CompTIA Server+ (SK0-005) Certification Exam Practice – Your Ultimate Preparation Resource
The CompTIA Server+ (SK0-005) certification is a globally recognized credential designed for IT professionals who manage, maintain, and troubleshoot server hardware and software in enterprise environments. This certification validates your skills in server architecture, administration, storage, security, networking, and disaster recovery, proving your ability to ensure optimal server performance and reliability.
What You Will Learn
By preparing with this comprehensive practice exam, you will gain in-depth knowledge of critical server technologies including server installation and configuration, storage solutions such as RAID and SAN, virtualization concepts, network services, and troubleshooting techniques. You’ll master best practices for server security, disaster recovery planning, and effective monitoring, equipping you with the hands-on skills required to confidently manage today’s complex server infrastructures.
Key Topics Covered
Server Hardware Architecture and Installation
Operating System Configuration and Management
Storage Solutions and RAID Implementation
Network Services and Protocols
Security Practices for Server Environments
Virtualization and Cloud Integration
Disaster Recovery and Backup Strategies
Performance Monitoring and Troubleshooting
Why Choose Exam Sage for Your Server+ Exam Prep?
Exam Sage offers a meticulously crafted set of realistic practice questions that simulate the actual CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 exam environment. Each question comes with detailed explanations to reinforce your understanding and help you learn from mistakes. Our practice tests are continuously updated to reflect the latest exam objectives and industry standards, ensuring you stay ahead in your certification journey.
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Accurate and up-to-date exam questions
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Flexible study anytime, anywhere
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Prepare effectively, boost your confidence, and pass the CompTIA Server+ certification with flying colors by using Exam Sage’s expert practice resources.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following server types is specifically designed to handle large databases and high transaction volumes?
A) File Server
B) Database Server
C) Web Server
D) Print Server
Answer: B) Database Server
Explanation: A database server is optimized to store, manage, and retrieve large volumes of data efficiently. It supports complex queries and high transaction rates, making it ideal for applications like banking systems and enterprise resource planning (ERP). Unlike file or print servers, database servers require specialized hardware and software to ensure data integrity, concurrency, and performance.
2. What is the purpose of RAID 10 in server environments?
A) Provide fault tolerance and improved read/write performance
B) Maximize storage capacity at minimum cost
C) Provide a backup of the server data on cloud
D) Enhance network connectivity
Answer: A) Provide fault tolerance and improved read/write performance
Explanation: RAID 10 combines RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping), providing redundancy through mirroring and performance gains via striping. This setup protects against disk failure while enhancing I/O speed, making it suitable for critical server applications that require both reliability and speed.
3. Which protocol is commonly used to remotely manage servers via a command-line interface?
A) FTP
B) SSH
C) HTTP
D) SNMP
Answer: B) SSH
Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol used to securely access and manage servers remotely through command-line interfaces. It encrypts the session, preventing unauthorized access, unlike FTP or HTTP, which are less secure. SNMP is primarily used for monitoring, not management.
4. When installing server RAM, what is important to ensure compatibility?
A) The RAM speed should be higher than the CPU speed
B) The RAM type and speed must match the server motherboard specifications
C) The server should have multiple network interfaces
D) The RAM should be unbuffered
Answer: B) The RAM type and speed must match the server motherboard specifications
Explanation: Server motherboards support specific types (e.g., DDR4 ECC Registered) and speeds of RAM. Using incompatible memory can cause system instability or failure to boot. ECC (Error-Correcting Code) memory is often required in servers to detect and correct data corruption.
5. Which hardware component is responsible for converting AC power to DC power in a server?
A) CPU
B) Power Supply Unit (PSU)
C) Network Interface Card (NIC)
D) RAID Controller
Answer: B) Power Supply Unit (PSU)
Explanation: The Power Supply Unit converts the alternating current (AC) from the electrical outlet into the direct current (DC) that server components require. PSUs must provide stable, clean power to prevent hardware damage and support redundancy in critical environments.
