312-76 EC-Council Disaster Recovery Professional Practice Exam
Are you ready to advance your career as a Disaster Recovery Professional? The 312-76 EC-Council Disaster Recovery Professional (EDRP) Practice Exam on Exam Sage is your ultimate resource to confidently prepare for the certification test. Designed by experts and aligned with the latest exam objectives, this practice exam helps you master key concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and enhance your test-taking skills.
What Is the 312-76 EC-Council Disaster Recovery Professional Exam?
The 312-76 EDRP exam validates your expertise in disaster recovery strategies, risk assessment, business continuity, and IT infrastructure protection. It assesses your ability to develop, implement, and manage effective disaster recovery plans to ensure organizations can quickly recover from disruptions caused by natural disasters, cyberattacks, or system failures.
What Will You Learn?
By using this practice exam, you will:
Gain a thorough understanding of disaster recovery fundamentals
Learn how to assess and mitigate risks impacting IT infrastructure
Master recovery time objectives (RTO) and recovery point objectives (RPO)
Explore different types of backup strategies and recovery site options
Understand regulatory compliance and documentation requirements
Improve your ability to respond to real-world disaster scenarios with effective recovery plans
Key Topics Covered
Disaster Recovery Planning and Policy Development
Risk Assessment and Business Impact Analysis
Data Backup, Storage, and Recovery Methods
Disaster Recovery Sites: Hot, Warm, and Cold Sites
Testing and Maintenance of Disaster Recovery Plans
Roles and Responsibilities in Disaster Recovery
Cloud-based Disaster Recovery Solutions
Incident Response and Failover Procedures
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ExamSage.com offers a comprehensive and user-friendly platform to help you succeed. Our 312-76 EC-Council Disaster Recovery Professional Practice Exam includes:
Realistic multiple-choice questions with detailed explanations
Regularly updated content aligned with the latest exam objectives
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Expert-curated resources to boost your confidence and knowledge
Start your journey toward disaster recovery certification today with Exam Sage and get the practice you need to pass the 312-76 EC-Council Disaster Recovery Professional exam with confidence.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. What is the primary goal of disaster recovery planning?
A) To prevent all disasters from occurring
B) To resume critical business operations as quickly as possible after a disruption
C) To eliminate all security vulnerabilities
D) To increase the company’s market share
Answer: B
Explanation: Disaster recovery planning focuses on restoring critical business operations quickly after an incident, minimizing downtime and data loss.
2. Which of the following is the most critical component of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)?
A) Employee training
B) Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
C) Marketing strategy
D) Social media management
Answer: B
Explanation: RTO defines the maximum tolerable downtime for a business function, guiding recovery priorities in a BCP.
3. What is the purpose of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?
A) To identify the financial impact of disasters on competitors
B) To determine the effect of disruptions on critical business functions
C) To evaluate marketing campaigns’ success
D) To analyze employee performance
Answer: B
Explanation: BIA assesses the potential impact of interruptions on business processes and helps prioritize recovery efforts.
4. Which of the following best describes the Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
A) The maximum acceptable length of time the business can be without a particular service
B) The amount of data loss acceptable during a disaster
C) The total cost of disaster recovery implementation
D) The duration needed to test disaster recovery plans
Answer: B
Explanation: RPO refers to the maximum tolerable data loss measured in time, indicating how frequently backups should occur.
5. Which disaster recovery strategy involves maintaining a fully operational duplicate site that can immediately take over operations?
A) Cold site
B) Warm site
C) Hot site
D) Backup site
Answer: C
Explanation: A hot site is a fully equipped duplicate environment that can be switched to immediately after a disaster.
6. What is the main difference between a cold site and a hot site?
A) Cold site is more expensive than a hot site
B) Hot site is operational immediately; cold site requires setup time
C) Cold site has more hardware than hot site
D) Hot site is located off-site; cold site is on-site
Answer: B
Explanation: Hot sites are ready for immediate use, whereas cold sites need equipment and data restored before use.
7. Which step comes first in the disaster recovery process?
A) Restoration
B) Risk assessment
C) Backup verification
D) Testing
Answer: B
Explanation: Risk assessment identifies potential threats and vulnerabilities before planning recovery actions.
8. In disaster recovery terminology, what is “failover”?
A) Shutting down operations temporarily
B) Switching to a redundant or backup system automatically
C) Restoring data from backups
D) Conducting a disaster recovery drill
Answer: B
Explanation: Failover is the process of switching to a backup system when the primary system fails.
9. Which type of backup involves copying only the data that has changed since the last full backup?
A) Incremental backup
B) Differential backup
C) Full backup
D) Mirror backup
Answer: A
Explanation: Incremental backups only copy data changed since the last backup of any type, saving time and storage.
