What is the Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) Exam?
The Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) exam is a crucial certification test for network professionals who aim to demonstrate expertise in designing scalable, resilient, and secure Cisco network solutions. This exam evaluates your ability to architect enterprise network services that meet complex business requirements. Whether you’re preparing for the Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE) or seeking to validate your knowledge in network design principles, the ARCH exam is a vital step in advancing your career in network architecture.
What Will You Learn?
Our ARCH practice exam is meticulously designed to help you master key concepts that are essential for the actual exam and real-world network design challenges. By using this practice test, you will:
Understand advanced enterprise network design methodologies
Learn to design Cisco Enterprise Networks incorporating security, virtualization, automation, and cloud integration
Gain expertise in multi-layer network services such as routing, switching, WAN technologies, and QoS
Develop skills to architect network scalability, high availability, and performance optimization
Explore Cisco-specific technologies including Cisco ACI, SD-WAN, TrustSec, and Segment Routing
Topics Covered in This Practice Exam
Our comprehensive practice questions cover all critical domains of the ARCH exam, including but not limited to:
Enterprise Network Design Principles and Methodologies
Network Security Design and Segmentation
Data Center Network Architecture (including Cisco ACI and VXLAN)
WAN Design and Cisco SD-WAN Architecture
Network Automation and Programmability
Quality of Service (QoS) and Network Assurance
Routing Protocol Design and Optimization
Integration of Cloud Services and Virtualized Network Functions
Why Choose Exam Sage for Your ARCH Exam Preparation?
At ExamSage.com, we understand the importance of quality, accuracy, and practical relevance in certification exam preparation. Our Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures practice exam features:
Realistic, scenario-based multiple-choice questions that mirror the exam’s difficulty level
Detailed explanations with each answer to deepen your understanding
Regular updates aligned with the latest Cisco exam blueprint and technology trends
A user-friendly platform that allows flexible practice anytime, anywhere
Trusted by thousands of network professionals worldwide who have successfully passed their Cisco certifications
Prepare confidently for your Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures certification with Exam Sage — your trusted partner in career advancement. Start practicing today and take a decisive step towards becoming a Cisco network design expert!
Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which Cisco design methodology phase focuses on gathering business requirements, constraints, and assumptions?
A) Implementation
B) Operation
C) Assessment
D) Optimization
Answer: C) Assessment
Explanation: The Assessment phase involves understanding business goals, requirements, constraints, and assumptions to align the network design with organizational needs.
2. What is the primary benefit of using Cisco TrustSec in a network design?
A) Traffic encryption across WAN links
B) Segmentation based on user roles
C) Dynamic routing protocol optimization
D) Load balancing across redundant links
Answer: B) Segmentation based on user roles
Explanation: Cisco TrustSec provides role-based access control and segmentation by assigning security group tags (SGTs) to users and devices.
3. In a Cisco ACI fabric, what is the primary role of the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC)?
A) Physical cabling management
B) Policy and automation management
C) Routing traffic between endpoints
D) Hardware firewall configuration
Answer: B) Policy and automation management
Explanation: APIC is the centralized controller for policy, automation, and health monitoring in Cisco ACI environments.
4. Which routing protocol is recommended for large-scale enterprise designs requiring fast convergence and scalability?
A) RIP
B) OSPF
C) BGP
D) EIGRP
Answer: C) BGP
Explanation: BGP is highly scalable and used for enterprise WAN designs, especially where multiple connections to service providers exist.
5. What feature allows Cisco DNA Center to automatically discover and inventory network devices?
A) NetFlow
B) LLDP
C) SNMP
D) Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
Answer: B) LLDP
Explanation: LLDP enables network devices to advertise their identity and capabilities for discovery purposes by management tools like Cisco DNA Center.
6. Which Cisco technology provides application-level visibility and control in network service architectures?
A) Cisco AVC (Application Visibility and Control)
B) Cisco TrustSec
C) Cisco ISE
D) Cisco VSS
Answer: A) Cisco AVC
Explanation: Cisco AVC offers deep visibility into application traffic and provides controls to prioritize or throttle traffic based on policies.
7. Which design principle emphasizes separating control plane functions from data forwarding in a Cisco SDN environment?
A) Overlay networking
B) Northbound APIs
C) Control and data plane separation
D) East-West traffic optimization
Answer: C) Control and data plane separation
Explanation: SDN architecture separates control (decision making) from data forwarding to enable centralized management and automation.
