Developmental Psychology Practice Test
Which of the following theorists is best known for his stages of cognitive development?
A) Erik Erikson
B) Jean Piaget
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Lev Vygotsky
According to Erik Erikson, the primary psychosocial conflict of adolescence is:
A) Initiative vs. Guilt
B) Identity vs. Role Confusion
C) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
D) Integrity vs. Despair
The process by which infants develop an emotional bond with their primary caregivers is called:
A) Social referencing
B) Attachment
C) Temperament
D) Habituation
Vygotsky’s concept of the “zone of proximal development” refers to:
A) The range of tasks that a child can perform independently
B) The difference between what a child can do alone and what they can do with assistance
C) The biological maturation of cognitive skills
D) The stage of moral reasoning achieved in adolescence
Which research method is most commonly used to study developmental change over time?
A) Case study
B) Cross-sectional study
C) Longitudinal study
D) Experimental study
The nature vs. nurture debate in developmental psychology primarily concerns:
A) The impact of parenting styles on intelligence
B) The relative influence of genetics and environment on development
C) The role of early childhood education in cognitive growth
D) The effect of birth order on personality
In Piaget’s theory, the ability to think logically about concrete objects and events emerges in which stage?
A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational
According to Kohlberg, moral development progresses through levels based on:
A) Cognitive abilities
B) Social interactions
C) Responses to moral dilemmas
D) Parental guidance
Which of the following is NOT considered a teratogen?
A) Alcohol
B) Nicotine
C) Folic acid
D) Radiation
The term “critical period” in development refers to:
A) A stage where a child learns language most effectively
B) The time when an individual first reaches puberty
C) A specific timeframe when certain experiences are essential for normal development
D) The phase during which attachment is strongest
Which parenting style, as defined by Baumrind, is characterized by high responsiveness and high demands?
A) Authoritative
B) Authoritarian
C) Permissive
D) Neglectful
The concept of “theory of mind” is most closely associated with:
A) The ability to think abstractly
B) Understanding that others have beliefs and perspectives different from one’s own
C) The role of genetics in intelligence
D) Memory development in infancy
Which of the following is an example of a primary sex characteristic?
A) Facial hair growth
B) Breast development
C) Ovaries
D) Deepening voice
According to Erikson, the psychosocial stage of late adulthood is centered on:
A) Generativity vs. Stagnation
B) Identity vs. Role Confusion
C) Integrity vs. Despair
D) Intimacy vs. Isolation
Harlow’s research with rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of:
A) Social reinforcement in behavior
B) Nutrition in early development
C) Contact comfort in attachment
D) Imitation in learning
Which of the following best describes the cephalocaudal trend in physical development?
A) Growth from the center of the body outward
B) Growth from head to tail
C) Development occurring at the same rate across all body parts
D) Development occurring in response to environmental stimuli
The Strange Situation experiment, conducted by Mary Ainsworth, assessed:
A) Infant attachment styles
B) Parental disciplinary styles
C) Cognitive development in toddlers
D) Moral reasoning in children
Adolescents often believe that they are unique and invulnerable, a cognitive distortion known as:
A) Personal fable
B) Imaginary audience
C) Egocentrism
D) Self-concept
Which of the following best illustrates a cohort effect in developmental research?
A) Older adults performing worse on memory tests due to aging
B) Children learning language at different rates
C) Differences in attitudes toward technology between generations
D) Identical twins displaying different personalities
The first stage of prenatal development is called the:
A) Embryonic stage
B) Germinal stage
C) Fetal stage
D) Neonatal stage
In classical conditioning, a stimulus that naturally triggers a response is known as the:
A) Conditioned stimulus
B) Unconditioned stimulus
C) Neutral stimulus
D) Conditioned response
The ability to maintain attention on a task despite distractions is known as:
A) Working memory
B) Selective attention
C) Executive function
D) Sustained engagement
According to Bowlby, attachment is primarily influenced by:
A) Genetic factors
B) The responsiveness of the caregiver
C) Sibling relationships
D) Peer interactions
What type of memory declines most with age?
A) Procedural memory
B) Semantic memory
C) Working memory
D) Implicit memory
Which reflex is present at birth and disappears within a few months?
A) Grasp reflex
B) Moro reflex
C) Rooting reflex
D) All of the above
The leading cause of cognitive decline in late adulthood is:
A) Alzheimer’s disease
B) Parkinson’s disease
C) Stroke
D) Dementia with Lewy bodies
Which theory suggests that aging results from accumulated cellular damage?
A) Programmed aging theory
B) Wear-and-tear theory
C) Socioemotional selectivity theory
D) Disengagement theory
Fluid intelligence typically:
A) Increases with age
B) Declines in middle to late adulthood
C) Remains stable throughout life
D) Is unrelated to aging
Which of the following is an example of scaffolding in learning?
A) A teacher demonstrating a math problem before letting students try
B) A child solving a puzzle without help
C) A parent allowing a child to explore independently
D) A student memorizing facts for a test
According to Bronfenbrenner, the mesosystem refers to:
A) Interactions between a child’s microsystems
B) The societal influences on development
C) Direct interactions with caregivers
D) Biological influences on development
31. Which of the following best describes a critical period in development?
A) A time when a child learns best through imitation
B) A phase when specific biological or environmental events must occur for normal development
C) The period before adolescence when social skills develop
D) A stage in which children rapidly acquire language skills
32. Which researcher is best known for the concept of “moral development”?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Erik Erikson
C) Lawrence Kohlberg
D) John Watson
33. The process by which unused neural connections in the brain are eliminated over time is known as:
A) Myelination
B) Synaptic pruning
C) Neuroplasticity
D) Habituation
34. Which of the following best represents an example of assimilation, according to Piaget?
A) A child adjusts their understanding of birds after seeing a bat
B) A toddler calls all four-legged animals “dogs”
C) A child corrects their mistake when they see a horse and learn its proper name
D) A child stops playing with a toy after repeated exposure
35. Which of the following is an example of a secondary sex characteristic?
A) Ovaries
B) Sperm production
C) Facial hair growth
D) Estrogen release
36. The “imaginary audience” phenomenon in adolescent egocentrism refers to:
A) Adolescents believing others are constantly watching and judging them
B) The tendency of teenagers to form cliques
C) The belief that rules do not apply to them
D) The ability to think abstractly about hypothetical scenarios
37. Which of the following is NOT one of the three major temperament styles identified by Thomas and Chess?
A) Easy
B) Difficult
C) Slow-to-warm-up
D) Passive
38. A child who cries when their mother leaves the room but is easily comforted upon her return likely has which attachment style?
A) Secure
B) Avoidant
C) Ambivalent
D) Disorganized
39. What is the primary goal of hospice care in late adulthood?
A) To cure terminal illnesses
B) To extend life expectancy
C) To provide comfort and improve quality of life
D) To prevent cognitive decline
40. The ability to recognize that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight is called:
A) Conservation
B) Object permanence
C) Egocentrism
D) Symbolic thinking
41. Which of the following best describes the authoritarian parenting style?
A) High warmth, high control
B) Low warmth, low control
C) High warmth, low control
D) Low warmth, high control
42. Which of the following is a major criticism of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?
A) It does not account for cognitive development
B) It underestimates the role of genetics
C) It is biased toward Western, male perspectives
D) It fails to explain how emotions influence moral reasoning
43. What is the difference between primary and secondary aging?
A) Primary aging is genetic, while secondary aging results from lifestyle and environment
B) Primary aging is reversible, while secondary aging is not
C) Primary aging occurs after age 65, while secondary aging happens earlier
D) Primary aging refers to physical changes, while secondary aging refers to cognitive decline
44. Which stage of prenatal development is most vulnerable to teratogens?
A) Germinal stage
B) Embryonic stage
C) Fetal stage
D) Neonatal stage
45. What is the primary focus of socioemotional selectivity theory in late adulthood?
A) The decline of cognitive abilities
B) The shift toward emotionally meaningful relationships
C) The role of physical activity in aging
D) The loss of independence in older adults
46. Which term describes a child’s ability to understand that changing the shape of an object does not change its amount?