6. What is the primary advantage of using blade servers?
A) Increased processing power in a large physical footprint
B) Reduced energy consumption and optimized space usage
C) Independent cooling systems for each server
D) Enhanced graphics processing capabilities
Answer: B) Reduced energy consumption and optimized space usage
Explanation: Blade servers are compact, modular server units that fit into a shared chassis. They save space, reduce cabling, and share power and cooling resources, leading to lower energy costs and easier management in data centers compared to traditional rack servers.
7. In a server environment, what is the role of a KVM switch?
A) It manages server cooling systems
B) It allows multiple servers to be controlled using one keyboard, video monitor, and mouse
C) It encrypts network traffic
D) It monitors server health
Answer: B) It allows multiple servers to be controlled using one keyboard, video monitor, and mouse
Explanation: A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch enables administrators to control several servers from a single console, saving space and simplifying management. It is particularly useful in data centers where physical access to each server is impractical.
8. What does ECC RAM protect servers against?
A) Power surges
B) Data corruption caused by bit errors
C) Network intrusion
D) Hard drive failure
Answer: B) Data corruption caused by bit errors
Explanation: ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM detects and corrects single-bit memory errors, preventing data corruption and system crashes. This is essential for servers handling critical applications, where data integrity is vital.
9. Which of the following describes a hypervisor in a virtualized server environment?
A) A hardware component that controls power supply
B) Software that enables multiple operating systems to run on a single physical server
C) A network switch optimized for server traffic
D) A backup system for server data
Answer: B) Software that enables multiple operating systems to run on a single physical server
Explanation: A hypervisor creates and manages virtual machines on a physical server, allowing multiple OS instances to share hardware resources securely. This increases server utilization and flexibility in data centers.
10. Why is server firmware important?
A) It provides power to the server components
B) It initializes hardware and provides low-level control before the OS loads
C) It acts as antivirus software
D) It manages network traffic
Answer: B) It initializes hardware and provides low-level control before the OS loads
Explanation: Firmware, such as BIOS or UEFI, initializes server hardware at startup, tests components, and loads the operating system bootloader. Keeping firmware updated is critical for security patches, performance, and hardware compatibility.
11. Which type of server is optimized for hosting websites and web applications?
A) File Server
B) Mail Server
C) Web Server
D) Database Server
Answer: C) Web Server
Explanation: A web server hosts websites by serving HTTP requests from clients. It handles web page delivery, web application processing, and can be optimized with caching, SSL support, and load balancing to ensure fast, reliable service.
12. What is the benefit of using redundant power supplies in servers?
A) Lower power consumption
B) Increased reliability and uptime in case one power supply fails
C) Faster processing speeds
D) Reduced server noise
Answer: B) Increased reliability and uptime in case one power supply fails
Explanation: Redundant power supplies allow the server to continue operating even if one power supply fails, which is critical for maintaining uptime in enterprise environments. The failed PSU can be replaced without shutting down the server.
13. What is the function of a RAID controller?
A) It monitors CPU temperature
B) It manages the data stored on multiple hard drives to improve performance or redundancy
C) It controls server network connections
D) It manages power distribution
Answer: B) It manages the data stored on multiple hard drives to improve performance or redundancy
Explanation: A RAID controller manages how data is distributed across multiple drives, enabling configurations such as mirroring, striping, or parity to enhance fault tolerance or speed, depending on the RAID level.
14. What is a primary reason for using server virtualization?
A) To increase physical server count
B) To consolidate workloads and reduce hardware costs
C) To eliminate the need for backups
D) To reduce network traffic
Answer: B) To consolidate workloads and reduce hardware costs
Explanation: Virtualization allows multiple server environments to run on a single physical machine, increasing hardware utilization, lowering power and space requirements, and simplifying management.
15. Which server component controls the temperature and airflow within the chassis?
A) Power Supply Unit
B) Network Interface Card
C) Fans and Cooling System
D) RAID Controller
Answer: C) Fans and Cooling System
Explanation: Fans and cooling systems regulate the internal temperature of the server by dissipating heat generated by components, ensuring reliable operation and preventing overheating damage.