8. Which Cisco design approach supports seamless scalability and agility by abstracting the physical network infrastructure?
A) Traditional three-tier design
B) Cisco ACI
C) Cisco VSS
D) Cisco StackWise
Answer: B) Cisco ACI
Explanation: Cisco ACI abstracts the physical infrastructure through a policy-based, software-defined approach, improving scalability and agility.
9. What is the key benefit of using MPLS VPNs in enterprise WAN designs?
A) Simplifies routing protocol configuration
B) Provides end-to-end QoS
C) Enables secure, scalable multi-tenant connectivity
D) Reduces the need for redundant hardware
Answer: C) Enables secure, scalable multi-tenant connectivity
Explanation: MPLS VPNs offer isolated, scalable connectivity for multiple customers or departments over shared infrastructure.
10. Which Cisco design best practice helps reduce broadcast domains and improve network performance?
A) VLAN pruning
B) Subnetting
C) Aggregated Ethernet links
D) Using NAT
Answer: B) Subnetting
Explanation: Proper subnetting limits broadcast domains, improving efficiency and reducing unnecessary traffic.
11. In a Cisco SD-WAN architecture, which component is responsible for centralized control and policy management?
A) vEdge Router
B) vSmart Controller
C) vBond Orchestrator
D) vManage
Answer: B) vSmart Controller
Explanation: The vSmart controller manages control plane functions and enforces policies in Cisco SD-WAN.
12. What technology allows for dynamic path selection based on application type and performance metrics in Cisco SD-WAN?
A) OSPF routing
B) BGP policy maps
C) Performance Routing (PfR)
D) SLA-based routing
Answer: D) SLA-based routing
Explanation: Cisco SD-WAN uses SLA-based routing to dynamically select optimal paths based on application requirements and link performance.
13. Which Cisco platform provides integrated wireless LAN and SD-Access fabric capabilities?
A) Cisco Meraki
B) Cisco Catalyst 9000 Series
C) Cisco Nexus 7000
D) Cisco ASA Firewall
Answer: B) Cisco Catalyst 9000 Series
Explanation: Cisco Catalyst 9000 switches support Cisco SD-Access and integrate wired and wireless networking capabilities.
14. Which Cisco technology is primarily used to segment users and devices dynamically across a campus network?
A) VLANs
B) Private VLANs
C) Cisco TrustSec
D) EtherChannel
Answer: C) Cisco TrustSec
Explanation: TrustSec provides dynamic segmentation based on identity and role, beyond static VLAN assignments.
15. When designing a Cisco network with high availability, which redundancy protocol ensures fast failover on a Layer 2 network?
A) HSRP
B) VRRP
C) GLBP
D) Spanning Tree Protocol
Answer: D) Spanning Tree Protocol
Explanation: STP prevents loops in Layer 2 networks and ensures redundancy by blocking redundant paths and quickly reconverging after failures.
16. Which Cisco security feature provides threat detection and response by analyzing network traffic behavior?
A) Cisco ASA
B) Cisco ISE
C) Cisco Stealthwatch
D) Cisco Umbrella
Answer: C) Cisco Stealthwatch
Explanation: Stealthwatch uses behavioral analytics to detect threats by monitoring network traffic flows.
17. What is the primary function of Cisco ISE in network design?
A) Firewall management
B) Centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA)
C) IP address management
D) Routing protocol configuration
Answer: B) Centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA)
Explanation: Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) controls network access policies and authenticates devices and users.
18. What is the benefit of using Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in enterprise WAN designs?
A) Encryption of data flows
B) Multipath routing across WAN links
C) Creating multiple isolated routing domains on the same router
D) Simplifying VLAN assignments
Answer: C) Creating multiple isolated routing domains on the same router
Explanation: VRF allows multiple routing instances to coexist on one device, isolating traffic for security or organizational needs.
19. Which Cisco technology enables zero-touch provisioning of network devices?
A) Cisco Prime
B) Cisco DNA Center
C) Cisco Smart Install
D) Cisco APIC-EM
Answer: C) Cisco Smart Install
Explanation: Cisco Smart Install automates device configuration during deployment without manual intervention.
20. When designing QoS for voice traffic, which marking method is recommended for end-to-end QoS?
A) IP precedence
B) DSCP
C) MPLS EXP bits
D) VLAN priority bits
Answer: B) DSCP
Explanation: DSCP (Differentiated Services Code Point) is used for consistent QoS marking across networks.
