CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Practice Test
Prepare confidently for the CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam with Exam Sage’s expertly crafted practice test. This resource is designed to help you master essential cybersecurity concepts, assess your readiness, and gain the skills needed to pass the exam with confidence. Whether you’re an aspiring cybersecurity professional, a system administrator, or an IT specialist, this practice exam is your gateway to advancing your career in information security.
🛡️ What is the CompTIA SecurityX Certification?
The CompTIA SecurityX Certification is a globally recognized credential that validates foundational and intermediate-level cybersecurity knowledge. Tailored for professionals aiming to strengthen their understanding of network security, threat analysis, cryptography, and risk management, SecurityX is widely regarded as an essential stepping stone in the cybersecurity career path. Employers across the globe trust this certification to identify skilled individuals capable of securing digital infrastructures in a constantly evolving threat landscape.
📘 What You’ll Learn With This Practice Exam
Our CompTIA SecurityX Practice Test is designed to reflect real exam conditions and content. It helps you:
Understand core security concepts and terminology
Identify various types of threats, attacks, and vulnerabilities
Configure and manage secure network architectures
Implement effective identity and access control strategies
Apply risk management principles and mitigation techniques
Master cryptographic solutions and public key infrastructure (PKI)
Respond to incidents and perform security assessments
Stay compliant with regulatory frameworks and industry standards
Each question comes with a detailed explanation to ensure you not only know the correct answer but also understand the rationale behind it—empowering you with knowledge, not just memorization.
🧠 Topics Covered in the Practice Test
This comprehensive set of questions covers the most important and up-to-date domains of the CompTIA SecurityX exam:
Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Attacks
(e.g., phishing, malware, ransomware, DDoS, insider threats)Identity and Access Management (IAM)
(e.g., MFA, SSO, least privilege, RBAC, authentication protocols)Cryptography and PKI
(e.g., symmetric vs. asymmetric encryption, hashing, certificates, CAs)Security Operations and Incident Response
(e.g., SIEM, forensic tools, playbooks, containment techniques)Risk Management and Governance
(e.g., risk assessments, mitigation strategies, compliance standards)Network Architecture and Design
(e.g., secure configurations, DMZ, firewalls, segmentation)Tools and Technologies
(e.g., vulnerability scanners, endpoint detection, firewalls, IDS/IPS)
This exam is aligned with current industry standards, helping you prepare thoroughly and effectively.
🎯 Why Choose Exam Sage for Your CompTIA SecurityX Prep?
At Exam Sage, we specialize in creating high-quality, exam-focused, and professionally reviewed practice tests. Here’s what sets us apart:
✅ Realistic Question Format: Our questions mirror the difficulty and structure of the actual SecurityX exam.
✅ Detailed Explanations: Learn from expert-written rationale for every correct and incorrect answer.
✅ Instant Access & Unlimited Attempts: Study at your pace and retake the test anytime to boost confidence.
✅ 100% Coverage of Core Topics: Nothing is missed—we’ve covered all key objectives outlined in the SecurityX exam blueprint.
✅ Trusted by Students & Professionals: Our tests are designed by experienced cybersecurity educators and practitioners.
📌 Is This Practice Exam Right for You?
This product is ideal for:
Students preparing for the CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam
IT professionals transitioning into cybersecurity roles
Individuals studying for job interviews in security-focused positions
Career changers looking to earn a respected, foundational cybersecurity certification
✅ Get Certified with Confidence
Don’t just memorize—master the content. With Exam Sage’s CompTIA SecurityX Practice Test, you get a smarter, deeper way to study. Boost your cybersecurity skills, sharpen your test-taking abilities, and walk into exam day ready to pass.
Start preparing now and take the next step toward becoming a certified cybersecurity professional.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following best describes the principle of least privilege?
