CompTIA CASP+ (Advanced Security Practitioner) Practice Exam
Are you an experienced cybersecurity professional aiming to validate your advanced skills and elevate your career in enterprise security? The CompTIA CASP+ (CAS-004) certification is designed for technical leaders who design, implement, and manage secure solutions across complex enterprise environments. At Exam Sage, we provide you with the tools you need to pass the CASP+ exam on your first attempt through high-quality, expertly written practice exams.
✅ What is the CompTIA CASP+ Certification?
The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) is a globally recognized, performance-based certification tailored for advanced-level cybersecurity professionals. Unlike management-focused certifications, CASP+ is the only certification that covers both security architecture and engineering with hands-on skills required to design and implement secure solutions in enterprise settings.
This exam is ideal for security architects, senior security engineers, SOC leaders, and other advanced professionals responsible for securing mission-critical systems. The CASP+ validates your ability to assess enterprise cybersecurity readiness and implement robust security measures across hybrid and complex infrastructures.
📘 What You Will Learn
By using our CASP+ Practice Exam, you’ll reinforce your understanding of key cybersecurity domains required for real-world enterprise roles. You’ll develop practical skills to:
Analyze and apply advanced security solutions to complex enterprise environments
Integrate cloud, mobile, and IoT security into existing architectures
Perform risk analysis and interpret business impact
Implement cryptographic techniques for confidentiality and integrity
Design resilient network and software architectures that support secure operations
Investigate and respond to security incidents in hybrid/cloud/on-prem environments
🧠 Key Topics Covered
Our CASP+ practice exam is structured to mirror the official CAS-004 exam content outline and covers all five domains in depth:
Security Architecture
Enterprise security architecture
Cloud and virtualization solutions
Secure application development and automation
Security Operations
Monitoring and analyzing security incidents
Advanced threat management
Implementing incident response and forensics
Governance, Risk, and Compliance (GRC)
Risk management strategies
Legal and regulatory compliance
Security governance frameworks
Security Engineering and Cryptography
Cryptographic concepts and implementation
Securing storage and data at rest/in transit
Hardware and software-based security
Research, Development, and Collaboration
Applying emerging technologies securely
Collaboration across teams to enhance security posture
Assessing impact of new technology and threat vectors
💡 Why Choose Exam Sage CASP+ practice exam?
At Exam Sage, we go beyond generic test prep. Our CASP+ practice exam is created by cybersecurity experts with real-world experience in enterprise security and deep knowledge of the CAS-004 exam blueprint. Here’s why Exam Sage is your trusted partner for exam preparation:
✅ 765 Expertly Crafted Questions with detailed explanations
✅ Regularly Updated Content aligned with the latest CAS-004 exam objectives
✅ Scenario-Based & Performance-Based Questions to build real-world expertise
✅ Mobile-Friendly and Instant Access on all your devices
✅ No subscription or recurring fees — one-time purchase
Whether you’re preparing to upgrade your security career or looking to validate your hands-on cybersecurity expertise, our CASP+ practice exam will sharpen your skills and boost your confidence.
🎯 Who Should Take This Exam?
The CASP+ certification is intended for advanced cybersecurity practitioners with at least 10 years of general IT experience, including 5 years of hands-on security experience. Ideal roles include:
Security Architect
Technical Lead Analyst
Senior Security Engineer
SOC Manager
Cybersecurity Consultant
If you’re ready to step into a leadership position that still demands deep technical acumen, CASP+ is your next career milestone.
🔗 Start Your CASP+ Journey with Exam Sage
Don’t leave your success to chance. Download the CompTIA CASP+ Practice Exam from Exam Sage and begin your journey toward becoming a certified Advanced Security Practitioner. Gain the confidence and knowledge you need to dominate the CAS-004 exam and stand out in today’s competitive cybersecurity landscape.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following best describes the primary goal of threat hunting in cybersecurity?
