific time?
A) Event Viewer
B) Task Scheduler
C) Services
D) System Restore
Answer: B) Task Scheduler
Explanation: Task Scheduler allows you to automate tasks at scheduled times.
17. Which of these file extensions is commonly associated with a Windows executable?
A) .docx
B) .exe
C) .txt
D) .pdf
Answer: B) .exe
Explanation: The .exe extension identifies executable program files in Windows.
18. What type of network cable is typically used for wired Ethernet connections?
A) Coaxial
B) Cat5e or Cat6 twisted pair
C) Fiber optic
D) HDMI
Answer: B) Cat5e or Cat6 twisted pair
Explanation: Cat5e and Cat6 cables are standard for wired Ethernet.
19. Which Windows tool shows logs of system and application events?
A) Task Manager
B) Event Viewer
C) Disk Management
D) Resource Monitor
Answer: B) Event Viewer
Explanation: Event Viewer logs warnings, errors, and informational events.
20. Which Windows command would you use to check disk integrity and repair file system errors?
A) sfc /scannow
B) chkdsk
C) ipconfig /renew
D) format
Answer: B) chkdsk
Explanation: chkdsk scans and repairs disk errors and bad sectors.
21. What is the recommended method for securely disposing of a hard drive?
A) Format the drive once
B) Use disk wiping software or physically destroy the drive
C) Delete all files and empty the recycle bin
D) Remove the drive and store it safely
Answer: B) Use disk wiping software or physically destroy the drive
Explanation: Formatting does not guarantee data removal; wiping or destruction prevents data recovery.
22. Which Windows feature allows you to run applications designed for previous versions of Windows?
A) Device Manager
B) Compatibility Mode
C) Safe Mode
D) Task Manager
Answer: B) Compatibility Mode
Explanation: Compatibility Mode adjusts settings to help older software run on newer Windows versions.
23. Which security principle limits user access to only what is necessary for their job?
A) Least Privilege
B) Separation of Duties
C) Defense in Depth
D) Authentication
Answer: A) Least Privilege
Explanation: The least privilege principle restricts user access to only essential resources.
24. Which of these is a common symptom of spyware infection?
A) Frequent pop-up ads and slow system performance
B) System overheating
C) Blue screen errors
D) Hardware failure
Answer: A) Frequent pop-up ads and slow system performance
Explanation: Spyware often causes annoying pop-ups and system sluggishness.
25. Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication?
A) Password only
B) Password and fingerprint scan
C) Username and password
D) Password and password hint
Answer: B) Password and fingerprint scan
Explanation: Multifactor authentication requires two or more different types of credentials (something you know and something you have or are).
26. What is the function of the Windows Registry?
A) Stores user files and documents
B) Contains configuration settings and options for Windows
C) Manages network connections
D) Handles disk partitioning
Answer: B) Contains configuration settings and options for Windows
Explanation: The registry holds system and application configuration settings.
27. Which of these is the default Windows firewall setting?
A) Disabled
B) Enabled and blocking unsolicited inbound connections
C) Enabled but allowing all inbound connections
D) Disabled but logging all traffic
Answer: B) Enabled and blocking unsolicited inbound connections
Explanation: Windows Firewall is enabled by default to block unauthorized inbound traffic.
28. What is the purpose of Safe Mode in Windows?
A) To increase system speed
B) To run Windows with minimal drivers and services for troubleshooting
C) To backup files automatically
D) To scan for viruses
Answer: B) To run Windows with minimal drivers and services for troubleshooting
Explanation: Safe Mode loads only essential drivers to help diagnose system problems.
29. What is the function of the Windows Device Manager?
A) View and update installed device drivers
B) Manage user accounts
C) Schedule tasks
D) Monitor CPU usage
Answer: A) View and update installed device drivers
Explanation: Device Manager allows hardware and driver management.
30. Which protocol is primarily used to securely transfer files over a network?
A) FTP
B) HTTP
C) SFTP
D) Telnet
Answer: C) SFTP
Explanation: SFTP encrypts file transfers, unlike FTP, which transfers data unencrypted.
31. What Windows feature automatically saves copies of files so you can restore them if the original is lost or corrupted?