21. What type of Cisco VPN is best suited for providing secure remote access to mobile users?
A) Site-to-site IPsec VPN
B) SSL VPN
C) DMVPN
D) MPLS VPN
Answer: B) SSL VPN
Explanation: SSL VPNs are user-friendly, secure, and suitable for remote client access over the internet.
22. Which Cisco tool is used for network modeling and simulation during the design phase?
A) Cisco Packet Tracer
B) Cisco Modeling Labs (CML)
C) Cisco DNA Center
D) Cisco Prime Infrastructure
Answer: B) Cisco Modeling Labs (CML)
Explanation: Cisco CML allows realistic network simulations to validate designs before deployment.
23. In Cisco ACI, what object represents a collection of endpoints with similar policy requirements?
A) Tenant
B) Application Profile
C) Endpoint Group (EPG)
D) Bridge Domain
Answer: C) Endpoint Group (EPG)
Explanation: EPGs group endpoints that share the same policies, enabling scalable and consistent policy enforcement.
24. Which of the following is a key design consideration when integrating cloud services into Cisco network architectures?
A) Increasing VLAN sizes
B) Implementing cloud-native security and connectivity models
C) Avoiding SDN technologies
D) Limiting WAN bandwidth
Answer: B) Implementing cloud-native security and connectivity models
Explanation: Cloud integration requires security and connectivity solutions designed for cloud environments, such as secure tunnels and identity federation.
25. What protocol is commonly used to enable multicast routing in Cisco enterprise networks?
A) IGMP
B) PIM
C) EIGRP
D) OSPF
Answer: B) PIM
Explanation: Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) is used to route multicast traffic efficiently.
26. What is the primary advantage of Cisco StackWise technology?
A) Simplifies Layer 3 routing
B) Combines multiple switches into a single logical unit
C) Enhances WAN throughput
D) Enables VLAN tagging
Answer: B) Combines multiple switches into a single logical unit
Explanation: StackWise allows multiple physical switches to operate as one, simplifying management and increasing redundancy.
27. Which Cisco solution provides centralized management and orchestration of SD-WAN deployments?
A) Cisco vManage
B) Cisco APIC
C) Cisco ISE
D) Cisco Prime
Answer: A) Cisco vManage
Explanation: vManage is the management dashboard for Cisco SD-WAN deployments.
28. Which design element is crucial to ensure network scalability in a large campus environment?
A) Single large VLAN spanning all switches
B) Modular design with distribution and access layers
C) Using only Layer 2 switching
D) Flattened network with no hierarchy
Answer: B) Modular design with distribution and access layers
Explanation: A modular hierarchical design allows easier expansion and better control.
29. When designing a secure network, which Cisco feature allows dynamic VLAN assignment based on user identity?
A) Port security
B) 802.1X with RADIUS and ISE integration
C) Static VLAN assignment
D) DHCP snooping
Answer: B) 802.1X with RADIUS and ISE integration
Explanation: 802.1X combined with Cisco ISE and RADIUS enables dynamic VLAN assignment and access control based on user authentication.
30. Which Cisco technology supports fabric overlay networks with VXLAN encapsulation?
A) Cisco TrustSec
B) Cisco ACI
C) Cisco DNA Center
D) Cisco VSS
Answer: B) Cisco ACI
Explanation: Cisco ACI uses VXLAN for overlay networking, providing scalable multi-tenant segmentation.
31. In Cisco SD-Access, what is the function of the Control Plane Node?
A) Manages endpoint policy enforcement
B) Runs the fabric control protocols and maintains reachability information
C) Provides wireless access services
D) Acts as a DHCP server
Answer: B) Runs the fabric control protocols and maintains reachability information
Explanation: Control Plane Nodes run protocols like LISP to maintain endpoint reachability in the SD-Access fabric.
32. Which Cisco protocol is used to extend Layer 2 connectivity over Layer 3 networks in a scalable manner?
A) GRE
B) VXLAN
C) MPLS
D) LISP
Answer: B) VXLAN
Explanation: VXLAN encapsulates Layer 2 frames inside Layer 3 UDP packets, enabling scalable Layer 2 overlays.
33. What is the primary reason for implementing route summarization in a Cisco network design?
A) Improve IP address utilization
B) Reduce routing table size and update traffic
C) Increase network security
D) Simplify VLAN management
Answer: B) Reduce routing table size and update traffic
Explanation: Summarization helps reduce the number of routes exchanged between routers, improving efficiency.