A) Reacting to alerts from security tools
B) Proactively searching for unknown threats
C) Configuring firewall rules
D) Conducting vulnerability scans
Answer: B) Proactively searching for unknown threats
Explanation: Threat hunting involves actively searching within a network to find hidden or unknown threats that traditional security tools might miss. It’s a proactive approach rather than waiting for alerts or automated detections.
2. What is the main advantage of using a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?
A) Automated software updates
B) Centralized log aggregation and analysis
C) Encryption of data in transit
D) Physical security monitoring
Answer: B) Centralized log aggregation and analysis
Explanation: SIEM systems collect, aggregate, and analyze logs from multiple sources to detect and respond to security incidents efficiently, providing a comprehensive view of an organization’s security posture.
3. Which encryption algorithm is considered quantum-resistant?
A) RSA
B) AES
C) ECC
D) Lattice-based cryptography
Answer: D) Lattice-based cryptography
Explanation: Lattice-based cryptography is among the algorithms designed to resist attacks by quantum computers, unlike RSA or ECC, which are vulnerable to quantum algorithms such as Shor’s algorithm.
4. What is the purpose of applying the principle of least privilege?
A) To grant users full access rights
B) To restrict users to only the access necessary for their job
C) To simplify user permissions
D) To enable guest access
Answer: B) To restrict users to only the access necessary for their job
Explanation: The principle of least privilege limits users’ access rights to the minimum needed, reducing the risk of accidental or malicious misuse of resources.
5. Which security control type focuses on detecting and responding to threats after they occur?
A) Preventive controls
B) Detective controls
C) Corrective controls
D) Physical controls
Answer: B) Detective controls
Explanation: Detective controls are designed to identify and alert to security incidents, enabling response actions. Examples include intrusion detection systems and security audits.
6. What is a Zero Trust Architecture primarily based on?
A) Implicit trust of all internal users
B) Continuous verification of user identity and device security
C) Using a VPN for remote access only
D) Physical perimeter defense
Answer: B) Continuous verification of user identity and device security
Explanation: Zero Trust assumes no user or device is trusted by default, requiring ongoing authentication and authorization for every access request.
7. Which of the following is the best method to secure an API?
A) Disable encryption
B) Use API gateways with authentication and rate limiting
C) Open the API to public networks
D) Store sensitive data in plain text
Answer: B) Use API gateways with authentication and rate limiting
Explanation: API gateways provide centralized security management, including authentication, authorization, and traffic controls such as rate limiting to prevent abuse and attacks.
8. Which framework is most commonly used for risk management in cybersecurity?
A) ISO 27001
B) NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF)
C) HIPAA
D) GDPR
Answer: B) NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF)
Explanation: NIST RMF provides a structured process for managing cybersecurity risk, including steps for categorizing, selecting, implementing, and monitoring controls.
9. What type of attack does a DNS spoofing exploit?
A) Unauthorized access
B) Redirecting users to malicious sites
C) Denial of Service
D) Phishing
Answer: B) Redirecting users to malicious sites
Explanation: DNS spoofing manipulates DNS responses to redirect users from legitimate sites to malicious ones, often for data theft or malware distribution.
10. What is the key characteristic of multifactor authentication (MFA)?
A) Using only passwords
B) Combining two or more authentication methods from different categories
C) Using biometric verification only
D) Relying on IP address for access
Answer: B) Combining two or more authentication methods from different categories
Explanation: MFA requires at least two types of credentials, such as something you know (password), something you have (token), or something you are (biometrics), enhancing security.
11. Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical security control?
A) Security guards
B) Firewall rules
C) Locked server rooms
D) CCTV cameras
Answer: B) Firewall rules
Explanation: Firewall rules are technical controls protecting networks, whereas physical controls prevent unauthorized physical access to facilities or equipment.
12. What is a common reason to implement network segmentation?
A) Increase bandwidth
B) Reduce attack surface by isolating critical assets
C) Simplify network design
D) Enable open access
Answer: B) Reduce attack surface by isolating critical assets
Explanation: Network segmentation confines attackers to a smaller area if a breach occurs, preventing lateral movement across the network.