10. How often should disaster recovery plans be tested?
A) Once every five years
B) Annually or after significant changes
C) Only when a disaster occurs
D) Every month
Answer: B
Explanation: Regular testing ensures plans remain effective and up to date, especially after changes.
11. What is the primary purpose of the Incident Response Team (IRT)?
A) To prevent all cyber attacks
B) To coordinate actions during and after an incident
C) To manage the company’s social media accounts
D) To increase sales during crises
Answer: B
Explanation: The IRT manages the identification, containment, eradication, and recovery from incidents.
12. Which document formally authorizes the disaster recovery plan?
A) Risk assessment report
B) Business Impact Analysis
C) Executive management approval
D) Incident report
Answer: C
Explanation: Executive approval legitimizes the disaster recovery plan and ensures resource allocation.
13. What type of testing verifies that a disaster recovery plan can be implemented successfully?
A) Tabletop exercise
B) Full interruption test
C) Walkthrough test
D) Simulation test
Answer: B
Explanation: A full interruption test actually halts operations to test the full recovery process under real conditions.
14. Which of the following is NOT a typical cause of disasters in IT?
A) Natural disasters
B) Human error
C) Market competition
D) Cyberattacks
Answer: C
Explanation: Market competition is a business risk but not a direct cause of IT disasters.
15. What does the acronym “DRP” stand for in disaster recovery?
A) Disaster Risk Prevention
B) Disaster Recovery Plan
C) Data Recovery Procedure
D) Digital Resource Planning
Answer: B
Explanation: DRP stands for Disaster Recovery Plan, a documented process for recovery.
16. What is the primary purpose of offsite data storage?
A) To reduce data storage costs
B) To protect data from local disasters
C) To increase network speed
D) To improve employee access
Answer: B
Explanation: Offsite storage safeguards data against local disasters like fires or floods.
17. Which backup method creates a complete copy of all data every time it runs?
A) Full backup
B) Differential backup
C) Incremental backup
D) Synthetic backup
Answer: A
Explanation: Full backups copy all selected data regardless of changes since the last backup.
18. What is meant by “business continuity”?
A) Marketing strategies for continuous sales
B) The ability of an organization to continue critical functions during and after a disaster
C) Employee training programs
D) IT system upgrades
Answer: B
Explanation: Business continuity ensures essential operations remain functional during crises.
19. Which of the following is a key benefit of virtualization in disaster recovery?
A) Higher hardware costs
B) Faster recovery and more flexible backups
C) Increased manual processes
D) Reduced network security
Answer: B
Explanation: Virtualization enables quick failover and restores by abstracting physical hardware dependencies.
20. What is the role of a “hot site” in disaster recovery?
A) A location where business processes are run manually during outages
B) A fully equipped backup facility ready for immediate use
C) A place to store backup tapes securely
D) A training center for employees
Answer: B
Explanation: Hot sites provide immediate availability of critical systems after a disaster.
21. Which of the following is a common disaster recovery risk mitigation technique?
A) Ignoring backup schedules
B) Frequent data backups and offsite storage
C) Limiting employee access to recovery plans
D) Disabling firewalls during recovery
Answer: B
Explanation: Regular backups and offsite storage reduce data loss risk.
22. What is the difference between a disaster and an incident?
A) Incidents have a larger financial impact than disasters
B) Disasters disrupt business on a larger scale than incidents
C) Incidents require no response
D) Disasters only affect IT infrastructure
Answer: B
Explanation: Disasters cause significant disruption; incidents are smaller, manageable events.
23. Which of the following is a critical factor when selecting a disaster recovery site?
A) Proximity to the primary site
B) Number of employees at the site
C) Local weather conditions and risk exposure
D) Distance from competitors
Answer: C
Explanation: The site should be in an area with low risk for the same disasters affecting the primary location.
24. What is “failback” in disaster recovery?
A) The process of switching to a backup system after a failure
B) Returning operations from the backup site to the primary site after restoration
C) The initial testing of the disaster recovery plan
D) The process of creating backups
Answer: B
Explanation: Failback restores operations to the primary site after disaster recovery.
25. Which of the following is NOT part of the disaster recovery lifecycle?
A) Preparation
B) Response
C) Marketing
D) Recovery
Answer: C
Explanation: Marketing is unrelated to the disaster recovery lifecycle phases.
26. What is the key objective of data replication in disaster recovery?
A) To reduce storage requirements
B) To ensure data availability in multiple locations for redundancy
C) To compress data for faster transfer
D) To delete duplicate files
Answer: B
Explanation: Data replication keeps copies in different locations to ensure availability after a failure.
27. Which regulatory requirement often influences disaster recovery planning?
A) HIPAA
B) ISO 9001
C) SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act)
D) Both A and C
Answer: D
Explanation: HIPAA and SOX impose data protection and recovery requirements on organizations.