A) Users should have access to all systems for efficiency
B) Users are given the minimum access necessary to perform their job
C) Only administrators can use sensitive systems
D) Privileges should be increased over time
Answer: B
Explanation:
The principle of least privilege ensures that users and systems are granted only the permissions they need to complete their assigned tasks—nothing more. This reduces the risk of internal threats and limits the damage caused by compromised accounts. It’s a fundamental concept in cybersecurity, helping to minimize attack surfaces and enforce access controls.
2. A hacker captures encrypted traffic using a packet sniffer. Which type of attack is this?
A) Phishing
B) Man-in-the-middle
C) Eavesdropping
D) Brute force
Answer: C
Explanation:
Eavesdropping, also known as sniffing or snooping, involves intercepting and capturing network traffic, often passively. If the data is encrypted, the attacker may store it for later decryption attempts. This method is commonly used for reconnaissance and is a passive form of cyber attack, making it difficult to detect.
3. Which cryptographic concept ensures that data has not been altered?
A) Confidentiality
B) Authentication
C) Integrity
D) Availability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Integrity ensures that data remains unchanged during transit or storage. Cryptographic hash functions, such as SHA-256, are commonly used to verify integrity by generating a fixed-size hash value. If even one bit of the original data changes, the hash value also changes, signaling potential tampering or corruption.
4. What is the main purpose of a digital signature?
A) Encrypt data for confidentiality
B) Speed up data transmission
C) Verify sender authenticity and data integrity
D) Prevent denial-of-service attacks
Answer: C
Explanation:
Digital signatures are used to confirm the authenticity of the sender and ensure that the message hasn’t been altered. By applying a private key to generate the signature and verifying it with the sender’s public key, the recipient can trust the source and the content. This is crucial for secure communications and digital document validation.
5. Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication (MFA)?
A) Username and password
B) Password and PIN
C) Smart card and fingerprint
D) Security question and password
Answer: C
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication requires two or more different types of verification: something you know (password), something you have (smart card), or something you are (biometric like fingerprint). Option C combines two different factors, making it more secure than combinations of the same type.
6. What is the primary function of a firewall?
A) Encrypt data
B) Authenticate users
C) Block unauthorized access
D) Detect malware
Answer: C
Explanation:
Firewalls are network security devices that monitor incoming and outgoing traffic based on predefined security rules. Their main purpose is to establish a barrier between trusted internal networks and untrusted external networks, such as the internet, thereby preventing unauthorized access.
7. Which attack involves injecting malicious code into a trusted website?
A) SQL injection
B) Cross-site scripting (XSS)
C) Phishing
D) DNS spoofing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) occurs when attackers inject malicious scripts into content from otherwise trusted websites. These scripts run in the user’s browser, potentially stealing cookies, session tokens, or redirecting users to malicious websites. XSS exploits weaknesses in web applications that fail to validate user inputs.
8. What type of malware disguises itself as legitimate software?
A) Worm
B) Trojan
C) Rootkit
D) Ransomware
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Trojan, or Trojan horse, appears to be useful or legitimate software but actually performs malicious actions once installed. Unlike worms or viruses, Trojans don’t replicate but rely on users to download and run them. They often create backdoors or install spyware on the system.
9. Which type of attack floods a system with traffic to make it unavailable?
A) Phishing
B) SQL injection
C) Denial of Service (DoS)
D) Privilege escalation
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Denial of Service (DoS) attack overwhelms a system, server, or network with excessive traffic, exhausting resources and making it unavailable to legitimate users. Distributed DoS (DDoS) attacks use multiple systems to increase the volume of the attack and complicate defense efforts.
10. What is the purpose of a VPN?
A) Detect malware
B) Encrypt internet traffic and mask IP addresses
C) Provide public IP addresses
D) Manage user passwords
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) establishes a secure, encrypted tunnel between the user and the destination network. It protects data from eavesdropping, especially over public Wi-Fi, and hides the user’s IP address. VPNs are critical for secure remote work and privacy.