A) File History
B) Disk Cleanup
C) System Restore
D) Shadow Copy
Answer: A) File History
Explanation: File History regularly backs up user files to an external location, allowing restoration if files are lost or damaged.
32. Which command-line tool is used to display and manage running processes on a Windows system?
A) netstat
B) tasklist
C) ping
D) ipconfig
Answer: B) tasklist
Explanation: The tasklist command lists running processes, useful for troubleshooting.
33. What type of attack involves intercepting and altering communication between two parties without their knowledge?
A) Phishing
B) Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
C) Denial of Service (DoS)
D) Brute Force
Answer: B) Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
Explanation: MITM attacks intercept communication to steal or alter data secretly.
34. Which Windows utility is best for recovering deleted files from the Recycle Bin?
A) Disk Management
B) File Explorer
C) Recycle Bin
D) Device Manager
Answer: C) Recycle Bin
Explanation: Deleted files are stored temporarily in the Recycle Bin and can be restored from there.
35. A technician wants to ensure a Windows system automatically installs important updates without user intervention. Which setting should they enable?
A) Notify for download and install
B) Automatic (recommended)
C) Manual
D) Disable updates
Answer: B) Automatic (recommended)
Explanation: Automatic updates ensure the system downloads and installs updates without user input.
36. What is the primary purpose of Secure Boot?
A) Encrypts hard drive data
B) Prevents unauthorized OS bootloaders from loading
C) Scans for malware on startup
D) Speeds up the boot process
Answer: B) Prevents unauthorized OS bootloaders from loading
Explanation: Secure Boot checks the digital signature of the OS bootloader to prevent malware from running at startup.
37. Which of the following is a best practice when creating strong passwords?
A) Use common words for easy recall
B) Include uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and symbols
C) Use your birthday or pet’s name
D) Use the same password for all accounts
Answer: B) Include uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and symbols
Explanation: Strong passwords combine different character types to increase complexity and security.
38. What type of backup strategy is the fastest to restore because it stores all files in one location?
A) Full backup
B) Incremental backup
C) Differential backup
D) Mirror backup
Answer: A) Full backup
Explanation: Full backups contain all data, making restoration faster as no additional backups are needed.
39. A user reports that a program they installed is crashing frequently. What should be the first troubleshooting step?
A) Reinstall the operating system
B) Check for program updates or patches
C) Replace the hard drive
D) Disable antivirus software
Answer: B) Check for program updates or patches
Explanation: Software updates often fix bugs and compatibility issues causing crashes.
40. Which Windows utility provides information about hardware, software, and system components?
A) Device Manager
B) System Information (msinfo32)
C) Control Panel
D) Disk Management
Answer: B) System Information (msinfo32)
Explanation: The System Information tool shows detailed info about the computer’s hardware and software environment.
41. Which type of malware disguises itself as legitimate software?
A) Rootkit
B) Trojan horse
C) Spyware
D) Adware
Answer: B) Trojan horse
Explanation: Trojans appear harmless but perform malicious actions once installed.
42. What is the function of Windows Defender Firewall?
A) Scans files for viruses
B) Blocks unauthorized network traffic based on rules
C) Encrypts data on the disk
D) Manages user accounts
Answer: B) Blocks unauthorized network traffic based on rules
Explanation: The firewall controls inbound and outbound network traffic according to security policies.
43. A user cannot access a network share on a Windows PC. Which command can check network connectivity?
A) ping
B) chkdsk
C) diskpart
D) sfc
Answer: A) ping
Explanation: The ping command tests connectivity between devices on a network.
44. What type of user account has full administrative rights in Windows?
A) Guest
B) Standard user
C) Administrator
D) Power user
Answer: C) Administrator
Explanation: Administrator accounts can change system settings and install software.
45. Which of the following is a Windows feature that temporarily disables all third-party drivers and software during startup for troubleshooting?
A) Safe Mode
B) Recovery Mode
C) Compatibility Mode
D) Fast Startup
Answer: A) Safe Mode
Explanation: Safe Mode loads only essential drivers and services to isolate problems.