34. In a Cisco ACI environment, what is a Tenant?
A) A physical switch in the fabric
B) A logical container for application policies and network resources
C) A virtual machine hosted on a leaf switch
D) A Layer 3 routed interface
Answer: B) A logical container for application policies and network resources
Explanation: Tenants isolate applications and policies, allowing multi-tenancy within the same fabric.
35. Which QoS mechanism classifies traffic and assigns it to priority queues on Cisco devices?
A) Traffic shaping
B) Classification and marking
C) Route summarization
D) VLAN tagging
Answer: B) Classification and marking
Explanation: Classification identifies traffic types, and marking assigns DSCP or CoS values for QoS treatment.
36. What is the key benefit of using Cisco VSS (Virtual Switching System)?
A) Enables higher speed wireless access
B) Provides switch redundancy and logical switch management
C) Encrypts WAN traffic
D) Offers better NAT performance
Answer: B) Provides switch redundancy and logical switch management
Explanation: VSS merges two physical switches into a single logical switch, increasing redundancy and simplifying management.
37. Which component in Cisco SD-WAN validates and authorizes devices before joining the network?
A) vManage
B) vBond Orchestrator
C) vSmart Controller
D) vEdge Router
Answer: B) vBond Orchestrator
Explanation: vBond orchestrates device authentication and authorization in Cisco SD-WAN deployments.
38. When designing for high availability in Cisco WAN architectures, which design principle should be prioritized?
A) Use of redundant links and devices
B) Minimizing subnet sizes
C) Limiting VLAN usage
D) Avoiding routing protocols
Answer: A) Use of redundant links and devices
Explanation: Redundancy in both links and hardware ensures failover and continuous network availability.
39. Which protocol is typically used for secure management of Cisco network devices?
A) Telnet
B) HTTP
C) SSH
D) FTP
Answer: C) SSH
Explanation: SSH encrypts management traffic, protecting device access over the network.
40. What is the primary purpose of Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tags (SGTs)?
A) To encrypt data traffic
B) To identify and enforce access policies based on user/device role
C) To route multicast traffic
D) To manage VLAN IDs
Answer: B) To identify and enforce access policies based on user/device role
Explanation: SGTs tag traffic with security group information for dynamic policy enforcement.
41. Which Cisco technology integrates endpoint identity and network policy enforcement across wired and wireless?
A) Cisco ISE
B) Cisco Prime
C) Cisco DNA Center
D) Cisco Stealthwatch
Answer: A) Cisco ISE
Explanation: Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) provides centralized identity-based access control across all network access types.
42. In the context of Cisco architectures, what does the term “northbound API” refer to?
A) Interfaces between network devices
B) Interfaces for controllers to communicate with applications or management systems
C) Protocols used for device discovery
D) API between switches and routers
Answer: B) Interfaces for controllers to communicate with applications or management systems
Explanation: Northbound APIs allow SDN controllers to expose data and control to higher-level applications.
43. Which Cisco feature provides dynamic ARP inspection to prevent ARP spoofing attacks?
A) Port Security
B) DHCP Snooping
C) Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
D) IP Source Guard
Answer: C) Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
Explanation: DAI validates ARP packets and blocks spoofed ARP messages to enhance security.
44. What is the function of the Cisco APIC-EM in network design?
A) Centralized SDN controller for enterprise networks
B) Physical switch configuration
C) Wireless client management
D) Firewall policy enforcement
Answer: A) Centralized SDN controller for enterprise networks
Explanation: APIC-EM provides centralized control and automation for Cisco enterprise networks.
45. Which Cisco protocol allows a router to exchange routing information with other routers in a different autonomous system?
A) OSPF
B) BGP
C) EIGRP
D) RIP
Answer: B) BGP
Explanation: BGP exchanges routing information between different autonomous systems (inter-AS routing).
46. In Cisco SD-WAN, what is the primary role of the vEdge router?
A) Control plane management
B) Policy configuration
C) Data plane forwarding and encryption
D) Central orchestration
Answer: C) Data plane forwarding and encryption
Explanation: vEdge routers handle data forwarding and establish secure tunnels in SD-WAN.
47. What is a common characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 9000 series switches?
A) Support for legacy protocols only
B) Designed for cloud-only environments
C) Support for advanced security, automation, and programmability features
D) Limited Layer 3 capabilities
Answer: C) Support for advanced security, automation, and programmability features
Explanation: Catalyst 9000 series offers modern features needed for enterprise digital transformation.