A) Object permanence
B) Conservation
C) Reversibility
D) Centration
47. Which theorist proposed the ecological systems model of development?
A) Lev Vygotsky
B) Urie Bronfenbrenner
C) Erik Erikson
D) Jean Piaget
48. Which of the following is an example of a normative age-graded influence on development?
A) Getting married
B) Learning to walk at age one
C) Winning the lottery
D) Experiencing the Great Depression
49. In Bandura’s social learning theory, what role does modeling play in development?
A) It influences behavior through reinforcement and punishment
B) It allows children to learn through direct instruction
C) It enables learning by observing and imitating others
D) It is only effective during early childhood
50. The ability to focus on multiple aspects of a problem at once, which develops during the concrete operational stage, is called:
A) Egocentrism
B) Conservation
C) Decentration
D) Assimilation
51. Which term refers to the biological unfolding of an individual according to a genetic blueprint?
A) Socialization
B) Maturation
C) Assimilation
D) Accommodation
52. Which of the following research designs studies multiple age groups at one point in time?
A) Longitudinal
B) Cross-sectional
C) Case study
D) Experimental
53. According to Erikson, which stage is characterized by the conflict of trust vs. mistrust?
A) Toddlerhood
B) Infancy
C) Adolescence
D) Early childhood
54. What is the term for the process by which a person integrates new information into existing schemas?
A) Assimilation
B) Accommodation
C) Equilibration
D) Object permanence
55. The idea that intelligence can be divided into crystallized and fluid forms was proposed by:
A) Howard Gardner
B) Robert Sternberg
C) Raymond Cattell
D) Charles Spearman
56. Which of the following is a major characteristic of the formal operational stage in Piaget’s theory?
A) Object permanence
B) Abstract thinking
C) Centration
D) Egocentrism
57. What is the primary goal of developmental psychology?
A) To diagnose mental disorders
B) To examine changes in behavior and thought across the lifespan
C) To determine intelligence levels in different age groups
D) To study the effects of personality on human relationships
58. The rooting reflex in newborns helps them:
A) Avoid falling
B) Grasp objects
C) Suck for nourishment
D) Turn toward touch for feeding
59. Which term refers to the ability to delay gratification and control impulses?
A) Emotional intelligence
B) Executive function
C) Fluid intelligence
D) Object permanence
60. In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory, which system consists of immediate relationships, such as family and school?
A) Microsystem
B) Mesosystem
C) Exosystem
D) Macrosystem
61. Which of the following is an example of extrinsic motivation?
A) Studying because you enjoy learning
B) Exercising to improve personal health
C) Completing assignments to earn a reward
D) Reading a book for pleasure
62. The term “habituation” refers to:
A) A decrease in responsiveness to a repeated stimulus
B) The ability to imitate behaviors
C) Increased attention to a novel stimulus
D) A sudden increase in motor skills
63. What is the primary role of mirror neurons in development?
A) Controlling motor movement
B) Facilitating observational learning
C) Regulating emotions
D) Strengthening memory retrieval
64. What is the term for speech that consists of only key words and lacks grammatical structure, common in toddlers?
A) Telegraphic speech
B) Babbling
C) Holophrastic speech
D) Overregularization
65. In classical conditioning, what is the response that is automatically triggered by an unconditioned stimulus?
A) Conditioned stimulus
B) Conditioned response
C) Unconditioned response
D) Neutral stimulus
66. Adolescents often feel invincible and underestimate risks. This is called:
A) Personal fable
B) Imaginary audience
C) Egocentrism
D) Conservation
67. A child who has difficulty understanding another person’s perspective is displaying:
A) Conservation
B) Object permanence
C) Egocentrism
D) Theory of mind
68. Which parenting style is associated with children who exhibit high self-esteem and social competence?
A) Authoritative
B) Authoritarian
C) Permissive
D) Neglectful
69. The process by which people develop a sense of who they are and what they want to become is called:
A) Self-concept
B) Identity formation
C) Socialization
D) Self-efficacy
70. What is the term for a child’s understanding that gender remains constant over time?
A) Gender stability
B) Gender schema
C) Gender identity
D) Gender constancy
71. Which neurotransmitter is associated with mood regulation and plays a role in depression?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Glutamate
72. The “strange situation” experiment by Mary Ainsworth assessed:
A) Infant memory
B) Infant attachment styles
C) Parenting styles
D) Sibling relationships
73. Which of the following is a primary developmental task in early adulthood?
A) Developing a sense of identity
B) Establishing intimate relationships
C) Achieving generativity
D) Resolving trust vs. mistrust
74. What is a key criticism of Piaget’s theory?
A) It overemphasizes social influences
B) It underestimates the cognitive abilities of infants and young children
C) It ignores biological factors
D) It fails to explain learning in adolescence
75. Which type of intelligence tends to increase with age?
A) Fluid intelligence
B) Crystallized intelligence
C) Spatial intelligence
D) Creative intelligence
76. What does the term “attachment” refer to in developmental psychology?
A) A child’s ability to make friends
B) The emotional bond between a child and caregiver
C) The process of learning through observation
D) The understanding of social rules
77. When does the prefrontal cortex, responsible for decision-making, fully mature?
A) Early childhood
B) Adolescence
C) Mid-20s
D) Late 30s
78. Which psychologist proposed the concept of scaffolding in learning?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Lev Vygotsky
C) B.F. Skinner
D) John Bowlby
79. Which stage of Erikson’s theory occurs in middle adulthood?
A) Identity vs. Role Confusion
B) Generativity vs. Stagnation
C) Integrity vs. Despair
D) Intimacy vs. Isolation
80. Which type of memory shows the most decline with age?
A) Procedural memory
B) Semantic memory
C) Episodic memory
D) Implicit memory
81. What is the name of Erikson’s final stage of psychosocial development, occurring in late adulthood?
A) Integrity vs. Despair
B) Generativity vs. Stagnation
C) Identity vs. Role Confusion
D) Initiative vs. Guilt
82. The ability to mentally reverse an action or thought, which develops in Piaget’s concrete operational stage, is called:
A) Centration
B) Conservation
C) Reversibility
D) Object permanence
83. Which of the following best describes the concept of scaffolding in Vygotsky’s theory?
A) Providing support to help children learn within their zone of proximal development
B) Teaching children only when they ask for help
C) Letting children learn through trial and error
D) Encouraging children to learn without adult guidance
84. The belief that intelligence is malleable and can grow with effort is known as:
A) Fixed mindset
B) Growth mindset
C) Crystallized intelligence
D) Fluid intelligence
85. Which reflex causes an infant to grasp an object placed in their palm?
A) Moro reflex
B) Rooting reflex
C) Babinski reflex
D) Palmar grasp reflex
86. The study of changes in gene expression caused by environmental influences is called:
A) Epigenetics
B) Genomics
C) Heritability
D) Evolutionary psychology
87. Which attachment style is characterized by avoidance of closeness and emotional connection?
A) Secure
B) Avoidant
C) Ambivalent
D) Disorganized
88. A child who understands that pouring water into a taller, thinner glass does not change the amount of water has mastered:
A) Egocentrism
B) Conservation
C) Reversibility
D) Symbolic thinking
89. What is the leading cause of cognitive decline in late adulthood?
A) Alzheimer’s disease
B) Poor nutrition
C) Excessive stress
D) Genetic mutations
90. The ability to focus on relevant stimuli while ignoring distractions improves during:
A) Infancy
B) Early childhood
C) Middle childhood
D) Late adulthood
91. According to Bowlby, what is the primary function of attachment in infants?
A) To improve social skills
B) To increase independence
C) To ensure survival by maintaining proximity to a caregiver
D) To develop self-awareness
92. What is an example of extrinsic motivation?
A) Reading a book for pleasure
B) Painting because you enjoy art
C) Studying to get a good grade
D) Exercising because you like feeling healthy
93. In Freud’s psychosexual stages, which stage occurs during early childhood and focuses on toilet training?
A) Oral stage
B) Anal stage
C) Phallic stage
D) Latency stage
94. What is the term for a child’s understanding that another person can have a different perspective?
A) Egocentrism
B) Theory of mind
C) Object permanence
D) Symbolic thought
95. What is the most common form of dementia?
A) Parkinson’s disease
B) Vascular dementia
C) Alzheimer’s disease
D) Huntington’s disease
96. The ability to learn and solve novel problems without relying on past knowledge is called:
A) Crystallized intelligence
B) Fluid intelligence
C) Executive function
D) Long-term memory
97. In socioemotional selectivity theory, older adults prioritize:
A) Forming many new relationships
B) Focusing on future goals
C) Emotionally meaningful relationships
D) Increasing work productivity
98. The authoritarian parenting style is characterized by:
A) High warmth and high control
B) Low warmth and low control
C) High warmth and low control
D) Low warmth and high control
99. A child’s tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation while ignoring others is called:
A) Conservation
B) Centration
C) Reversibility
D) Object permanence
100. The ability to recognize one’s own emotions and regulate them effectively is part of:
A) Emotional intelligence
B) Cognitive flexibility
C) Theory of mind
D) Personal fable
101. Which psychologist is best known for developing the Strange Situation procedure?
A) Erik Erikson
B) Jean Piaget
C) Mary Ainsworth
D) John Bowlby
102. The process of adjusting old schemas to fit new experiences is called:
A) Assimilation
B) Accommodation
C) Equilibration
D) Scaffolding
103. What is the difference between sex and gender in developmental psychology?
A) Sex is cultural, while gender is biological
B) Sex is biological, while gender is culturally influenced
C) Sex changes over time, but gender remains constant
D) Sex refers to personality, while gender refers to behavior
104. A securely attached child will react to their caregiver’s return in the Strange Situation by:
A) Ignoring the caregiver
B) Seeking comfort from the caregiver
C) Crying uncontrollably
D) Avoiding eye contact
105. Which stage of prenatal development lasts from two to eight weeks?
A) Germinal stage
B) Embryonic stage
C) Fetal stage
D) Neonatal stage
106. What does the term “object permanence” refer to?
A) Understanding that objects exist even when out of sight
B) The ability to remember object names
C) Recognizing familiar faces
D) Learning through trial and error
107. Which type of memory is least affected by aging?
A) Episodic memory
B) Working memory
C) Semantic memory
D) Short-term memory
108. Which of the following is an example of prosocial behavior?
A) Cheating on a test
B) Ignoring a classmate in need
C) Helping a friend carry books
D) Bullying a peer
109. Which theorist developed the concept of moral development in children?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Lawrence Kohlberg
C) Erik Erikson
D) John Bowlby
110. Which of the following is an example of an age-graded influence on development?
A) Winning the lottery
B) Getting married at 40
C) Learning to walk at age one
D) Losing a job unexpectedly
111. Which research method involves studying the same group of individuals over an extended period?
A) Cross-sectional
B) Longitudinal
C) Experimental
D) Case study
112. According to Erikson, the primary challenge in adolescence is:
A) Autonomy vs. Shame
B) Industry vs. Inferiority
C) Identity vs. Role Confusion
D) Intimacy vs. Isolation
113. What is the term for a child’s ability to understand that objects can change in appearance but still remain the same?
A) Object permanence
B) Conservation
C) Centration
D) Reversibility
114. What does “goodness of fit” refer to in temperament research?
A) How well a child adapts to their environment
B) A child’s ability to regulate emotions
C) The match between a child’s temperament and parenting style
D) A child’s intelligence level
115. Which term describes the belief that adolescents have that they are special and invulnerable?
A) Imaginary audience
B) Personal fable
C) Egocentrism
D) Self-concept
116. At what stage of prenatal development do major organs begin to form?
A) Germinal stage
B) Embryonic stage
C) Fetal stage
D) Neonatal stage
117. What is the primary role of the amygdala in emotional development?
A) Logical reasoning
B) Memory storage
C) Fear and aggression responses
D) Language processing
118. The term “resilience” in childhood development refers to:
A) High academic performance
B) The ability to recover from adversity
C) The ability to socialize effectively
D) Emotional intelligence
119. Which of the following is an example of a normative history-graded influence on development?
A) Graduating from high school
B) The Great Depression
C) Losing a parent in childhood
D) Getting married at age 30
120. Which theory emphasizes that development is shaped by interactions with others and cultural tools?
A) Piaget’s cognitive development theory
B) Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory
C) Erikson’s psychosocial theory
D) Freud’s psychosexual theory
121. The ability to regulate emotions and delay gratification is primarily associated with which part of the brain?
A) Hippocampus
B) Amygdala
C) Prefrontal cortex
D) Cerebellum
122. Which of the following is NOT a teratogen?
A) Alcohol
B) Nicotine
C) Folic acid
D) Mercury
123. Which theorist introduced the concept of “zone of proximal development”?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Lev Vygotsky
C) Erik Erikson
D) Albert Bandura
124. What is the term for the gradual decline in physical functioning associated with aging?
A) Senescence
B) Maturation
C) Plasticity
D) Accommodation
125. A child who understands that another person may have false beliefs has developed:
A) Egocentrism
B) Theory of mind
C) Scaffolding
D) Reversibility
126. What is the primary focus of attachment theory?
A) How infants learn language
B) How social relationships develop in early life
C) The stages of moral reasoning
D) The influence of peers on adolescence
127. Which of the following is a secondary sex characteristic?
A) Ovaries
B) Testes
C) Breast development
D) Genitalia
128. Which psychologist developed the concept of observational learning?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Erik Erikson
C) Albert Bandura
D) B.F. Skinner
129. The term “plasticity” in development refers to:
A) The brain’s ability to change and adapt
B) The rigid stages of cognitive development
C) The predictable nature of aging
D) The fixed nature of intelligence
130. Which of the following is an example of a gross motor skill?
A) Picking up a small toy
B) Drawing a picture
C) Writing a sentence
D) Running across a field
131. What is the term for distress that infants feel when separated from their primary caregiver?
A) Stranger anxiety
B) Separation anxiety
C) Secure attachment
D) Social referencing
132. Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic motivator?
