EC-Council 412-79v8 Certified Security Analyst Exam

346 Questions and Answers

EC-Council Certified Security Analyst (ECSA) Exam Practice Test

Are you preparing for the 412-79v8 EC-Council Certified Security Analyst (ECSA) exam? Exam Sage offers a comprehensive, carefully crafted practice test designed to help you confidently pass this essential certification and advance your career in cybersecurity.

What is the ECSA 412-79v8 Exam?

The ECSA certification is a globally recognized credential that validates your expertise in penetration testing and advanced ethical hacking techniques. This exam assesses your ability to analyze security threats, perform thorough vulnerability assessments, and conduct controlled penetration tests in real-world environments. Passing this exam demonstrates your readiness to protect organizational assets by identifying and mitigating security risks effectively.

What You Will Learn

Our ECSA practice exam prepares you to master critical skills including:

  • Advanced penetration testing methodologies and frameworks

  • Network and system vulnerability analysis

  • Exploit development and execution

  • Security assessment and reporting techniques

  • Hands-on knowledge of tools like Metasploit, Nessus, Nmap, and Wireshark

  • Understanding of attack vectors such as SQL Injection, Cross-Site Scripting, and Buffer Overflow

  • Techniques to identify, exploit, and mitigate security vulnerabilities

Topics Covered

The practice test covers all essential domains of the ECSA syllabus:

  • Penetration Testing Process: Planning, information gathering, vulnerability analysis

  • Network Penetration Testing: Scanning, enumeration, exploitation

  • Web Application Security: OWASP Top 10 vulnerabilities, secure coding practices

  • Wireless Network Testing: Attacks, tools, and defenses

  • System Hacking: Privilege escalation, password attacks, malware deployment

  • Report Writing and Documentation: Creating professional penetration testing reports

Why Choose Exam Sage for Your ECSA Exam Prep?

At Exam Sage, we understand that thorough preparation is key to success. Our practice tests are:

  • Realistic and Updated: Reflect the latest exam objectives and question formats

  • Detailed Explanations: Each question comes with clear, in-depth explanations to reinforce learning

  • Flexible Learning: Practice anytime, anywhere with our user-friendly platform

  • Trusted Resource: Used by thousands of cybersecurity professionals worldwide

Prepare smart, build confidence, and excel on your ECSA exam with Exam Sage — your trusted partner in cybersecurity certification success.

Sample Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following best describes a black-box penetration test?

A. The tester has full knowledge of the target system.
B. The tester has limited knowledge of the internal structure.
C. The tester has no prior knowledge of the target.
D. The tester only tests physical security aspects.

Answer: C
Explanation: A black-box test simulates an external attack without any internal knowledge of the system. It’s designed to mimic how a real attacker would approach the target.


2. During the post-exploitation phase, the primary goal of the analyst is to:

A. Scan for open ports.
B. Exploit additional systems.
C. Document all vulnerabilities.
D. Maintain access and extract valuable data.

Answer: D
Explanation: Post-exploitation involves maintaining access and identifying critical data or systems that can be leveraged.


3. Which standard outlines a detailed penetration testing methodology?

A. ISO 27002
B. NIST SP 800-53
C. OSSTMM
D. COBIT 5

Answer: C
Explanation: OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) provides a structured framework for security testing, including penetration testing.


4. What is the primary purpose of a rules of engagement (ROE) document?

A. To describe tools to be used.
B. To define scope, timing, and legal authorization.
C. To list vulnerabilities.
D. To bypass security controls.

Answer: B
Explanation: ROE ensures all parties understand the scope, constraints, and expectations of the penetration test.


5. Which tool is primarily used for web application vulnerability scanning?

A. Nmap
B. Wireshark
C. Burp Suite
D. John the Ripper

Answer: C
Explanation: Burp Suite is a widely used tool for testing web application vulnerabilities like XSS and SQL injection.


6. What type of vulnerability allows attackers to manipulate SQL queries?

A. Cross-Site Scripting
B. Directory Traversal
C. SQL Injection
D. CSRF

Answer: C
Explanation: SQL injection enables attackers to interfere with the queries that an application makes to its database.


7. Which of the following is most useful in identifying live hosts on a network?

A. Netcat
B. Metasploit
C. Ping Sweep
D. Hydra

Answer: C
Explanation: A ping sweep scans a range of IP addresses to determine which hosts are responsive.


8. What is the best way to capture and analyze network traffic?

A. Telnet
B. Snort
C. Wireshark
D. Nessus

Answer: C
Explanation: Wireshark is a leading packet analysis tool that captures and inspects network packets in detail.


9. What type of testing focuses on social engineering and human vulnerabilities?

A. Physical Penetration
B. Client-Side Penetration
C. Human-Based Penetration
D. Web Application Testing

Answer: C
Explanation: Human-based penetration testing involves testing user susceptibility through phishing, baiting, etc.


10. Which of the following best describes privilege escalation?

A. Obtaining access to a system
B. Upgrading user rights to gain admin access
C. Crashing a service
D. Deleting log files

Answer: B
Explanation: Privilege escalation exploits a flaw to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected.