13. Which cybersecurity approach is best for identifying insider threats?
A) Penetration testing
B) User Behavior Analytics (UBA)
C) Firewall configuration
D) Encryption of emails
Answer: B) User Behavior Analytics (UBA)
Explanation: UBA monitors user activities and flags deviations from normal behavior, helping detect potentially malicious insider activities.
14. Which of the following best describes an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)?
A) A temporary hacking attempt
B) A prolonged and targeted cyberattack often sponsored by nation-states
C) A random malware infection
D) A phishing scam
Answer: B) A prolonged and targeted cyberattack often sponsored by nation-states
Explanation: APTs are sophisticated, long-term campaigns aimed at stealing data or espionage, typically carried out by highly skilled adversaries.
15. Which method is most effective for mitigating ransomware attacks?
A) Regular data backups stored offline
B) Disabling antivirus software
C) Sharing passwords frequently
D) Opening all email attachments
Answer: A) Regular data backups stored offline
Explanation: Offline backups ensure data recovery even if systems are encrypted by ransomware, minimizing damage and downtime.
16. What does the CIA triad stand for in cybersecurity?
A) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
B) Control, Identify, Authenticate
C) Compliance, Intelligence, Audit
D) Cybersecurity, Information, Access
Answer: A) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
Explanation: The CIA triad represents core principles ensuring data secrecy, accuracy, and accessibility.
17. Which tool is most appropriate for detecting malware on a network?
A) IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
B) Backup software
C) Patch management tools
D) Password managers
Answer: A) IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
Explanation: IDS monitors network traffic to identify suspicious patterns indicative of malware or attack attempts.
18. What is the primary purpose of penetration testing?
A) To fix software bugs
B) To simulate cyberattacks and identify vulnerabilities before adversaries do
C) To monitor user activity
D) To install security patches
Answer: B) To simulate cyberattacks and identify vulnerabilities before adversaries do
Explanation: Penetration tests mimic real attacks, helping organizations discover and remediate security weaknesses proactively.
19. What is the role of an encryption key in symmetric encryption?
A) Different keys for encryption and decryption
B) Same key used for both encryption and decryption
C) Key used only for encryption
D) Key used only for hashing
Answer: B) Same key used for both encryption and decryption
Explanation: Symmetric encryption uses one secret key for both encrypting and decrypting data, requiring secure key management.
20. What is the main difference between vulnerability scanning and penetration testing?
A) Vulnerability scanning is manual; penetration testing is automated
B) Vulnerability scanning identifies potential weaknesses; penetration testing exploits them to assess risk
C) Vulnerability scanning requires no tools
D) Penetration testing is only theoretical
Answer: B) Vulnerability scanning identifies potential weaknesses; penetration testing exploits them to assess risk
Explanation: Scanning finds known vulnerabilities, while penetration testing attempts to exploit those vulnerabilities to evaluate their impact.
21. Which security control is best at preventing SQL injection attacks?
A) Input validation and parameterized queries
B) Regular backups
C) Using complex passwords
D) Physical locks
Answer: A) Input validation and parameterized queries
Explanation: Proper input validation and parameterized queries prevent attackers from injecting malicious SQL code into applications.
22. What is the primary function of a hardware Security Module (HSM)?
A) Manage network traffic
B) Securely generate, store, and manage cryptographic keys
C) Monitor employee behavior
D) Manage firewall rules
Answer: B) Securely generate, store, and manage cryptographic keys
Explanation: HSMs provide tamper-resistant environments for handling cryptographic keys, enhancing security for encryption and signing operations.
23. Which of the following best describes cloud security posture management (CSPM)?
A) Managing firewall settings
B) Continuously monitoring cloud environments for misconfigurations and compliance
C) Managing encryption keys on-premises
D) User authentication only
Answer: B) Continuously monitoring cloud environments for misconfigurations and compliance
Explanation: CSPM tools help detect risks and ensure cloud setups follow security best practices and regulatory requirements.