48. Which Cisco technology is designed to reduce complexity by automating configuration and provisioning?
A) Cisco DNA Center
B) Cisco Prime
C) Cisco ISE
D) Cisco ASA
Answer: A) Cisco DNA Center
Explanation: DNA Center automates device provisioning, policy enforcement, and network assurance.
49. Which routing protocol is known for its fast convergence and suitability for large enterprise LAN environments?
A) RIP
B) OSPF
C) BGP
D) EIGRP
Answer: B) OSPF
Explanation: OSPF converges quickly and supports hierarchical design with areas.
50. What does the term “overlay network” mean in Cisco network designs?
A) Physical cabling setup
B) A virtual network built on top of an existing physical network
C) A separate management network
D) VLAN-based segmentation
Answer: B) A virtual network built on top of an existing physical network
Explanation: Overlays (e.g., VXLAN) encapsulate traffic to create logical networks independent of the physical topology.
51. Which Cisco security feature can quarantine devices that fail posture assessments?
A) Cisco ISE Guest Access
B) Cisco ISE Posture Services
C) Cisco TrustSec
D) Cisco Stealthwatch
Answer: B) Cisco ISE Posture Services
Explanation: Posture services evaluate endpoint compliance and quarantine non-compliant devices.
52. Which tool would you use to model network behavior and simulate complex Cisco network designs before deployment?
A) Cisco Packet Tracer
B) Cisco Modeling Labs (CML)
C) Cisco Prime Infrastructure
D) Cisco DNA Center
Answer: B) Cisco Modeling Labs (CML)
Explanation: CML allows realistic network simulation with Cisco IOS images.
53. What is the main purpose of the Cisco FabricPath protocol?
A) Enhance routing between data centers
B) Replace spanning tree with a scalable Layer 2 multipath protocol
C) Provide secure VPN tunnels
D) Manage wireless clients
Answer: B) Replace spanning tree with a scalable Layer 2 multipath protocol
Explanation: FabricPath enables loop-free multipath Layer 2 forwarding, improving scalability.
54. Which Cisco wireless standard supports MU-MIMO to improve performance in dense environments?
A) 802.11n
B) 802.11ac Wave 2
C) 802.11g
D) 802.11a
Answer: B) 802.11ac Wave 2
Explanation: MU-MIMO allows multiple clients to be served simultaneously, enhancing throughput.
55. What Cisco solution helps provide secure internet access for branch offices without backhauling traffic?
A) Cisco Umbrella
B) Cisco ASA
C) Cisco Meraki MX
D) Cisco AnyConnect
Answer: A) Cisco Umbrella
Explanation: Umbrella provides cloud-based secure internet gateway services, reducing backhaul.
56. What is the purpose of the Cisco Embedded Event Manager (EEM)?
A) Automate tasks and respond to network events locally on Cisco devices
B) Manage user authentication
C) Control SDN policies
D) Provide firewall services
Answer: A) Automate tasks and respond to network events locally on Cisco devices
Explanation: EEM allows scripts and actions to be triggered based on device events.
57. Which Cisco technology allows policy enforcement across different network devices based on identity?
A) Cisco TrustSec
B) VLANs
C) ACLs
D) NAT
Answer: A) Cisco TrustSec
Explanation: TrustSec enforces access policies using identity-based tagging (SGTs).
58. In Cisco DNA Center, which feature helps monitor network health and user experience?
A) Assurance
B) Automation
C) Configuration templates
D) Device inventory
Answer: A) Assurance
Explanation: Assurance uses telemetry to provide real-time insights on network and client health.
59. What is the key difference between Cisco SD-Access and traditional campus designs?
A) SD-Access uses static VLANs exclusively
B) SD-Access separates control and data planes with centralized policy enforcement
C) SD-Access does not support wireless networks
D) Traditional designs use overlays
Answer: B) SD-Access separates control and data planes with centralized policy enforcement
Explanation: SD-Access uses an SDN approach with overlays and centralized policy, unlike static traditional designs.
60. Which Cisco protocol allows Layer 2 extension over Layer 3 networks for data center interconnect?
A) OTV (Overlay Transport Virtualization)
B) VTP
C) GLBP
D) HSRP
Answer: A) OTV (Overlay Transport Virtualization)
Explanation: OTV allows Layer 2 adjacency between geographically separated data centers over Layer 3 networks.