A) Receiving a trophy for winning a race
B) Studying to earn a scholarship
C) Reading a book because you enjoy it
D) Working overtime for extra pay
133. According to Kohlberg, which level of moral development is based on avoiding punishment?
A) Preconventional
B) Conventional
C) Postconventional
D) Formal operational
134. What does the term “habituation” refer to in infancy research?
A) The ability to form attachments
B) Decreased response to a repeated stimulus
C) Increased response to a novel stimulus
D) A sudden shift in attention
135. Which age group is most likely to experience the midlife crisis?
A) Adolescents
B) Young adults
C) Middle-aged adults
D) Older adults
136. Which parenting style is associated with the highest levels of academic success?
A) Authoritarian
B) Authoritative
C) Permissive
D) Neglectful
137. What is the name of Piaget’s stage that begins at birth and lasts until about two years old?
A) Preoperational
B) Concrete operational
C) Sensorimotor
D) Formal operational
138. Which part of the brain is most responsible for processing emotions?
A) Hippocampus
B) Amygdala
C) Prefrontal cortex
D) Cerebellum
139. The belief that all events are self-related and that others are as concerned with us as we are is called:
A) Imaginary audience
B) Personal fable
C) Egocentrism
D) Narcissism
140. Which of the following best describes a “critical period” in development?
A) A time when children need external motivation to learn
B) A specific time when a particular skill must develop
C) A period when intelligence stabilizes
D) A stage of moral reasoning
141. According to Piaget, what is the primary cognitive limitation of the preoperational stage?
A) Lack of object permanence
B) Egocentrism and lack of conservation
C) Abstract reasoning
D) Hypothetical thinking
142. Which of the following best describes imprinting in developmental psychology?
A) The process of forming an attachment to a caregiver shortly after birth
B) Learning that occurs through observation
C) The ability to recall early childhood memories
D) The development of social skills in adolescence
143. Which theory emphasizes that children actively construct knowledge as they interact with their environment?
A) Behaviorism
B) Piaget’s Cognitive Development Theory
C) Psychoanalytic Theory
D) Attachment Theory
144. Which research method compares different age groups at a single point in time?
A) Longitudinal study
B) Cross-sectional study
C) Case study
D) Experimental study
145. What is the term for a person’s sense of self as male or female?
A) Gender identity
B) Gender role
C) Gender expression
D) Sexual orientation
146. A child who repeatedly fails a task and eventually stops trying demonstrates:
A) Cognitive dissonance
B) Learned helplessness
C) Theory of mind
D) Social referencing
147. Which of the following is a common characteristic of individuals in late adulthood?
A) Decline in fluid intelligence
B) Increased neuroplasticity
C) Rapid personality changes
D) Increased physical strength
148. What is the primary focus of social learning theory?
A) The influence of biological factors on behavior
B) The role of unconscious conflicts in development
C) Learning through observation and imitation
D) The impact of culture on cognitive growth
149. Which of the following is a protective factor in childhood resilience?
A) Exposure to chronic stress
B) High self-efficacy
C) Overprotective parenting
D) Low emotional intelligence
150. Which type of memory is most affected by aging?
A) Procedural memory
B) Semantic memory
C) Working memory
D) Implicit memory
151. According to Erikson, what is the primary task of young adulthood?
A) Industry vs. Inferiority
B) Generativity vs. Stagnation
C) Intimacy vs. Isolation
D) Identity vs. Role Confusion
152. What is the term for the ability to generate multiple solutions to a problem?
A) Convergent thinking
B) Divergent thinking
C) Crystallized intelligence
D) Fluid intelligence
153. What is the main characteristic of the formal operational stage?
A) Use of logic to solve concrete problems
B) Ability to think abstractly and hypothetically
C) Egocentric thought patterns
D) Dependence on trial-and-error learning
154. Which term refers to a child’s ability to regulate their emotions and behavior in response to social expectations?
A) Self-regulation
B) Scaffolding
C) Emotional intelligence
D) Conservation
155. What is the primary function of the hippocampus in cognitive development?
A) Speech production
B) Memory formation
C) Motor coordination
D) Emotional regulation
156. What is the primary risk factor for developing insecure attachment?
A) Overprotective parenting
B) Inconsistent or neglectful caregiving
C) Exposure to diverse social settings
D) High levels of parental involvement
157. Which type of intelligence tends to remain stable or improve with age?
A) Fluid intelligence
B) Crystallized intelligence
C) Processing speed
D) Working memory
158. Which parenting style is associated with children who have high self-esteem and good social skills?
A) Authoritarian
B) Permissive
C) Authoritative
D) Neglectful
159. The term “theory of mind” refers to:
A) The ability to understand abstract concepts
B) The awareness that others have thoughts, beliefs, and perspectives different from one’s own
C) The ability to recognize and label emotions
D) The process of scaffolding in learning
160. Which of the following is an example of a critical period in development?
A) Learning to read in adolescence
B) Acquiring a second language in adulthood
C) Developing depth perception in infancy
D) Learning a new hobby in old age
161. What is a key feature of postformal thought in adulthood?
A) Rigid black-and-white thinking
B) Increased reliance on concrete experiences
C) The ability to recognize multiple perspectives and contradictions
D) The ability to process information quickly
162. What type of memory is least affected by aging?
A) Episodic memory
B) Working memory
C) Implicit memory
D) Prospective memory
163. The term “temperament” refers to:
A) A child’s ability to adapt to change
B) An individual’s characteristic emotional and behavioral responses
C) The process of learning through reinforcement
D) The ability to delay gratification
164. In adolescence, the imaginary audience refers to:
A) The belief that everyone is watching and evaluating you
B) An actual group of peers providing feedback
C) The tendency to overanalyze social situations
D) Increased self-awareness
165. The concept of “good enough parenting” suggests that:
A) Parents should strive for perfection
B) Children only develop properly with high parental involvement
C) Consistent and responsive caregiving is more important than perfection
D) Strict discipline leads to optimal development
166. Which term describes an adolescent’s exploration of different roles and ideologies before committing to one?
A) Identity foreclosure
B) Identity moratorium
C) Identity diffusion
D) Identity achievement
167. What is the primary function of the prefrontal cortex in adolescence?
A) Emotional processing
B) Language acquisition
C) Executive functioning and decision-making
D) Reflexive motor skills
168. Which factor is most likely to contribute to cognitive decline in older adults?
A) Social engagement
B) Regular physical activity
C) Chronic stress and social isolation
D) Intellectual stimulation
169. Which term describes the ability to apply knowledge from one context to another?
A) Transfer of learning
B) Scaffolding
C) Fluid intelligence
D) Convergent thinking
170. Which of the following best describes the “strange situation” experiment?
A) A test used to measure cognitive abilities in children
B) A procedure used to assess attachment styles in infants
C) A study of social influences on adolescent behavior
D) An experiment on moral reasoning
171. What is the main focus of developmental psychology?
A) The treatment of mental disorders
B) The study of changes in behavior and thought across the lifespan
C) The study of intelligence in different populations
D) The study of how genetics influence personality
172. The ability to apply old knowledge to solve new problems is known as:
A) Crystallized intelligence
B) Fluid intelligence
C) Metacognition
D) Scaffolding
173. Which stage of prenatal development lasts from conception to about two weeks?
A) Embryonic stage
B) Germinal stage
C) Fetal stage
D) Neonatal stage
174. Which of the following is NOT a component of emotional intelligence?
A) Self-awareness
B) Social skills
C) Short-term memory
D) Self-regulation
175. In which Piagetian stage do children develop the ability to perform mental operations but struggle with abstract concepts?
A) Preoperational
B) Sensorimotor
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational
176. Which research method allows researchers to establish cause-and-effect relationships?
A) Correlational study
B) Longitudinal study
C) Experimental study
D) Case study
177. Which of the following best describes the “zone of proximal development”?
A) The range of tasks a child can perform independently
B) The range of tasks a child can perform with guidance
C) The period when a child first begins to learn language
D) The age at which a child reaches cognitive maturity
178. What is a teratogen?
A) A genetic disorder
B) An environmental factor that can cause harm to a developing fetus
C) A hormone responsible for fetal growth
D) A type of inherited trait
179. Which parenting style is characterized by high warmth and low control?
A) Authoritarian
B) Authoritative
C) Permissive
D) Neglectful
180. The ability to delay gratification is associated with which aspect of development?
A) Emotional regulation
B) Cognitive flexibility
C) Working memory
D) Sensory processing
181. What is one of the main criticisms of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?
A) It overemphasizes the role of genetics
B) It underestimates the influence of environment
C) It is biased toward Western, male perspectives
D) It lacks empirical support
182. What is the primary focus of attachment theory?
A) Cognitive problem-solving skills
B) The role of genetics in personality development
C) The formation of emotional bonds between infants and caregivers
D) The influence of peers on development
183. Which theorist proposed the concept of “identity crisis”?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Erik Erikson
C) B.F. Skinner
D) Lev Vygotsky
184. The belief that an object exists even when it is out of sight is called:
A) Object permanence
B) Conservation
C) Centration
D) Egocentrism
185. Which term refers to a child’s ability to understand that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape or appearance?