24. In risk assessment, what does “inherent risk” mean?
A) Risk after controls are applied
B) Risk without considering controls
C) Risk eliminated by policies
D) Risk in physical security only
Answer: B) Risk without considering controls
Explanation: Inherent risk is the level of risk present in an asset or process before any mitigation measures are implemented.
25. What is the best practice when implementing BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) policies?
A) Allow all devices unrestricted access
B) Enforce endpoint security measures and network segmentation
C) Disable all mobile device access
D) Share passwords across devices
Answer: B) Enforce endpoint security measures and network segmentation
Explanation: BYOD policies should require device compliance checks, security controls, and network isolation to reduce risk from personal devices.
26. What is the main purpose of digital signatures?
A) Encrypt data in transit
B) Verify the authenticity and integrity of digital documents
C) Hide the sender’s identity
D) Protect data at rest
Answer: B) Verify the authenticity and integrity of digital documents
Explanation: Digital signatures use cryptographic techniques to prove that data has not been altered and confirm the sender’s identity.
27. What type of attack does a man-in-the-middle (MITM) exploit?
A) Intercept and possibly alter communications between two parties
B) Flood networks with traffic
C) Steal passwords via phishing
D) Destroy physical hardware
Answer: A) Intercept and possibly alter communications between two parties
Explanation: MITM attacks place the attacker between two communicating parties to eavesdrop or manipulate data without detection.
28. What is the key benefit of using containerization in application deployment?
A) Slower application startup
B) Isolation of applications and dependencies for consistency across environments
C) Increased hardware requirements
D) Manual updates only
Answer: B) Isolation of applications and dependencies for consistency across environments
Explanation: Containers package apps with their dependencies, ensuring consistent behavior across different systems, which improves security and scalability.
29. Which protocol is used to securely transfer files over a network?
A) FTP
B) SFTP
C) HTTP
D) Telnet
Answer: B) SFTP
Explanation: SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) encrypts file transfer sessions, providing confidentiality and integrity over untrusted networks, unlike FTP.
30. Which security framework focuses on continuous monitoring and improvement?
A) COBIT
B) NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF)
C) HIPAA
D) PCI-DSS
Answer: B) NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF)
Explanation: NIST CSF emphasizes a lifecycle approach including identify, protect, detect, respond, and recover with ongoing monitoring and enhancement.
31. What is the primary purpose of implementing Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solutions?
A) Encrypt data in transit
B) Detect and prevent unauthorized data exfiltration
C) Scan for malware
D) Manage user permissions
Answer: B) Detect and prevent unauthorized data exfiltration
Explanation: DLP solutions monitor and control sensitive data transfers, ensuring critical information doesn’t leave the organization without authorization, protecting against leaks and compliance violations.
32. Which security model focuses on maintaining strict confidentiality by preventing unauthorized information flow?
A) Bell-LaPadula
B) Biba
C) Clark-Wilson
D) Brewer-Nash
Answer: A) Bell-LaPadula
Explanation: The Bell-LaPadula model enforces confidentiality by restricting information flow based on security clearance, disallowing data read-up and write-down to maintain secrecy.
33. What does the term “defense in depth” imply?
A) Using one strong security control
B) Layering multiple security controls throughout the IT environment
C) Disabling security controls for ease of access
D) Focusing only on perimeter security
Answer: B) Layering multiple security controls throughout the IT environment
Explanation: Defense in depth applies overlapping controls (technical, physical, administrative) to create redundancy, reducing the chance of successful attacks.
34. Which technology helps isolate applications by running them in a separate virtualized environment?
A) Containers
B) Firewalls
C) Antivirus
D) Patch management
Answer: A) Containers
Explanation: Containers package applications with their dependencies in isolated environments, improving security by limiting the impact of vulnerabilities or compromises to a single container.
35. What is the main function of an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?
A) Only logs suspicious activity
B) Detects and actively blocks potential threats
C) Encrypts network traffic
D) Manages user access
Answer: B) Detects and actively blocks potential threats
Explanation: Unlike IDS, which only alerts, IPS actively intervenes by blocking or mitigating detected malicious network traffic in real time.