16. What is the function of a Network Interface Card (NIC) in a server?
A) To store data persistently
B) To connect the server to a network for data communication
C) To control power supply
D) To manage virtual machines
Answer: B) To connect the server to a network for data communication
Explanation: The NIC allows a server to send and receive data over a network by converting data between the server’s internal bus and the network medium, supporting protocols like Ethernet.
17. When troubleshooting a server that won’t boot, what should you check first?
A) Server’s network connection
B) Power supply and physical hardware connections
C) RAID configuration
D) Server’s software updates
Answer: B) Power supply and physical hardware connections
Explanation: The first troubleshooting step is to ensure the server is receiving power and that all hardware components are correctly connected, as these are common causes of boot failure before deeper diagnostics.
18. What is the main benefit of ECC memory in a server compared to standard memory?
A) Increased storage capacity
B) Error detection and correction to maintain data integrity
C) Faster data transfer speed
D) Lower cost
Answer: B) Error detection and correction to maintain data integrity
Explanation: ECC memory detects and fixes single-bit errors, preventing data corruption that could cause crashes or incorrect data processing, making it vital for mission-critical servers.
19. What does the term “hot-swappable” refer to in server hardware?
A) Hardware that can be replaced or added without shutting down the system
B) Hardware that runs at high temperatures
C) Components that cannot be removed once installed
D) A type of RAID configuration
Answer: A) Hardware that can be replaced or added without shutting down the system
Explanation: Hot-swappable components, such as hard drives or power supplies, can be replaced or added without interrupting server operation, which enhances uptime and ease of maintenance.
20. What server feature helps protect against data loss during unexpected power failures?
A) UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply)
B) RAID 0
C) SSD Drives
D) BIOS
Answer: A) UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply)
Explanation: A UPS provides battery backup power, allowing servers to keep running during outages or to shut down gracefully, preventing data loss or corruption.
21. Which of the following is a benefit of using SSDs over traditional HDDs in servers?
A) Larger storage capacity
B) Faster data access speeds and lower latency
C) Lower cost per GB
D) Higher power consumption
Answer: B) Faster data access speeds and lower latency
Explanation: SSDs use flash memory, providing quicker data access and reduced latency compared to spinning HDDs, leading to improved server performance, especially for database or high-transaction applications.
22. What is the function of a baseboard management controller (BMC) in a server?
A) It manages the server’s network traffic
B) It provides out-of-band management for monitoring and remote control
C) It stores the operating system
D) It controls RAID arrays
Answer: B) It provides out-of-band management for monitoring and remote control
Explanation: The BMC allows administrators to monitor server health and perform management tasks independently of the operating system, often using protocols like IPMI, improving remote troubleshooting and control.
23. What does the term “server clustering” refer to?
A) Grouping multiple servers to improve availability and load balancing
B) Stacking servers vertically in a rack
C) Configuring servers with multiple CPUs
D) Installing multiple operating systems on one server
Answer: A) Grouping multiple servers to improve availability and load balancing
Explanation: Server clustering connects multiple servers to act as a single system, increasing fault tolerance and distributing workloads to ensure continuous service even if one node fails.
24. In terms of server security, what is the purpose of TPM (Trusted Platform Module)?
A) To speed up network communication
B) To securely store cryptographic keys and enhance hardware security
C) To manage server cooling systems
D) To backup server data
Answer: B) To securely store cryptographic keys and enhance hardware security
Explanation: TPM chips provide hardware-based security functions like key storage, device authentication, and encryption support, helping protect sensitive information from tampering or unauthorized access.
25. Which of the following best describes “server virtualization”?
A) Running multiple virtual servers on a single physical server
B) Using servers without an operating system
C) Connecting servers to external storage devices
D) Increasing the physical size of servers
Answer: A) Running multiple virtual servers on a single physical server
Explanation: Server virtualization abstracts physical hardware to run multiple isolated virtual machines, improving hardware utilization, flexibility, and reducing costs.