11. What does the acronym “ECSA” stand for?

A. Ethical Cyber Security Analyst
B. EC-Council Certified Security Analyst
C. Enterprise Certified Security Auditor
D. Enhanced Cyber Security Architecture

Answer: B
Explanation: ECSA is short for EC-Council Certified Security Analyst, a credential focusing on penetration testing.


12. What is the final phase in a structured penetration test?

A. Scanning
B. Gaining Access
C. Reporting
D. Reconnaissance

Answer: C
Explanation: Reporting involves documenting the findings, risk ratings, and remediation recommendations.


13. Which one of the following tools is best suited for password cracking?

A. Metasploit
B. Burp Suite
C. John the Ripper
D. OWASP ZAP

Answer: C
Explanation: John the Ripper is a fast password cracker and useful in assessing password strength.


14. Which vulnerability can be exploited using a path like ../../etc/passwd?

A. Buffer Overflow
B. Directory Traversal
C. SQL Injection
D. XSS

Answer: B
Explanation: Directory traversal allows attackers to access restricted directories by manipulating file paths.


15. What phase involves information gathering without actively engaging the target?

A. Passive Reconnaissance
B. Exploitation
C. Enumeration
D. Scanning

Answer: A
Explanation: Passive reconnaissance collects data without direct interaction, using sources like WHOIS and social media.


16. Which of the following is a commonly used vulnerability scanner?

A. Hydra
B. Cain & Abel
C. Nessus
D. Hashcat

Answer: C
Explanation: Nessus is a comprehensive vulnerability scanner used to detect potential weaknesses in systems.


17. What does CVSS stand for?

A. Common Vulnerability Scoring System
B. Critical Vulnerability Security Standard
C. Cybersecurity Vulnerability Severity Scale
D. Common Verified Security System

Answer: A
Explanation: CVSS is used to assign severity scores to vulnerabilities for prioritization.


18. Which port is commonly associated with HTTPS traffic?

A. 21
B. 22
C. 80
D. 443

Answer: D
Explanation: Port 443 is the default for secure HTTPS communication.


19. What type of test is conducted with full knowledge of the internal systems?

A. Blind Test
B. White-Box Test
C. Black-Box Test
D. Double-Blind Test

Answer: B
Explanation: White-box testing provides full access and visibility into systems for detailed assessments.


20. Which phase includes defining objectives and scope of a test?

A. Exploitation
B. Reconnaissance
C. Pre-engagement
D. Reporting

Answer: C
Explanation: Pre-engagement defines goals, scope, and boundaries to ensure a legal and productive test.


21. What is the purpose of pivoting in penetration testing?

A. Disabling firewalls
B. Repeating scans
C. Using a compromised host to reach internal systems
D. Crashing services

Answer: C
Explanation: Pivoting allows testers to move laterally using an already compromised system.


22. Which technique is used to discover subdomains of a target?

A. ARP Spoofing
B. DNS Enumeration
C. SSL Stripping
D. Packet Injection

Answer: B
Explanation: DNS enumeration helps identify subdomains and IP addresses tied to a target.


23. Which of the following best describes XSS?

A. Server misconfiguration
B. Injection of malicious scripts into webpages
C. Hijacking TCP sessions
D. Gaining root access to Linux servers

Answer: B
Explanation: Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploits web applications by injecting malicious client-side scripts.


24. What is Metasploit primarily used for?

A. Network mapping
B. Web scanning
C. Exploiting vulnerabilities
D. Password recovery

Answer: C
Explanation: Metasploit is a popular penetration testing framework for developing and executing exploits.


25. What is a key purpose of a penetration test report?

A. To list tools used
B. To blame system administrators
C. To recommend actionable mitigations
D. To promote security vendors

Answer: C
Explanation: A penetration test report should offer detailed findings along with actionable recommendations.


26. Which scripting language is most commonly used in exploit development?

A. Ruby
B. Python
C. Perl
D. Java

Answer: B
Explanation: Python’s readability and library support make it ideal for writing exploits and automation tools.


27. What does the term “zero-day” refer to?

A. A vulnerability that has been patched
B. A publicly known vulnerability
C. A vulnerability with no known fix
D. A denial-of-service attack vector

Answer: C
Explanation: Zero-day vulnerabilities are newly discovered and have no official patch or fix at the time of discovery.


28. Which of the following best describes a buffer overflow?

A. Using outdated libraries
B. Running out of storage space
C. Writing data beyond buffer boundaries
D. Intercepting traffic between systems

Answer: C
Explanation: Buffer overflow occurs when a program writes more data than a buffer can hold, often leading to code execution.


29. Which of the following can be used to prevent session hijacking?

A. Enabling HTTP
B. Using default admin passwords
C. Implementing secure cookies and session timeouts
D. Disabling firewalls

Answer: C
Explanation: Secure cookies, SSL, and session timeouts are effective in mitigating session hijacking attacks.


30. In a vulnerability report, what is a false positive?

A. An identified vulnerability with no real risk
B. A real vulnerability with severe consequences
C. A missed vulnerability
D. An exploitable backdoor

Answer: A
Explanation: False positives are mistakenly identified vulnerabilities that pose no real threat.