36. How does a security baseline assist organizations?
A) By setting minimal security standards for systems and configurations
B) By providing encryption keys
C) By managing user accounts
D) By performing backups
Answer: A) By setting minimal security standards for systems and configurations
Explanation: A security baseline defines minimum acceptable settings and configurations, ensuring consistency and compliance across all systems.
37. Which of the following is an example of a technical control?
A) Security policies
B) Firewalls
C) Security awareness training
D) Security guards
Answer: B) Firewalls
Explanation: Technical controls use technology to enforce security, like firewalls controlling network traffic, while others like policies and guards are administrative or physical controls.
38. What is the role of the cryptographic nonce?
A) To encrypt data
B) To ensure uniqueness and prevent replay attacks
C) To store encryption keys
D) To hash passwords
Answer: B) To ensure uniqueness and prevent replay attacks
Explanation: Nonces are random or pseudo-random values used once in protocols to guarantee freshness and prevent attackers from reusing intercepted messages.
39. What is the purpose of sandboxing in malware analysis?
A) To speed up malware execution
B) To isolate malware safely and observe behavior without risk to the host system
C) To delete malware immediately
D) To back up data
Answer: B) To isolate malware safely and observe behavior without risk to the host system
Explanation: Sandboxing runs suspicious files in a controlled environment to analyze behavior without infecting the actual system.
40. What is the main benefit of implementing role-based access control (RBAC)?
A) Granting access based on job function
B) Allowing unrestricted user access
C) Simplifying password policies
D) Encrypting data
Answer: A) Granting access based on job function
Explanation: RBAC assigns permissions according to user roles, simplifying management and enforcing least privilege by aligning access with job responsibilities.
41. Which attack technique involves injecting malicious scripts into trusted websites?
A) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
B) SQL Injection
C) Phishing
D) Man-in-the-middle
Answer: A) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Explanation: XSS attacks embed malicious scripts into web pages, which execute in users’ browsers, potentially stealing data or hijacking sessions.
42. What is the difference between a false positive and a false negative in security monitoring?
A) False positive is missing an attack; false negative is an alert without a threat
B) False positive is an alert without a threat; false negative is missing an actual attack
C) Both are types of attacks
D) Both are secure states
Answer: B) False positive is an alert without a threat; false negative is missing an actual attack
Explanation: False positives cause unnecessary alerts; false negatives allow real threats to go undetected, both affecting monitoring effectiveness.
43. Which policy outlines acceptable use of organizational IT resources?
A) Business Continuity Plan
B) Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
C) Disaster Recovery Plan
D) Incident Response Plan
Answer: B) Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
Explanation: AUP defines what users can and cannot do on company IT systems, helping prevent misuse and security incidents.
44. What is the main goal of Business Continuity Planning (BCP)?
A) To prevent cyberattacks
B) To ensure critical business operations continue during and after disruptions
C) To encrypt all data
D) To manage user access
Answer: B) To ensure critical business operations continue during and after disruptions
Explanation: BCP prepares organizations to maintain essential functions during crises like disasters or cyber incidents.
45. Which protocol provides secure remote login and command execution?
A) Telnet
B) SSH
C) FTP
D) HTTP
Answer: B) SSH
Explanation: SSH encrypts remote sessions, providing confidentiality and integrity for remote system management, unlike unencrypted Telnet.
46. How can organizations mitigate the risk of social engineering attacks?
A) Using firewalls
B) Implementing security awareness training and phishing simulations
C) Encrypting data
D) Disabling network access
Answer: B) Implementing security awareness training and phishing simulations
Explanation: Educating employees on recognizing social engineering tactics reduces the likelihood of successful attacks exploiting human factors.
47. What is the primary function of a honeypot in cybersecurity?
A) Protect user passwords
B) Serve as a decoy system to attract and study attackers
C) Encrypt data
D) Back up data
Answer: B) Serve as a decoy system to attract and study attackers
Explanation: Honeypots lure attackers away from real assets and provide intelligence on attack methods.
48. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a security audit?