A) Object permanence
B) Conservation
C) Reversibility
D) Accommodation
186. Which of the following best defines assimilation in Piaget’s theory?
A) Changing existing schemas to fit new information
B) Integrating new information into existing schemas
C) The ability to recall past experiences
D) The process of forming new neural connections
187. What is scaffolding in cognitive development?
A) A child’s ability to learn independently
B) The gradual decrease of adult support as a child learns
C) The ability to recall and apply information
D) A stage of moral development
188. Which of the following is an example of a fine motor skill?
A) Running
B) Jumping
C) Writing with a pencil
D) Climbing stairs
189. What is one of the main functions of the prefrontal cortex in adolescence?
A) Controlling reflexive behaviors
B) Processing emotional reactions
C) Regulating decision-making and impulse control
D) Enhancing sensory perception
190. Which factor is most important for successful aging?
A) Genetic predisposition
B) Social engagement and physical activity
C) A high IQ score
D) Childhood attachment security
191. What is one of the key characteristics of emerging adulthood?
A) Complete financial independence
B) Identity exploration and instability
C) Peak cognitive decline
D) Full emotional maturity
192. Which of the following best describes the concept of generativity in Erikson’s theory?
A) The ability to form intimate relationships
B) The desire to contribute to future generations
C) The struggle between independence and dependence
D) The process of self-reflection in old age
193. Which factor is most likely to contribute to cognitive decline in late adulthood?
A) Social interaction
B) Physical exercise
C) Chronic stress
D) High educational attainment
194. What is the “imaginary audience” in adolescent egocentrism?
A) The belief that others are constantly watching and judging them
B) The ability to understand multiple perspectives
C) The tendency to ignore social norms
D) The ability to imagine hypothetical scenarios
195. Which of the following is an example of a primary sex characteristic?
A) Breast development
B) Facial hair growth
C) Ovaries
D) Deepening of the voice
196. What is the primary concern of individuals in Erikson’s “integrity vs. despair” stage?
A) Building meaningful relationships
B) Reflecting on their life and its meaning
C) Establishing a career
D) Developing a sense of autonomy
197. What is one reason why adolescence is a time of increased risk-taking?
A) Increased activity in the amygdala
B) Underdeveloped prefrontal cortex
C) Decreased dopamine levels
D) Reduced peer influence
198. Which of the following is a key factor in successful language development?
A) Social interaction
B) Genetic predisposition
C) Reflexive behavior
D) Moral reasoning
199. Which parenting style is associated with the lowest levels of self-regulation in children?
A) Authoritarian
B) Permissive
C) Authoritative
D) Democratic
200. Which of the following is an example of a non-normative life event?
A) Graduating high school at 18
B) Becoming a parent in early adulthood
C) Losing a parent in childhood
D) Retiring at age 65
201. Which of the following is the primary goal of developmental psychology?
A) To diagnose psychological disorders
B) To study behavioral differences between individuals
C) To examine changes in thinking, behavior, and emotions across the lifespan
D) To determine the genetic basis of intelligence
202. What is the key characteristic of Piaget’s sensorimotor stage?
A) Use of logic and reasoning
B) Development of object permanence
C) Mastery of abstract thought
D) Development of conservation skills
203. The theory that development occurs in a series of distinct, age-related stages was proposed by:
A) B.F. Skinner
B) Erik Erikson
C) Jean Piaget
D) John Bowlby
204. What does the term “sensitive period” refer to in developmental psychology?
A) A time when development is halted
B) A phase when an individual is particularly responsive to environmental influences
C) The period of peak emotional development
D) The final stage of cognitive growth
205. According to Vygotsky, which of the following plays a crucial role in cognitive development?
A) Peer pressure
B) Social interaction
C) Genetic inheritance
D) Classical conditioning
206. Which of the following is an example of a gross motor skill?
A) Holding a pencil
B) Tying shoelaces
C) Jumping
D) Writing
207. The “strange situation” experiment by Mary Ainsworth was designed to study:
A) Childhood aggression
B) Moral reasoning
C) Attachment styles
D) Cognitive development
208. The ability to understand that another person may have a different perspective is known as:
A) Egocentrism
B) Theory of mind
C) Conservation
D) Metacognition
209. What is the main focus of Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development?
A) Emotional and social development across the lifespan
B) The role of reinforcement in learning
C) The impact of genetics on personality
D) The stages of moral development
210. Which type of memory is least affected by aging?
A) Episodic memory
B) Semantic memory
C) Working memory
D) Short-term memory
211. Which of the following best describes Kohlberg’s preconventional stage of moral development?
A) Morality is based on personal principles
B) Morality is based on societal expectations
C) Morality is based on avoiding punishment and seeking rewards
D) Morality is based on abstract ethical beliefs
212. What is the main characteristic of temperament?
A) It is primarily shaped by environmental factors
B) It remains stable over time
C) It develops only in adulthood
D) It is unrelated to personality development
213. Which of the following is an example of scaffolding in learning?
A) A teacher gradually reducing support as a student learns a skill
B) A child learning by trial and error
C) A parent allowing a child to work independently from the start
D) A student memorizing facts without assistance
214. Which part of the brain is most responsible for executive function?
A) Hippocampus
B) Prefrontal cortex
C) Amygdala
D) Cerebellum
215. Which parenting style is associated with the highest levels of academic achievement?
A) Permissive
B) Authoritative
C) Authoritarian
D) Neglectful
216. What is the primary crisis in Erikson’s stage of “identity vs. role confusion”?
A) Developing trust in caregivers
B) Establishing a personal identity
C) Learning to share with others
D) Achieving independence from parents
217. Which theorist introduced the concept of “operant conditioning”?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) B.F. Skinner
C) Jean Piaget
D) Erik Erikson
218. What is the term for the strong emotional connection a child forms with their caregiver?
A) Temperament
B) Scaffolding
C) Attachment
D) Self-concept
219. What is a critical period in development?
A) A time when a skill must be learned for normal development
B) A period of extreme stress during adolescence
C) The time in adulthood when cognitive skills decline
D) A stage of moral development
220. Which of the following best describes crystallized intelligence?
A) The ability to think quickly and solve new problems
B) The ability to apply accumulated knowledge and experience
C) The ability to process information at high speeds
D) The ability to recognize patterns
221. Which part of the nervous system is most involved in emotional regulation?
A) Brainstem
B) Limbic system
C) Cerebellum
D) Occipital lobe
222. Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic motivator?
A) Earning money for good grades
B) Avoiding punishment
C) Pursuing a hobby out of personal interest
D) Receiving a trophy for winning a competition
223. What is the main cause of synaptic pruning in early childhood?
A) Malnutrition
B) Lack of cognitive stimulation
C) The brain’s process of eliminating unused neural connections
D) The overuse of technology
224. What is the leading cause of cognitive decline in late adulthood?
A) Poor diet
B) Neurodegenerative diseases
C) Lack of social interaction
D) Genetic inheritance
225. The process of learning through watching others and imitating their behavior is called:
A) Classical conditioning
B) Operant conditioning
C) Observational learning
D) Scaffolding
226. Which of the following is a secondary sex characteristic?
A) Ovaries
B) Facial hair
C) Testes
D) Ovarian follicles
227. What is an example of prosocial behavior?
A) Lying to avoid punishment
B) Helping a friend without expecting anything in return
C) Avoiding social interactions
D) Competing aggressively in a game
228. Which of the following is most closely linked to successful aging?
A) Social connections and physical activity
B) High intelligence
C) Strict discipline
D) Avoidance of new experiences
229. Which psychologist is best known for his research on moral development?
A) Erik Erikson
B) Lawrence Kohlberg
C) Jean Piaget
D) B.F. Skinner
230. The “nature vs. nurture” debate focuses on:
A) The role of genetics versus environment in development
B) The importance of diet in childhood
C) The effects of aging on memory
D) The role of culture in intelligence
231. Which of the following best describes the concept of “goodness of fit” in child development?
A) The compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment
B) The ability of a child to excel academically
C) The physical health of a child during early development
D) The relationship between intelligence and creativity
232. What is the primary focus of the ecological systems theory proposed by Urie Bronfenbrenner?
A) The impact of genetics on personality
B) The different environmental layers that influence development
C) The stages of cognitive development
D) The role of classical conditioning in behavior
233. The ability to think about one’s own thinking processes is referred to as:
A) Metacognition
B) Egocentrism
C) Cognitive dissonance
D) Abstract reasoning
234. According to Erikson, the main challenge of early adulthood is:
A) Developing a sense of trust
B) Establishing intimacy versus isolation
C) Achieving generativity
D) Forming a sense of autonomy
235. Which of the following is a major component of social learning theory?
A) Observational learning
B) Genetic predisposition
C) Biological maturation
D) Cognitive dissonance
236. In adolescence, which brain region is still undergoing significant development?
A) Occipital lobe
B) Prefrontal cortex
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Parietal lobe
237. Which of the following is an example of a primary emotion?
A) Guilt
B) Embarrassment
C) Pride
D) Fear
238. What is the main function of the corpus callosum?
A) Regulating emotions
B) Connecting the two hemispheres of the brain
C) Controlling involuntary movements
D) Processing sensory input
239. A child’s ability to understand that people can hold false beliefs is a milestone in:
A) Abstract reasoning
B) Egocentrism
C) Theory of mind
D) Concrete operational thinking
240. The primary caregiver’s responsiveness to an infant’s needs is most strongly linked to:
A) The infant’s intelligence
B) The child’s attachment security
C) The development of gross motor skills
D) The presence of older siblings
241. According to Baumrind, which parenting style is associated with children who are socially competent and self-reliant?