26. What is a common cause of server overheating?
A) Incorrect RAID configuration
B) Blocked or malfunctioning cooling fans
C) Excessive network traffic
D) Outdated software
Answer: B) Blocked or malfunctioning cooling fans
Explanation: Overheating often occurs due to poor airflow caused by clogged filters, broken fans, or improper server placement, which can damage components and cause crashes if not addressed.
27. When upgrading server firmware, which precaution is most important?
A) Ensure the server is connected to the internet
B) Backup server data and ensure power stability during the update
C) Disable network connections
D) Remove all peripheral devices
Answer: B) Backup server data and ensure power stability during the update
Explanation: Firmware updates are critical but risky; power loss or interruptions during the process can corrupt firmware and render hardware unusable. Backups and stable power prevent data loss and ensure recovery options.
28. What does IPMI stand for, and why is it important in server management?
A) Internet Protocol Management Interface; for controlling network routers
B) Intelligent Platform Management Interface; for remote server monitoring and management
C) Integrated Peripheral Memory Interface; for server storage
D) Internal Power Management Integration; for power control
Answer: B) Intelligent Platform Management Interface; for remote server monitoring and management
Explanation: IPMI enables administrators to remotely monitor hardware health, control power, and troubleshoot servers independent of the OS, facilitating efficient data center management.
29. What is the difference between a rack server and a tower server?
A) Rack servers are designed for space efficiency and can be mounted in racks; tower servers are standalone units
B) Tower servers have more processing power than rack servers
C) Rack servers cannot be virtualized
D) Tower servers always have redundant power supplies
Answer: A) Rack servers are designed for space efficiency and can be mounted in racks; tower servers are standalone units
Explanation: Rack servers are slim units designed to fit into standardized racks, optimizing space in data centers. Tower servers resemble traditional desktops and are better suited for small offices or environments with less space constraint.
30. Which cooling method is becoming more common for high-density servers in data centers?
A) Air cooling with large fans
B) Liquid cooling or immersion cooling
C) Passive cooling with heat sinks only
D) Natural ventilation through server room windows
Answer: B) Liquid cooling or immersion cooling
Explanation: As server density and heat output increase, liquid cooling and immersion techniques provide more efficient heat dissipation than air cooling. These methods reduce energy use and allow for higher performance hardware in smaller footprints.
Set 2
1. Which RAID level uses striping with parity and requires a minimum of three disks?
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) RAID 10
Answer: C) RAID 5
Explanation: RAID 5 uses block-level striping with distributed parity. It requires at least three disks to provide fault tolerance and improved read performance. Parity data is spread across all disks, allowing recovery from a single disk failure.
2. What is the primary purpose of a BMC (Baseboard Management Controller) in a server?
A) Managing network traffic
B) Controlling power supply
C) Remote management and monitoring
D) Providing additional storage
Answer: C) Remote management and monitoring
Explanation: The BMC allows administrators to remotely monitor and manage the server’s hardware, including power cycling, hardware health monitoring, and remote console access, even if the server OS is down.
3. Which server virtualization type uses a hypervisor installed directly on hardware?
A) Type 1 Hypervisor
B) Type 2 Hypervisor
C) Container-based virtualization
D) Emulation
Answer: A) Type 1 Hypervisor
Explanation: Type 1 hypervisors run directly on the server hardware without a host OS. This allows better performance and resource management compared to Type 2 hypervisors, which run on top of a host OS.
4. Which protocol is used for securely transferring files over an encrypted connection?
A) FTP
B) SFTP
C) TFTP
D) HTTP
Answer: B) SFTP
Explanation: SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) provides secure file transfers over an encrypted SSH connection, protecting data from interception and unauthorized access, unlike FTP or TFTP.
5. When configuring a server for virtualization, what is the significance of VT-x or AMD-V technology?
A) Enables hardware-assisted virtualization
B) Increases disk speed
C) Enhances graphics processing
D) Improves network throughput
Answer: A) Enables hardware-assisted virtualization
Explanation: Intel VT-x and AMD-V are CPU extensions that enable hardware-assisted virtualization, improving VM performance and allowing better isolation and security.