11. Which security control is primarily designed to identify and respond to incidents after they occur?
A) Preventive
B) Detective
C) Compensating
D) Deterrent
Answer: B
Explanation:
Detective controls are implemented to identify and detect security breaches after they have occurred. These include intrusion detection systems (IDS), audit logs, and security cameras. Unlike preventive controls, which try to stop incidents, detective controls help in analyzing what happened and may assist in responding to and containing the impact.
12. Which protocol is commonly used to securely access remote servers via command line?
A) FTP
B) Telnet
C) SSH
D) SNMP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol used to securely access and manage devices remotely. Unlike Telnet, which transmits data in plaintext, SSH encrypts the session, protecting login credentials and commands from eavesdropping or interception. SSH is widely used by administrators to manage Linux servers.
13. Which type of attack manipulates a database query to gain unauthorized access?
A) Brute-force
B) DNS poisoning
C) SQL injection
D) Phishing
Answer: C
Explanation:
SQL injection occurs when attackers insert or manipulate SQL commands in user inputs to exploit vulnerabilities in applications. If input validation is lacking, attackers can execute arbitrary SQL commands, potentially gaining full access to databases, modifying data, or exfiltrating sensitive information. Input sanitization is key to prevention.
14. Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?
A) RSA
B) ECC
C) AES
D) DSA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a symmetric key algorithm widely used for securing data due to its speed and strength. Both the sender and recipient use the same key for encryption and decryption. AES is trusted for applications ranging from file encryption to network security (e.g., VPNs).
15. What is the main difference between IDS and IPS?
A) IDS encrypts data; IPS does not
B) IDS blocks traffic; IPS only monitors
C) IDS detects threats; IPS detects and blocks
D) IDS is hardware-based; IPS is software-based
Answer: C
Explanation:
Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) monitor network or system activities for malicious actions and generate alerts. Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) not only detect suspicious behavior but can also automatically block or reject malicious traffic. IPS is often placed inline, allowing it to actively prevent attacks in real time.
16. Which method ensures data is recoverable after hardware failure?
A) Load balancing
B) RAID
C) VPN
D) NAT
Answer: B
Explanation:
RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) provides data redundancy and performance improvement by combining multiple physical disks into one logical unit. Depending on the configuration (e.g., RAID 1, 5, or 10), it can protect against data loss due to disk failure, making it essential in enterprise storage systems.
17. What is a logic bomb?
A) Malware that spreads through USB drives
B) A self-replicating program
C) Code triggered by a specific condition
D) Script used for penetration testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
A logic bomb is malicious code that remains dormant until a certain condition is met—such as a specific date or an action by the user. Once triggered, it can delete files, corrupt data, or disable systems. Because it hides within legitimate software, it’s hard to detect before activation.
18. Which type of social engineering attack tricks users into clicking malicious links via messaging apps?
A) Whaling
B) Smishing
C) Spear phishing
D) Vishing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Smishing is a form of phishing that uses SMS or messaging apps to lure users into clicking malicious links or revealing sensitive information. The attacker typically sends urgent or enticing messages that appear to come from legitimate sources, prompting users to act quickly without verifying the message’s authenticity.
19. Which wireless encryption standard is considered the most secure today?
A) WEP
B) WPA
C) WPA2
D) WPA3
Answer: D
Explanation:
WPA3 is the most current and secure wireless encryption standard, offering stronger protections against password guessing and better data security, especially on public networks. It replaces WPA2 and includes features like forward secrecy and individualized data encryption, making it much harder for attackers to intercept traffic.
20. What is the purpose of a security baseline?
A) To define legal security requirements
B) To serve as a benchmark for system configurations
C) To set up firewalls
D) To test incident response
Answer: B
Explanation:
A security baseline establishes a standard set of security configurations and practices that must be met to ensure a system’s integrity and protection. It acts as a benchmark for compliance and risk management. Regular audits compare current system settings against this baseline to detect drift and vulnerabilities.