A) Authoritarian
B) Permissive
C) Authoritative
D) Neglectful
242. Which of the following is an example of habituation?
A) A baby stops responding to a repeatedly presented stimulus
B) A child learns to associate a bell with food
C) A teenager develops a fear of public speaking
D) An adult recalls childhood memories vividly
243. Which part of the brain is most involved in processing emotions?
A) Cerebellum
B) Amygdala
C) Hippocampus
D) Parietal lobe
244. Which of the following best defines executive function?
A) The ability to recall past experiences
B) A set of cognitive processes involved in self-regulation and decision-making
C) The speed at which an individual processes information
D) The ability to navigate social situations
245. Which of the following describes a collectivist culture?
A) A culture that emphasizes individual achievement
B) A culture that prioritizes group harmony and interdependence
C) A culture that values self-expression over conformity
D) A culture that promotes competition over cooperation
246. What is the primary focus of lifespan development?
A) Development from infancy to adolescence
B) Cognitive development in childhood
C) Growth and change across the entire lifespan
D) The study of moral development
247. Which of the following is a hallmark of the formal operational stage in Piaget’s theory?
A) The ability to think abstractly
B) The ability to understand object permanence
C) The ability to classify objects
D) The inability to perform conservation tasks
248. Which research method follows the same group of individuals over a long period of time?
A) Cross-sectional study
B) Longitudinal study
C) Experimental study
D) Correlational study
249. In Erikson’s psychosocial stages, what is the primary conflict of middle adulthood?
A) Trust vs. mistrust
B) Intimacy vs. isolation
C) Generativity vs. stagnation
D) Integrity vs. despair
250. What is a major limitation of cross-sectional studies in developmental psychology?
A) They take too long to complete
B) They cannot determine causality
C) They do not account for cohort effects
D) They require a large sample size
251. Which term describes the gradual decline in physical health and cognitive function associated with aging?
A) Senescence
B) Neuroplasticity
C) Myelination
D) Homeostasis
252. Which of the following is NOT a stage in Freud’s psychosexual development theory?
A) Oral
B) Phallic
C) Sensorimotor
D) Latency
253. What is the primary focus of the sociocultural perspective on development?
A) The role of reinforcement in learning
B) The influence of social and cultural contexts on development
C) The biological basis of intelligence
D) The effects of personality traits on behavior
254. What term refers to the understanding that gender remains constant despite superficial changes in appearance?
A) Gender constancy
B) Gender fluidity
C) Gender identity
D) Gender discrimination
255. Which of the following best describes moral relativism?
A) The belief that moral principles are absolute
B) The belief that morality is based on societal rules
C) The belief that moral judgments depend on cultural and individual perspectives
D) The belief that moral reasoning is universal across cultures
256. What is one major risk factor for cognitive decline in old age?
A) Engaging in regular physical activity
B) Chronic stress and social isolation
C) High levels of education
D) A nutritious diet
257. What is the primary focus of behavioral genetics?
A) The influence of genetic and environmental factors on behavior
B) The study of emotional development in children
C) The effects of early childhood experiences on personality
D) The impact of reinforcement on learning
258. Which term describes an infant’s distress when separated from their primary caregiver?
A) Stranger anxiety
B) Separation anxiety
C) Object permanence
D) Secure attachment
259. What is the main concept behind neuroplasticity?
A) The brain’s ability to change and adapt in response to experience
B) The gradual decline in cognitive abilities over time
C) The process of pruning unused neural connections
D) The genetic basis of intelligence
260. Which term refers to the biological and environmental factors that influence human development?
A) Epigenetics
B) Neurotransmission
C) Psychometrics
D) Classical conditioning
261. What is the primary focus of ethological theory in developmental psychology?
A) The role of reinforcement in learning
B) The impact of social interactions on development
C) The influence of biological and evolutionary factors on behavior
D) The cognitive processes underlying development
262. Which of the following best describes the concept of reciprocal socialization?
A) The process of adapting to new environments
B) The mutual influence between parents and children in shaping behavior
C) The reinforcement of social norms by peers
D) The influence of genetics on social behavior
263. Which psychologist is known for the “Strange Situation” experiment?
A) Jean Piaget
B) John Bowlby
C) Mary Ainsworth
D) Lev Vygotsky
264. In Piaget’s theory, which stage is characterized by the ability to engage in hypothetical and abstract thinking?
A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational
265. Which term refers to a child’s ability to understand that objects continue to exist even when they are not visible?
A) Object permanence
B) Egocentrism
C) Conservation
D) Symbolic thought
266. Which type of attachment is characterized by infants who show distress when their caregiver leaves but are easily comforted upon return?
A) Avoidant
B) Secure
C) Ambivalent
D) Disorganized
267. What is the primary difference between assimilation and accommodation in Piaget’s theory?
A) Assimilation involves modifying existing schemas, while accommodation involves creating new ones
B) Assimilation refers to social learning, while accommodation refers to cognitive development
C) Assimilation involves incorporating new experiences into existing schemas, while accommodation modifies schemas to fit new experiences
D) Assimilation is a biological process, while accommodation is a psychological process
268. Which parenting style is often associated with children who exhibit high levels of self-confidence and social competence?
A) Authoritarian
B) Permissive
C) Neglectful
D) Authoritative
269. What is the main characteristic of the preoperational stage in Piaget’s theory?
A) Logical thinking and problem-solving
B) Symbolic thinking and egocentrism
C) Understanding of conservation
D) Development of reflexive responses
270. Which term refers to the biological unfolding of an individual’s genetic potential?
A) Social learning
B) Maturation
C) Classical conditioning
D) Cultural adaptation
271. Which of the following is an example of a teratogen?
A) Maternal nutrition
B) Exposure to alcohol during pregnancy
C) Secure attachment
D) Increased cognitive stimulation
272. Which area of the brain is most responsible for memory processing?
A) Cerebellum
B) Hippocampus
C) Occipital lobe
D) Prefrontal cortex
273. Which theorist emphasized the role of social and cultural influences in cognitive development?
A) Jean Piaget
B) B.F. Skinner
C) Lev Vygotsky
D) Erik Erikson
274. Which of the following best describes the concept of self-efficacy?
A) The belief in one’s ability to influence events and outcomes
B) The ability to regulate emotions effectively
C) The development of self-esteem during childhood
D) The process of learning through observation
275. Which of the following is a key feature of adolescence?
A) Development of primary emotions
B) Peak motor development
C) Identity formation
D) Decline in executive functioning
276. What is the key focus of Erikson’s stage of “integrity vs. despair”?
A) Developing a sense of competence in middle childhood
B) Forming close relationships in early adulthood
C) Reflecting on one’s life and finding a sense of fulfillment
D) Establishing a personal identity in adolescence
277. Which research method allows for the study of genetic and environmental influences on development?
A) Case studies
B) Cross-sectional studies
C) Twin studies
D) Correlational studies
278. Which of the following is an example of a fine motor skill?
A) Walking
B) Jumping
C) Writing
D) Running
279. Which theorist developed the concept of moral development in three stages: preconventional, conventional, and postconventional?