28. What is the main advantage of cloud-based disaster recovery solutions?
A) They require more physical hardware
B) They allow on-demand scalability and remote accessibility
C) They eliminate the need for backups
D) They reduce security concerns
Answer: B
Explanation: Cloud DR offers scalable, flexible, and accessible recovery options without heavy capital expense.
29. What should a disaster recovery plan include to address human error?
A) Employee termination policies
B) Training, awareness, and clearly defined roles
C) Disabling user access during incidents
D) Increasing software licenses
Answer: B
Explanation: Training and awareness help prevent and respond effectively to human errors.
30. What is the significance of the “Single Point of Failure” (SPOF) in disaster recovery?
A) It’s a system component that, if it fails, causes the entire system to fail
B) It’s the main disaster recovery site
C) It refers to the data backup schedule
D) It is an insurance policy for disasters
Answer: A
Explanation: Identifying and eliminating SPOFs increases system resilience and availability.
31. Which of the following best defines “Risk Assessment” in disaster recovery?
A) The process of identifying, evaluating, and prioritizing risks to organizational assets
B) The act of transferring risk to a third party
C) Writing the disaster recovery plan
D) Restoring IT systems after a disaster
Answer: A
Explanation: Risk assessment identifies potential risks and their impact to develop mitigation strategies.
32. What is a “Tabletop Exercise” in disaster recovery?
A) A full-scale live simulation of disaster recovery procedures
B) A discussion-based session where team members talk through recovery scenarios
C) The physical relocation of data center equipment
D) Automated testing of backup restoration
Answer: B
Explanation: Tabletop exercises allow stakeholders to review and discuss their roles in a simulated disaster scenario without actual system disruption.
33. What does the acronym “MTTR” stand for?
A) Maximum Time To Recover
B) Mean Time To Repair
C) Minimum Time To Respond
D) Mean Time To Respond
Answer: B
Explanation: MTTR measures the average time needed to repair a failed component and restore service.
34. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of a “Warm Site”?
A) It is fully operational at all times
B) It has hardware and connectivity but requires data restoration before use
C) It is a backup location with no hardware or connectivity
D) It is used only for training purposes
Answer: B
Explanation: Warm sites have some infrastructure ready but need additional setup to become operational.
35. Which document outlines the detailed steps for restoring specific IT systems?
A) Business Continuity Plan
B) Disaster Recovery Procedures
C) Risk Assessment Report
D) Incident Response Plan
Answer: B
Explanation: Disaster Recovery Procedures provide step-by-step instructions for technical restoration.
36. Why is it important to have multiple backup copies stored in different locations?
A) To confuse attackers
B) To ensure availability even if one location is compromised
C) To reduce backup costs
D) To speed up the backup process
Answer: B
Explanation: Multiple backup copies in separate locations protect against localized disasters destroying all copies.
37. What is the main disadvantage of tape backups compared to disk backups?
A) Higher cost per GB
B) Slower recovery times and limited random access
C) Lack of portability
D) Tape backups are less reliable
Answer: B
Explanation: Tape backups usually have slower data retrieval times due to sequential access.
38. What is the primary role of encryption in disaster recovery?
A) To improve backup speeds
B) To protect data confidentiality during storage and transmission
C) To compress backup data
D) To format backup media
Answer: B
Explanation: Encryption protects sensitive backup data from unauthorized access.
39. What is the “Order of Restoration” in disaster recovery?
A) The priority in which systems and services are restored after a disaster
B) The sequence of backup creation
C) The schedule for disaster recovery training
D) The order of purchasing new hardware
Answer: A
Explanation: Prioritizing restoration ensures the most critical functions are brought back online first.
40. What is a “Disaster Recovery Coordinator”?
A) The person responsible for maintaining the disaster recovery infrastructure
B) The individual who oversees disaster recovery planning, testing, and execution
C) The head of the IT department
D) A third-party vendor specializing in data recovery
Answer: B
Explanation: This person manages and coordinates all disaster recovery activities.
41. What is the difference between “Disaster Recovery” and “Business Continuity”?
A) Disaster recovery focuses on IT systems, business continuity focuses on overall operations
B) They are the same thing
C) Business continuity only applies to financial institutions
D) Disaster recovery is only about data backup
Answer: A
Explanation: Disaster recovery is part of business continuity but focuses mainly on IT system recovery.
42. Which of the following is a common disaster recovery metric?
A) ROI (Return on Investment)
B) SLA (Service Level Agreement) compliance
C) Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
D) Employee satisfaction score
Answer: C
Explanation: RTO is a key metric that defines acceptable downtime limits.