21. What is the role of a Certificate Authority (CA)?
A) To encrypt messages
B) To sign and issue digital certificates
C) To validate passwords
D) To store encryption keys
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Certificate Authority (CA) is a trusted organization that issues and manages digital certificates used in Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). The CA verifies the identity of certificate requesters and digitally signs certificates to ensure authenticity, enabling secure communication, especially in HTTPS transactions and email encryption.
22. What is a zero-day vulnerability?
A) A known bug not yet patched
B) A vulnerability that has not been publicly disclosed
C) A scheduled software update
D) A virus signature in antivirus databases
Answer: B
Explanation:
A zero-day vulnerability is a previously unknown flaw in software that has not yet been patched or disclosed publicly. Hackers can exploit it before vendors develop or release a fix, making it highly dangerous. Zero-day exploits are difficult to detect and defend against without behavior-based detection.
23. Which of the following BEST defines risk?
A) The likelihood of malware infection
B) The impact of a threat multiplied by its likelihood
C) The number of firewalls used
D) The value of company assets
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk in cybersecurity is generally defined as the product of the likelihood of a threat exploiting a vulnerability and the potential impact it would cause. This formula helps organizations prioritize mitigation strategies based on how much damage could occur and how probable the event is.
24. Which access control model uses labels like “Confidential” and “Top Secret”?
A) Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
B) Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C) Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
D) Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mandatory Access Control (MAC) assigns labels to users and objects and strictly enforces access based on these labels. Access decisions are made by the system, not the user or owner, making MAC suitable for military or government environments where security classifications like “Confidential” or “Top Secret” are used.
25. What does the term “hardening” refer to in cybersecurity?
A) Encrypting user data
B) Updating antivirus software
C) Reducing vulnerabilities in a system
D) Installing firewalls
Answer: C
Explanation:
System hardening involves securing a system by reducing its attack surface. This includes removing unnecessary services, closing unused ports, applying security patches, and configuring system settings securely. By minimizing potential entry points, hardening protects systems from exploitation.
26. What is an example of a deterrent security control?
A) Surveillance camera
B) Intrusion prevention system
C) Antivirus software
D) Data backup
Answer: A
Explanation:
A deterrent control discourages potential attackers from attempting to compromise a system. Surveillance cameras act as a psychological deterrent—knowing they’re being watched, malicious actors may decide not to proceed with their attack. They don’t prevent or detect, but they can influence behavior.
27. What is the PRIMARY goal of incident response?
A) Punish the attacker
B) Restore operations and limit damage
C) Notify the media
D) Replace infected hardware
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary goal of incident response is to manage and mitigate the damage caused by security incidents, restore affected systems quickly, and prevent recurrence. A strong incident response plan enables organizations to detect, contain, eradicate, and recover from breaches while preserving evidence for investigation.
28. What is the most effective way to reduce phishing attacks in an organization?
A) Purchase antivirus software
B) Install a new firewall
C) Conduct regular user awareness training
D) Change domain names
Answer: C
Explanation:
Phishing primarily exploits human error, making user awareness training the most effective mitigation technique. Educating employees on recognizing suspicious emails, links, and tactics used by attackers can significantly reduce successful phishing attempts and reinforce a culture of security.
29. Which cloud model offers the most control to the customer?
A) SaaS
B) IaaS
C) PaaS
D) DRaaS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides users with virtualized computing resources like servers, storage, and networking. The customer manages operating systems, applications, and data, offering greater flexibility and control than SaaS or PaaS models. Examples include Amazon EC2 and Microsoft Azure VMs.
30. Which standard governs payment card security worldwide?
A) FISMA
B) HIPAA
C) PCI DSS
D) ISO 27001
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) sets the global framework for securing credit and debit card transactions. Organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data must comply with these standards to protect sensitive financial data and prevent fraud.
31. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a honeypot in cybersecurity?
A) To block unauthorized access
B) To detect and analyze malicious activity
C) To encrypt user credentials
D) To strengthen perimeter defenses
Answer: B
Explanation:
A honeypot is a decoy system or network designed to lure attackers and study their behavior. It doesn’t contain valuable data, but it mimics real environments to attract cybercriminals. By interacting with a honeypot, attackers reveal tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs), allowing defenders to improve their security posture and threat intelligence without risking critical systems.