6. What does ECC RAM provide in a server environment?
A) Faster memory speeds
B) Error detection and correction
C) Increased memory capacity
D) Lower latency
Answer: B) Error detection and correction
Explanation: ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM detects and corrects single-bit memory errors, increasing system stability and reducing the chance of data corruption, which is critical for servers.
7. In server environments, what is the function of an LOM (LAN on Motherboard)?
A) Dedicated storage controller
B) Built-in network interface controller
C) Remote power management
D) BIOS update tool
Answer: B) Built-in network interface controller
Explanation: LOM refers to the integrated network interface on the server motherboard, providing basic connectivity without needing an additional NIC card.
8. Which cooling method is commonly used in rack-mounted servers to ensure efficient airflow?
A) Passive cooling
B) Front-to-back airflow
C) Bottom-to-top airflow
D) Side-to-side airflow
Answer: B) Front-to-back airflow
Explanation: Rack servers typically use front-to-back airflow, drawing cool air in from the front and exhausting hot air out the back, to maintain efficient cooling in densely packed racks.
9. What is the default port number used by the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol?
A) 22
B) 80
C) 443
D) 21
Answer: A) 22
Explanation: SSH uses TCP port 22 by default for secure remote login and command execution on servers.
10. Which of the following best describes a SAN (Storage Area Network)?
A) Network-attached storage accessible over LAN
B) A high-speed network connecting storage devices to servers
C) A type of internal server storage
D) Cloud storage service
Answer: B) A high-speed network connecting storage devices to servers
Explanation: A SAN is a dedicated high-speed network that connects servers to block-level storage devices, providing fast and reliable access to shared storage.
11. What is the main advantage of using dual power supplies in servers?
A) Increased performance
B) Redundancy and uptime
C) Improved cooling
D) Enhanced security
Answer: B) Redundancy and uptime
Explanation: Dual power supplies provide redundancy so that if one power supply fails, the other can continue powering the server without downtime.
12. What is the primary function of a KVM switch in a data center?
A) Manage network traffic
B) Switch power sources
C) Control multiple servers using one keyboard, video, and mouse
D) Backup server data
Answer: C) Control multiple servers using one keyboard, video, and mouse
Explanation: A KVM switch allows administrators to control several servers using a single keyboard, monitor, and mouse, saving space and simplifying management.
13. Which file system is commonly used on Windows servers for handling large files and advanced permissions?
A) FAT32
B) NTFS
C) ext4
D) HFS+
Answer: B) NTFS
Explanation: NTFS (New Technology File System) supports large files, advanced security permissions, encryption, and journaling, making it the default choice for Windows servers.
14. What is the purpose of a RAID controller?
A) Manage server cooling
B) Control network traffic
C) Manage disk drives and RAID arrays
D) Handle server virtualization
Answer: C) Manage disk drives and RAID arrays
Explanation: RAID controllers manage multiple physical disks to create RAID arrays, improving performance, redundancy, or both.
15. Which IP addressing method assigns IP addresses automatically within a local network?
A) Static IP
B) DHCP
C) DNS
D) NAT
Answer: B) DHCP
Explanation: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network, simplifying IP management.
16. What server component stores the firmware responsible for initializing hardware during boot?
A) RAM
B) BIOS/UEFI chip
C) Hard drive
D) NIC
Answer: B) BIOS/UEFI chip
Explanation: The BIOS or UEFI firmware initializes hardware components during startup and provides the basic interface between the OS and hardware.
17. What does the term “hot-swappable” mean in relation to server components?
A) Components can be removed only when powered off
B) Components can be replaced while the server is running
C) Components are very fast
D) Components are temperature sensitive
Answer: B) Components can be replaced while the server is running
Explanation: Hot-swappable components, like hard drives or power supplies, can be removed or replaced without shutting down the server, minimizing downtime.