A) Erik Erikson
B) Jean Piaget
C) Lawrence Kohlberg
D) Lev Vygotsky
280. Which term refers to the period of rapid physical development that occurs during adolescence?
A) Synaptic pruning
B) Puberty
C) Maturation
D) Cognitive restructuring
281. The concept of “resilience” in child development refers to:
A) The ability to bounce back from adversity
B) A strong attachment to caregivers
C) High intelligence in early childhood
D) The development of social skills
282. What is one of the most common cognitive changes associated with aging?
A) Improved working memory
B) Decline in processing speed
C) Increase in attention span
D) Greater susceptibility to mental illnesses
283. According to socioemotional selectivity theory, older adults tend to prioritize:
A) Expanding their social circles
B) Maximizing emotional well-being
C) Learning new abstract concepts
D) Developing professional skills
284. Which of the following is an example of an extrinsic motivator?
A) Studying for personal enjoyment
B) Learning a new skill out of curiosity
C) Working hard to receive a promotion
D) Reading a book to expand knowledge
285. The “zone of proximal development” is a concept in which theory?
A) Piaget’s cognitive development theory
B) Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory
C) Erikson’s psychosocial theory
D) Freud’s psychosexual theory
286. What is the primary function of myelination in brain development?
A) To store memories
B) To speed up neural transmission
C) To regulate emotions
D) To control motor functions
287. Which type of intelligence tends to decline with age?
A) Crystallized intelligence
B) Fluid intelligence
C) Emotional intelligence
D) Social intelligence
288. Which psychologist introduced the concept of “imprinting” in attachment research?
A) Mary Ainsworth
B) John Bowlby
C) Konrad Lorenz
D) Erik Erikson
289. Which of the following is an example of a normative age-graded influence on development?
A) Winning the lottery
B) Losing a job in early adulthood
C) Starting school at age five
D) Moving to a different country
290. In the nature vs. nurture debate, “nurture” refers to:
A) Genetic inheritance
B) Biological traits
C) Environmental influences
D) Evolutionary processes
291. According to Piaget, what is the process of adjusting old schemas to fit new information?
A) Assimilation
B) Accommodation
C) Equilibration
D) Conservation
292. Which of the following best represents an example of scaffolding in child development?
A) A parent gradually reducing help as a child learns to tie their shoes
B) A child imitating their older sibling’s behavior
C) A teacher providing the same level of support throughout a task
D) A child learning through trial and error without assistance
293. What is the primary goal of Erikson’s stage of “industry vs. inferiority”?
A) Developing a sense of identity
B) Forming intimate relationships
C) Gaining competence and mastering skills
D) Developing a sense of trust
294. What is the term for the brain’s ability to reorganize and form new neural connections throughout life?
A) Neurogenesis
B) Synaptic pruning
C) Neuroplasticity
D) Myelination
295. The Harlow monkey experiments demonstrated the importance of:
A) Cognitive development
B) Social reinforcement
C) Attachment and comfort
D) Observational learning
296. What type of play involves children playing alongside each other without directly interacting?
A) Solitary play
B) Parallel play
C) Cooperative play
D) Associative play
297. Which of the following is an example of a secondary sexual characteristic?
A) The development of ovaries in females
B) The deepening of the voice in males
C) The growth of reproductive organs
D) The onset of menstruation
298. According to Kohlberg, which level of moral development is characterized by an individual making decisions based on avoiding punishment?
A) Preconventional
B) Conventional
C) Postconventional
D) Autonomous
299. What is the term for the gradual decline in physical ability and sensory function associated with aging?
A) Senescence
B) Neuroplasticity
C) Homeostasis
D) Resilience
300. In Vygotsky’s theory, what is the primary mechanism for cognitive development?
A) Maturation
B) Classical conditioning
C) Social interaction
D) Genetic predisposition
301. Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for executive functioning?
A) Hippocampus
B) Prefrontal cortex
C) Cerebellum
D) Occipital lobe
302. Which parenting style is most likely to lead to children who struggle with self-regulation?
A) Authoritarian
B) Permissive
C) Authoritative
D) Uninvolved
303. Which theory suggests that infants are biologically programmed to form attachments for survival?
A) Social learning theory
B) Attachment theory
C) Cognitive development theory
D) Behavioral theory
304. Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic motivator?
A) Earning money for good grades
B) Studying to avoid punishment
C) Learning a skill because of personal interest
D) Competing for a scholarship
305. What term describes a person’s perception of their own abilities and characteristics?
A) Self-efficacy
B) Self-concept
C) Self-esteem
D) Self-regulation
306. Which researcher proposed the concept of “stages of grief”?
A) Erik Erikson
B) Jean Piaget
C) Elisabeth Kübler-Ross
D) Lev Vygotsky
307. Which of the following best describes temperament?
A) Learned social behaviors
B) An individual’s characteristic emotional reactivity and intensity
C) The ability to regulate emotions effectively
D) The socialization process in early childhood
308. What is the primary task of Erikson’s “autonomy vs. shame and doubt” stage?
A) Developing trust in caregivers
B) Learning independence and self-control
C) Establishing identity
D) Maintaining intimate relationships
309. What is the term for the awareness that objects continue to exist even when out of sight?
A) Object permanence
B) Conservation
C) Egocentrism
D) Reversibility
310. What is a key feature of the postconventional stage in Kohlberg’s moral development theory?
A) Following rules to avoid punishment
B) Seeking approval from others
C) Making moral decisions based on ethical principles
D) Conforming to social norms
311. Which type of intelligence, according to Sternberg, involves the ability to deal with new and unusual situations?
A) Analytical intelligence
B) Practical intelligence
C) Creative intelligence
D) Fluid intelligence
312. The process by which unused neural connections are eliminated is called:
A) Synaptic pruning
B) Myelination
C) Neurogenesis
D) Lateralization
313. What is the leading cause of dementia in older adults?
A) Parkinson’s disease
B) Alzheimer’s disease
C) Stroke
D) Huntington’s disease
314. Which of the following is an example of a critical period in development?
A) Learning to drive a car
B) Language acquisition in early childhood
C) Developing social skills in adolescence
D) Learning math concepts in school
315. The concept of “goodness of fit” refers to:
A) The compatibility between an individual’s temperament and their environment
B) A person’s ability to adapt to new situations
C) The alignment of moral values with societal norms
D) The effectiveness of cognitive problem-solving strategies
316. The “socioemotional selectivity theory” suggests that older adults prioritize:
A) Career success over relationships
B) Expanding their social network
C) Emotionally meaningful relationships
D) Learning new cognitive skills
317. Which theory suggests that aging occurs due to accumulated cellular damage over time?
A) Activity theory
B) Disengagement theory
C) Wear-and-tear theory
D) Socioemotional selectivity theory
318. Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning?
A) A child learning to say “please” through praise
B) A dog salivating at the sound of a bell
C) A student studying harder to earn a reward
D) An infant learning to crawl through practice
319. Which factor is most associated with secure attachment?
A) High academic achievement
B) Consistent and responsive caregiving
C) Early exposure to peers
D) Genetic predisposition
320. The ability to delay gratification in childhood is associated with:
A) Higher self-control and better life outcomes
B) Lower cognitive ability
C) Increased impulsivity in adulthood
D) Poor academic performance
Essay Questions and Answers for Study Guide
1. Explain the key differences between Piaget’s and Vygotsky’s theories of cognitive development.
Answer:
Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky both made significant contributions to cognitive development theory, but their perspectives differ in several ways.
Piaget proposed a stage-based model of cognitive development, emphasizing how children actively construct knowledge through interactions with their environment. His four stages—sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational—illustrate how children move from reflexive actions to abstract thinking. Piaget viewed development as universal and biologically driven, with children discovering knowledge independently through processes of assimilation and accommodation.
In contrast, Vygotsky emphasized the sociocultural aspect of learning, proposing that development is largely influenced by social interactions and cultural tools. His concept of the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) highlights the difference between what a child can do alone and what they can achieve with scaffolding from a more knowledgeable other. Vygotsky also emphasized language as a crucial tool in cognitive development, contrasting with Piaget, who saw it as a secondary process following cognitive maturation.
While Piaget stressed the importance of individual discovery, Vygotsky argued for the role of cultural and social influences in shaping a child’s thinking. Both theories remain highly influential in educational psychology today.
2. Discuss the impact of attachment styles on later relationships and emotional well-being.
Answer:
Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby and expanded by Mary Ainsworth, suggests that early attachment experiences significantly shape an individual’s ability to form and maintain relationships throughout life.
Ainsworth’s Strange Situation experiment identified four primary attachment styles:
- Secure attachment – Infants show distress when the caregiver leaves but are easily comforted upon return. In adulthood, securely attached individuals tend to have healthy, trusting relationships and high emotional resilience.
- Avoidant attachment – Infants appear indifferent to caregiver departure and return. As adults, they may struggle with intimacy and avoid emotional dependency.
- Anxious-ambivalent attachment – Infants display intense distress when separated from caregivers and difficulty soothing upon return. Later in life, this attachment style can lead to clinginess, fear of abandonment, and emotional instability in relationships.
- Disorganized attachment – Infants exhibit erratic or fearful behavior toward the caregiver. In adulthood, they may struggle with trust, emotional regulation, and relationship stability, sometimes linked to past trauma.
Studies show that early attachment patterns influence self-esteem, emotional regulation, and mental health. However, attachment styles can evolve due to life experiences, therapy, and positive relationships. Understanding these styles can help individuals improve emotional well-being and form healthier interpersonal connections.
3. Analyze the role of nature and nurture in human development.
Answer:
The nature vs. nurture debate explores the extent to which genetics (nature) and environment (nurture) shape human development.
Nature refers to genetic inheritance and biological predispositions that influence traits such as intelligence, temperament, and physical attributes. Research on twin studies supports the role of genetics in IQ, personality, and mental health disorders.
Nurture, on the other hand, includes environmental factors such as parenting styles, education, culture, and social experiences. The impact of nurture is evident in language acquisition, moral development, and emotional intelligence. For example, children raised in enriched environments tend to develop stronger cognitive abilities than those deprived of stimulation.