32. Which of the following BEST defines multifactor authentication (MFA)?
A) Two passwords for each login
B) Use of firewalls and antivirus
C) Authentication using at least two different factor types
D) Using multiple users for approval
Answer: C
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication (MFA) requires users to present two or more different types of evidence to verify their identity. These factors can include something you know (password), something you have (smart card), and something you are (fingerprint). MFA significantly enhances account security, reducing the risk of compromise even if one factor is breached.
33. What type of malware disguises itself as legitimate software?
A) Worm
B) Ransomware
C) Rootkit
D) Trojan horse
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Trojan horse is a type of malware that appears to be legitimate software but performs malicious actions once executed. Trojans often install backdoors, steal data, or give attackers remote access to a system. Unlike viruses or worms, Trojans don’t replicate, but they rely on user interaction to spread.
34. What does the principle of least privilege aim to achieve?
A) Reducing costs
B) Preventing malware infection
C) Minimizing user permissions to only what is necessary
D) Encrypting user passwords
Answer: C
Explanation:
The principle of least privilege ensures that users and systems are granted the minimum access required to perform their tasks. By limiting privileges, this principle reduces the risk of insider threats and restricts the damage in case of credential compromise. It’s a foundational security concept in access control and identity management.
35. Which of the following is an example of a physical security control?
A) Encryption
B) Firewall
C) Security guard
D) Antivirus software
Answer: C
Explanation:
Physical security controls protect physical access to systems and facilities. A security guard deters unauthorized entry and responds to intrusions in real time. Other physical controls include locked doors, fences, biometric scanners, and surveillance cameras. These controls complement technical and administrative controls in a layered security approach.
36. Which vulnerability allows attackers to run arbitrary code in a system’s memory?
A) DDoS
B) Buffer overflow
C) ARP poisoning
D) Brute-force attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
A buffer overflow occurs when a program writes more data to a buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting adjacent memory. This can allow attackers to execute arbitrary code, often gaining control of the system. Developers use input validation and bounds checking to prevent this vulnerability in secure coding practices.
37. Which process verifies the identity of a user or system?
A) Authorization
B) Identification
C) Authentication
D) Accounting
Answer: C
Explanation:
Authentication is the process of verifying a user’s identity, typically by requiring credentials such as a password, smart card, or biometric input. It confirms that the user is who they claim to be. Authentication is often followed by authorization, which determines the user’s access rights within a system.
38. What is the purpose of a digital signature?
A) To encrypt an entire file
B) To verify the sender and ensure message integrity
C) To prevent brute-force attacks
D) To authenticate wireless access points
Answer: B
Explanation:
A digital signature ensures the authenticity and integrity of a digital message or document. It uses asymmetric encryption to allow the recipient to verify that the message came from a trusted sender and wasn’t tampered with. Digital signatures are widely used in email security, code signing, and legal documents.
39. Which of the following attacks is mitigated by strong input validation?
A) DDoS
B) Phishing
C) SQL Injection
D) Password spraying
Answer: C
Explanation:
SQL injection exploits poor input validation in web applications, allowing attackers to insert malicious SQL commands into queries. Proper input validation—including sanitizing and parameterizing inputs—can prevent these attacks by rejecting unexpected or malicious input. It’s a critical practice in secure coding and application security.
40. What is the purpose of the CIA triad in cybersecurity?
A) To categorize attack vectors
B) To guide security awareness programs
C) To represent core security principles
D) To structure firewall rules
Answer: C
Explanation:
The CIA triad stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. It represents the three core goals of cybersecurity. Confidentiality ensures that information is accessed only by authorized parties. Integrity ensures data accuracy and trustworthiness. Availability guarantees that data and systems are accessible when needed. All cybersecurity controls aim to support one or more of these principles.