18. What is the role of a DHCP reservation?
A) Reserving IP addresses for future devices
B) Assigning static IP addresses via DHCP based on MAC address
C) Limiting the number of DHCP clients
D) Providing a backup DHCP server
Answer: B) Assigning static IP addresses via DHCP based on MAC address
Explanation: DHCP reservation ensures a specific device always receives the same IP address from the DHCP server based on its MAC address.
19. What does the acronym SAN stand for?
A) Server Attached Network
B) Storage Area Network
C) Secure Access Node
D) System Application Node
Answer: B) Storage Area Network
Explanation: SAN stands for Storage Area Network, which is a dedicated network that provides block-level storage to servers.
20. Which device connects multiple network segments and operates at the data link layer?
A) Router
B) Switch
C) Firewall
D) Hub
Answer: B) Switch
Explanation: A switch operates at Layer 2 (data link layer) and connects multiple devices within the same network segment, forwarding frames based on MAC addresses.
21. What type of backup copies all data regardless of previous backups and takes the most time?
A) Incremental backup
B) Differential backup
C) Full backup
D) Snapshot backup
Answer: C) Full backup
Explanation: Full backup copies all selected data every time, making it the most time-consuming but simplest to restore.
22. What does the term “virtual IP” mean?
A) A physical IP address assigned to a server
B) An IP address shared among multiple devices for redundancy or load balancing
C) A temporary IP address
D) An IP address used in virtual machines only
Answer: B) An IP address shared among multiple devices for redundancy or load balancing
Explanation: A virtual IP address can be assigned to multiple devices for failover or load balancing, allowing seamless service continuity.
23. What is the benefit of using Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) in data centers?
A) Faster disk speed
B) Combines storage and network traffic on a single Ethernet network
C) Better encryption
D) Reduced hardware cost
Answer: B) Combines storage and network traffic on a single Ethernet network
Explanation: FCoE allows Fiber Channel storage traffic to run over standard Ethernet networks, simplifying cabling and reducing infrastructure costs.
24. Which server role is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses?
A) DHCP server
B) DNS server
C) FTP server
D) Proxy server
Answer: B) DNS server
Explanation: DNS servers resolve domain names into IP addresses, enabling users to access websites using human-readable names.
25. What is the main advantage of a blade server in a data center?
A) More powerful CPU
B) Space-saving and modular design
C) Easier software installation
D) Better security features
Answer: B) Space-saving and modular design
Explanation: Blade servers are compact and designed to fit many units into a chassis, saving physical space and reducing power and cooling needs.
26. What is a common cause of “blue screen” errors on a server?
A) Network disconnection
B) Hardware or driver failure
C) Power outage
D) Backup failure
Answer: B) Hardware or driver failure
Explanation: Blue screen errors (BSOD) typically indicate serious system errors caused by hardware faults, driver conflicts, or corrupted system files.
27. What does SFP stand for in networking equipment?
A) Small Form-factor Pluggable
B) Secure File Protocol
C) Server Fiber Port
D) Standard Fiber Port
Answer: A) Small Form-factor Pluggable
Explanation: SFP is a modular transceiver used in networking equipment to support various communication standards like Ethernet or Fiber Channel.
28. Which power supply feature ensures a server continues running during a power failure?
A) Redundant power supply
B) Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
C) Power Factor Correction (PFC)
D) Power supply fan
Answer: B) Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
Explanation: A UPS provides battery backup power during outages, preventing server downtime and data loss.
29. In server architecture, what is NUMA?
A) Network User Management Access
B) Non-Uniform Memory Access
C) Network Unified Management Architecture
D) New User Memory Allocation
Answer: B) Non-Uniform Memory Access
Explanation: NUMA is a memory design in multiprocessor systems where each processor has local memory, improving performance by reducing memory access latency.
30. What is the key difference between SAN and NAS?
A) SAN is block-level storage; NAS is file-level storage
B) SAN is slower than NAS
C) NAS requires special hardware
D) NAS is only used for backups
Answer: A) SAN is block-level storage; NAS is file-level storage
Explanation: SAN provides block-level storage to servers, while NAS provides file-level storage accessible over a network, often via protocols like NFS or SMB.