46. What Windows feature allows you to connect to another computer and control it remotely?
A) Remote Desktop
B) Task Manager
C) Device Manager
D) Disk Management
Answer: A) Remote Desktop
Explanation: Remote Desktop enables users to access and control a PC remotely over the network.
47. Which of these is NOT a function of the Windows Task Manager?
A) Viewing running applications and processes
B) Monitoring CPU and memory usage
C) Configuring hardware drivers
D) Ending unresponsive programs
Answer: C) Configuring hardware drivers
Explanation: Device Manager manages hardware drivers, not Task Manager.
48. What does the term “phishing” refer to?
A) An attack that floods a network with traffic
B) An attempt to trick users into giving sensitive information
C) Malware that replicates itself
D) Exploiting software vulnerabilities
Answer: B) An attempt to trick users into giving sensitive information
Explanation: Phishing is social engineering to steal credentials or data.
49. Which Windows utility would you use to partition a new hard drive?
A) Disk Management
B) Device Manager
C) Task Scheduler
D) System Configuration
Answer: A) Disk Management
Explanation: Disk Management creates and modifies partitions and volumes.
50. Which of the following is a characteristic of spyware?
A) Displays pop-up ads and tracks user behavior
B) Encrypts files and demands ransom
C) Crashes the system intentionally
D) Uses the CPU for cryptocurrency mining only
Answer: A) Displays pop-up ads and tracks user behavior
Explanation: Spyware monitors user activity and can cause performance issues.
51. Which Windows feature allows a user to reset their password if they forget it?
A) Password Hint
B) Password Reset Disk
C) Security Questions
D) User Account Control
Answer: B) Password Reset Disk
Explanation: A Password Reset Disk allows users to reset their password without administrator assistance.
52. What Windows tool would you use to configure startup programs?
A) msconfig (System Configuration)
B) Device Manager
C) Task Manager
D) Event Viewer
Answer: A) msconfig (System Configuration)
Explanation: msconfig allows enabling or disabling startup programs and services.
53. What is the primary function of an operating system?
A) Manage hardware and software resources
B) Provide antivirus protection
C) Develop applications
D) Connect to the internet
Answer: A) Manage hardware and software resources
Explanation: The OS manages system resources and provides an interface between hardware and applications.
54. What Windows feature can you use to fix driver conflicts?
A) Device Manager
B) Event Viewer
C) System Restore
D) Disk Cleanup
Answer: A) Device Manager
Explanation: Device Manager allows updating, rolling back, or disabling drivers to resolve conflicts.
55. Which Windows feature allows you to control who can access shared files and folders on a network?
A) User Account Control
B) NTFS Permissions
C) System Restore
D) Task Scheduler
Answer: B) NTFS Permissions
Explanation: NTFS permissions set file/folder access controls for users and groups.
56. Which of the following is a security best practice for mobile devices?
A) Disable screen lock
B) Use strong PINs or biometrics
C) Avoid software updates
D) Share passwords with colleagues
Answer: B) Use strong PINs or biometrics
Explanation: Strong authentication methods protect mobile devices from unauthorized access.
57. What does the acronym UEFI stand for?
A) Unified Extensible Firmware Interface
B) Universal External Firmware Integration
C) User Environment Firmware Interface
D) Unified External File Integration
Answer: A) Unified Extensible Firmware Interface
Explanation: UEFI is a modern replacement for BIOS with enhanced features and security.
58. Which tool is used to verify DNS functionality?
A) nslookup
B) tracert
C) ipconfig
D) ping
Answer: A) nslookup
Explanation: nslookup queries DNS servers to verify name resolution.
59. Which of these describes a rootkit?
A) Malware that hides itself and other malicious software
B) Malware that encrypts files
C) Malware that steals credit card info
D) Malware that causes pop-up ads
Answer: A) Malware that hides itself and other malicious software
Explanation: Rootkits conceal malicious processes to evade detection.
60. A user accidentally deleted an important file. Which Windows feature might allow recovery if File History was enabled?
A) System Restore
B) File History Restore
C) Disk Cleanup
D) Windows Defender
Answer: B) File History Restore
Explanation: File History keeps copies of user files that can be restored if deleted or corrupted.