41. Which tool is used for analyzing network traffic and detecting anomalies?
A) SIEM
B) VPN
C) DNS
D) SMTP
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system aggregates logs and security events from across an organization’s infrastructure. It uses rules, signatures, and behavior analytics to detect unusual activity, generate alerts, and aid in incident response. SIEMs are essential for real-time monitoring and forensic investigations.
42. What does tokenization do to protect sensitive data?
A) Encrypts it using a private key
B) Replaces it with a random value (token)
C) Stores it in a hashed format
D) Deletes it from the system
Answer: B
Explanation:
Tokenization replaces sensitive data (like credit card numbers) with a unique token that has no exploitable value. The real data is stored securely in a token vault. Even if the token is intercepted, it cannot be reverse-engineered. This technique is especially useful in payment systems and data privacy compliance.
43. What is the main risk of using outdated software?
A) Performance degradation
B) Compatibility issues
C) Security vulnerabilities
D) UI glitches
Answer: C
Explanation:
Outdated software often contains known vulnerabilities that attackers can exploit. Without regular updates or patches, these systems become easy targets for malware, ransomware, and other cyber threats. Staying current with patches is a basic yet critical element of an organization’s security posture.
44. What does DNSSEC protect against?
A) Domain hijacking
B) DDoS attacks
C) DNS spoofing and cache poisoning
D) Email phishing
Answer: C
Explanation:
DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC) use cryptographic signatures to ensure that DNS responses are authentic and haven’t been tampered with. This prevents attackers from redirecting users to malicious sites through DNS spoofing or cache poisoning. DNSSEC helps maintain the integrity of domain name resolution.
45. Which type of penetration testing involves full knowledge of the system?
A) Black box
B) Gray box
C) White box
D) Red box
Answer: C
Explanation:
White box testing gives the tester full access to the internal structure, codebase, and architecture of the system being evaluated. This simulates an insider threat or a well-informed attacker and allows for a thorough security assessment. It’s useful for identifying deep, complex vulnerabilities.
46. What is the function of a demilitarized zone (DMZ) in networking?
A) To block all external traffic
B) To isolate internal users from internet access
C) To separate public-facing services from internal networks
D) To store encrypted backups
Answer: C
Explanation:
A DMZ is a segmented network area that hosts public-facing services (like web or email servers) while isolating them from the internal network. This containment reduces the risk that a compromise of public services will lead to an internal breach. Firewalls control access between the DMZ and other network zones.
47. Which attack uses an overwhelming number of requests to disable a system?
A) Man-in-the-middle
B) SQL Injection
C) Denial of Service (DoS)
D) Credential stuffing
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Denial of Service (DoS) attack floods a system, server, or network with excessive traffic, exhausting resources and making services unavailable to legitimate users. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) is a more powerful variant that uses multiple compromised systems to launch the attack simultaneously.
48. Which security model enforces access decisions based on roles within an organization?
A) MAC
B) DAC
C) RBAC
D) ABAC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) assigns permissions based on a user’s job role within an organization. This simplifies access management, enforces separation of duties, and reduces the chances of privilege creep. RBAC is widely used in enterprise environments for scalable and consistent access control.
49. What is sandboxing used for in cybersecurity?
A) Encrypting user data
B) Running untrusted code in isolation
C) Patching system vulnerabilities
D) Blocking phishing attempts
Answer: B
Explanation:
Sandboxing is a technique where suspicious or untrusted code is executed in a controlled, isolated environment. This allows security teams to observe behavior without risking the host system. Sandboxes are often used in malware analysis and to test applications for vulnerabilities before deployment.
50. Which of the following is a benefit of network segmentation?
A) Eliminates need for firewalls
B) Increases broadcast traffic
C) Limits lateral movement of attackers
D) Speeds up internet downloads
Answer: C
Explanation:
Network segmentation divides a network into smaller, isolated sections. If an attacker compromises one segment, they are contained and cannot easily move laterally to access other systems or sensitive data. Segmentation improves security, performance, and helps enforce least privilege across network areas.