Contemporary research suggests that development is shaped by an interaction between nature and nurture. The concept of epigenetics demonstrates how environmental factors can activate or suppress genetic expression. For example, stress or childhood trauma can influence gene expression related to mental health disorders.
Thus, both biological predispositions and environmental influences play integral roles in shaping human behavior and development.
4. Explain Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development and their lifelong implications.
Answer:
Erik Erikson’s psychosocial theory proposes that individuals pass through eight developmental stages, each involving a key psychological conflict:
- Trust vs. Mistrust (Infancy) – Secure attachment fosters trust in the world, while neglect leads to mistrust.
- Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (Toddlerhood) – Encouragement fosters independence, while over-control results in self-doubt.
- Initiative vs. Guilt (Early Childhood) – Exploring the world builds confidence, while excessive criticism leads to guilt.
- Industry vs. Inferiority (Middle Childhood) – Success in school and social interactions builds competence, while repeated failure fosters inferiority.
- Identity vs. Role Confusion (Adolescence) – Self-exploration leads to a stable identity, while confusion results in identity crises.
- Intimacy vs. Isolation (Early Adulthood) – Healthy relationships foster emotional intimacy, while fear of vulnerability leads to isolation.
- Generativity vs. Stagnation (Middle Adulthood) – Contributing to society (e.g., parenting, career) leads to fulfillment, while self-absorption results in stagnation.
- Integrity vs. Despair (Late Adulthood) – Reflection on life leads to satisfaction or regret.
Each stage builds on the previous one, shaping an individual’s personality and social relationships. Successfully navigating these challenges promotes emotional resilience and well-being.
5. Discuss the impact of cultural influences on child development.
Answer:
Culture plays a crucial role in shaping cognitive, social, and emotional development.
- Language and Thought: Vygotsky emphasized that culture influences thought processes through language and social interactions. For instance, bilingual children often develop stronger cognitive flexibility.
- Parenting Styles: Different cultures emphasize distinct parenting styles. Western cultures often promote independence, while collectivist cultures prioritize family and social harmony.
- Moral Development: Cultural values shape moral reasoning. For example, individualistic societies emphasize personal rights, while collectivist cultures emphasize community responsibilities.
- Educational Expectations: Academic achievements are often influenced by cultural norms. In some Asian cultures, high academic expectations foster discipline, while Western cultures may emphasize creativity and self-expression.
Cross-cultural research highlights that development is not universal but shaped by social norms, traditions, and cultural expectations. Understanding these influences helps educators and psychologists support diverse populations effectively.
6. Compare and contrast the major research methods used in developmental psychology.
Answer:
Developmental psychology employs several research methods, each with strengths and limitations.
- Longitudinal Studies: These track the same individuals over an extended period, allowing researchers to observe developmental changes. Strengths: Provides detailed insights into individual growth patterns. Limitations: Costly, time-consuming, and subject to participant dropout.
- Cross-Sectional Studies: These compare different age groups at a single point in time. Strengths: Faster and more cost-effective than longitudinal studies. Limitations: Cohort effects may influence results, as different age groups have unique life experiences.
- Sequential Studies: These combine longitudinal and cross-sectional methods to balance their strengths and weaknesses. Strengths: Helps control for cohort effects. Limitations: Still requires significant time and resources.
- Experimental Studies: These involve controlled experiments to examine cause-and-effect relationships. Strengths: High internal validity. Limitations: Ethical concerns may prevent certain studies, and results may not generalize to real-world settings.
- Case Studies: These offer in-depth analysis of individuals or small groups. Strengths: Useful for studying rare conditions. Limitations: Results may not be generalizable to the broader population.
Each method contributes valuable insights, and researchers often use multiple approaches to achieve a more comprehensive understanding of human development.
7. How does early childhood trauma affect cognitive and emotional development?
Answer:
Early childhood trauma, such as abuse, neglect, or exposure to violence, can significantly impact cognitive and emotional development.
- Cognitive Development:
- Trauma disrupts brain development, particularly in the hippocampus, which affects memory and learning.
- Executive functioning deficits (e.g., poor attention, difficulty problem-solving) are common.
- Chronic stress impairs academic achievement and cognitive flexibility.
- Emotional Development:
- Trauma can lead to insecure attachment, making it difficult to trust others.
- Children may develop anxiety, depression, or PTSD due to chronic stress responses.
- Difficulty regulating emotions may result in aggressive behavior or withdrawal.
Interventions such as trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (TF-CBT) and supportive caregiving can help mitigate these effects. Early intervention is crucial for improving outcomes.
8. Discuss the role of play in cognitive and social development in early childhood.
Answer:
Play is a fundamental aspect of early childhood development, influencing both cognitive and social skills.
- Cognitive Benefits:
- Piaget emphasized that play helps children explore and experiment with their environment.
- Symbolic play enhances creativity, problem-solving, and abstract thinking.
- Constructive play (e.g., building with blocks) strengthens spatial reasoning and fine motor skills.
- Social Benefits:
- Parallel play (playing alongside others) transitions into cooperative play, fostering teamwork.
- Pretend play helps develop empathy and perspective-taking.
- Play teaches children conflict resolution, sharing, and emotional regulation.
Educational Implications: Incorporating structured and free play in early education enhances learning and socio-emotional growth.
9. Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development.
Answer:
Diana Baumrind identified four primary parenting styles, each with different developmental outcomes:
- Authoritative Parenting (High warmth, high control)
- Encourages independence with clear expectations.
- Leads to high self-esteem, strong social skills, and academic success.
- Authoritarian Parenting (Low warmth, high control)
- Emphasizes obedience and discipline with little warmth.
- Often results in low self-esteem, social withdrawal, and anxiety.
- Permissive Parenting (High warmth, low control)
- Few rules and high indulgence.
- Leads to impulsivity, poor self-regulation, and difficulty with authority.
- Uninvolved Parenting (Low warmth, low control)
- Neglectful, with minimal interaction.
- Children often experience emotional insecurity, poor academic performance, and behavioral problems.
Conclusion: Authoritative parenting is generally associated with the most positive outcomes, emphasizing both structure and support.
10. Explain the concept of theory of mind and its role in social development.
Answer:
Theory of Mind (ToM) is the ability to understand that others have thoughts, beliefs, and emotions different from one’s own.
- Development of ToM:
- Typically emerges around age 4-5.
- Tested using the false belief task (e.g., Sally-Anne test).
- Social Implications:
- ToM helps children develop empathy, deception skills, and effective communication.
- Deficits in ToM are linked to autism spectrum disorder (ASD), affecting social interactions.
Educational Applications: Encouraging perspective-taking and emotional discussions can enhance ToM development in children.
11. How does aging affect cognitive functioning in late adulthood?
Answer:
Cognitive changes in late adulthood vary depending on genetics, lifestyle, and health factors.
- Declining Cognitive Abilities:
- Slower processing speed and reaction times.
- Declines in working memory and episodic memory.
- Reduced ability to multitask.
- Preserved Cognitive Functions:
- Crystallized intelligence (knowledge and experience) remains stable or improves.
- Implicit memory (e.g., skills like riding a bike) is largely unaffected.
- Neuroprotective Factors:
- Cognitive engagement (e.g., reading, puzzles) can delay decline.
- Physical activity improves brain health.
- Social interaction reduces risk of dementia.
Understanding these changes helps in promoting healthy aging and cognitive resilience.
12. Discuss the effects of socioeconomic status on child development.
Answer:
Socioeconomic status (SES) significantly influences cognitive, emotional, and social development.
- Cognitive Development:
- Low SES is linked to reduced access to quality education and lower academic achievement.
- Chronic stress affects brain development, particularly in the prefrontal cortex.
- Emotional and Social Development:
- Higher risk of behavioral problems due to economic stress.
- Limited exposure to enrichment activities impacts social skills.
Intervention Strategies: Early childhood education programs like Head Start can help mitigate SES disparities.
13. How do gender roles and socialization impact psychological development?
Answer:
Gender roles are shaped by biological, cultural, and social influences.
- Social Learning Theory (Bandura): Children learn gender roles through modeling and reinforcement.
- Cognitive Development Theory (Kohlberg): Children actively construct gender identity through categorization and observation.
- Gender Schema Theory: Children develop gender-based expectations early on, influencing behavior.
Rigid gender roles can limit personal growth, while gender flexibility promotes psychological well-being.