A) To enforce firewall rules
B) To systematically review security policies, controls, and procedures for compliance and effectiveness
C) To scan for malware
D) To back up files
Answer: B) To systematically review security policies, controls, and procedures for compliance and effectiveness
Explanation: Audits identify gaps or failures in security posture, ensuring alignment with standards and policies.
49. What does multifactor authentication protect against?
A) Phishing attacks
B) Password guessing and credential theft
C) Network sniffing only
D) Malware infections
Answer: B) Password guessing and credential theft
Explanation: MFA requires multiple proofs of identity, significantly reducing the risk that stolen credentials alone can grant access.
50. What type of malware encrypts a victim’s files and demands payment?
A) Virus
B) Ransomware
C) Spyware
D) Trojan
Answer: B) Ransomware
Explanation: Ransomware locks or encrypts files and extorts victims by demanding payment for decryption keys.
51. Which term refers to the ability to recover data after a disaster?
A) Data Integrity
B) Data Availability
C) Data Recovery
D) Data Encryption
Answer: C) Data Recovery
Explanation: Data recovery ensures information can be restored after corruption, deletion, or disaster, supporting business continuity.
52. What is the purpose of a mantrap in physical security?
A) Prevent unauthorized network access
B) Control and monitor entry to secure areas with two sequential doors
C) Detect malware
D) Manage user authentication
Answer: B) Control and monitor entry to secure areas with two sequential doors
Explanation: Mantraps physically isolate individuals to verify identity before granting access, enhancing facility security.
53. What is the function of a proxy server in network security?
A) Encrypt data
B) Act as an intermediary between clients and servers, filtering requests and caching content
C) Manage user passwords
D) Monitor physical security
Answer: B) Act as an intermediary between clients and servers, filtering requests and caching content
Explanation: Proxies help enforce policies, block malicious sites, and improve performance via caching.
54. What is the main goal of patch management?
A) Install software updates to fix vulnerabilities and improve security
B) Encrypt files
C) Monitor network traffic
D) Manage passwords
Answer: A) Install software updates to fix vulnerabilities and improve security
Explanation: Timely patching reduces exposure to known exploits, maintaining system integrity and availability.
55. Which type of attack floods a network or system with excessive traffic to cause disruption?
A) Phishing
B) Denial of Service (DoS)
C) SQL Injection
D) Man-in-the-middle
Answer: B) Denial of Service (DoS)
Explanation: DoS attacks overwhelm systems with traffic, causing slowdowns or outages.
56. What is the purpose of a Certificate Authority (CA) in Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?
A) Issue and revoke digital certificates
B) Encrypt data
C) Manage passwords
D) Scan for malware
Answer: A) Issue and revoke digital certificates
Explanation: CAs validate identities and provide certificates that enable secure encrypted communication and trust.
57. What is “pivoting” in a penetration test?
A) Changing the testing tool
B) Using a compromised system to access other network segments
C) Scanning for open ports
D) Encrypting data
Answer: B) Using a compromised system to access other network segments
Explanation: Pivoting lets testers simulate attacker movement through a network to assess lateral attack risk.
58. What does “hashing” provide in cybersecurity?
A) Encryption for confidentiality
B) Data integrity verification
C) User authentication
D) Network segmentation
Answer: B) Data integrity verification
Explanation: Hashing produces a fixed-size output from data, allowing verification that content hasn’t changed without revealing the original data.
59. What is the primary purpose of Network Access Control (NAC)?
A) Encrypt network traffic
B) Enforce security policy on devices attempting to access the network
C) Monitor physical security
D) Backup data
Answer: B) Enforce security policy on devices attempting to access the network
Explanation: NAC ensures devices meet security requirements before granting access, helping prevent compromised devices from connecting.
60. What is a common use of the OAuth protocol?
A) Encrypting emails
B) Delegating authorization to third-party applications without sharing credentials
C) Scanning for vulnerabilities
D) Managing firewalls
Answer: B) Delegating authorization to third-party applications without sharing credentials
Explanation: OAuth enables users to grant limited access to resources without exposing passwords, enhancing security in web apps.