43. What is a “DRP Runbook”?
A) A detailed manual of disaster recovery procedures
B) A financial document
C) A contract with third-party vendors
D) An inventory list of all company assets
Answer: A
Explanation: A runbook guides technical teams through disaster recovery steps.
44. Which factor MOST affects the selection of backup technology?
A) Color of backup media
B) Required Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
C) Employee preference
D) Location of the IT department
Answer: B
Explanation: Backup methods are selected based on how much data loss and downtime is tolerable.
45. What is the purpose of “Change Management” in disaster recovery?
A) To control modifications to recovery plans and systems to avoid unintended disruptions
B) To track changes in employee roles
C) To manage marketing campaigns
D) To handle salary increases
Answer: A
Explanation: Change management ensures updates don’t compromise recovery readiness.
46. How does a “Business Continuity Plan” support an organization during a disaster?
A) It guarantees zero downtime
B) It defines how critical business functions continue with minimal disruption
C) It replaces the need for IT backups
D) It only applies after recovery is complete
Answer: B
Explanation: The BCP ensures essential business processes remain operational during and after incidents.
47. What is the primary cause of failure in disaster recovery?
A) Hardware malfunction
B) Lack of plan testing and employee training
C) Network congestion
D) Software bugs
Answer: B
Explanation: Even good plans fail without regular testing and well-trained personnel.
48. What is the main advantage of continuous data protection (CDP)?
A) It reduces storage costs drastically
B) It captures and replicates data changes in real-time or near real-time
C) It replaces backup tapes
D) It eliminates the need for disaster recovery plans
Answer: B
Explanation: CDP minimizes data loss by continuously backing up data changes.
49. Which of the following best describes the “Failover Testing” process?
A) Switching systems to backup components to validate disaster recovery procedures
B) Disabling primary systems permanently
C) Upgrading software automatically
D) Increasing server capacity
Answer: A
Explanation: Failover testing ensures that backup systems function correctly when primary systems fail.
50. What does a “Mock Disaster” test involve?
A) Real data destruction to test response
B) Simulated disaster scenario to test team readiness without actual system disruption
C) Hiring external auditors
D) Data encryption drills
Answer: B
Explanation: Mock disasters are controlled drills that test preparedness without real damage.
51. Which of the following is NOT typically included in a Disaster Recovery Plan?
A) Contact information of key personnel
B) Inventory of critical assets
C) Marketing budget plans
D) Backup and restoration procedures
Answer: C
Explanation: Marketing budgets are unrelated to disaster recovery.
52. What is the main purpose of a “Disaster Recovery Policy”?
A) To provide high-level guidelines and management commitment for disaster recovery efforts
B) To schedule employee vacations
C) To design network architecture
D) To specify vendor contracts
Answer: A
Explanation: The policy establishes organizational commitment and scope for recovery.
53. Which factor increases the complexity of disaster recovery planning?
A) Large geographic distribution of company sites
B) Simple IT infrastructure
C) Small company size
D) Low regulatory requirements
Answer: A
Explanation: Multiple sites require coordination across diverse environments, increasing complexity.
54. What is “Data Archiving” in relation to disaster recovery?
A) Storing data that is infrequently accessed but retained for compliance or historical reasons
B) Deleting old backups
C) Compressing data before backup
D) A type of encryption
Answer: A
Explanation: Archiving preserves long-term data for legal or business purposes, separate from active backups.
55. How does automation benefit disaster recovery processes?
A) It removes the need for human oversight entirely
B) It accelerates recovery steps and reduces human error
C) It complicates recovery
D) It increases costs without benefits
Answer: B
Explanation: Automation speeds up repetitive tasks and improves accuracy during recovery.
56. Which is a key component of “Crisis Communication” during a disaster?
A) Hiding information to prevent panic
B) Timely, accurate, and clear communication to stakeholders
C) Only informing IT staff
D) Ignoring media inquiries
Answer: B
Explanation: Effective communication helps manage expectations and coordinate response efforts.
57. Which of the following is considered a “natural disaster” risk?
A) Power outage
B) Earthquake
C) Cyber attack
D) Hardware failure
Answer: B
Explanation: Earthquakes are natural disasters affecting physical infrastructure.
58. Why is documentation critical in disaster recovery?
A) It allows quick restoration and provides a reference during stressful events
B) It increases paperwork with no benefit
C) It delays recovery
D) It replaces training
Answer: A
Explanation: Clear documentation guides teams through complex recovery procedures.
59. What is the role of “Backup Verification”?
A) To confirm backups are usable and complete before a disaster occurs
B) To create new backups
C) To delete old backups
D) To test employee knowledge
Answer: A
Explanation: Verification ensures backups can be restored successfully when needed.
60. Which of the following is a BEST practice when selecting a disaster recovery vendor?
A) Choose the lowest cost vendor regardless of capabilities
B) Evaluate vendor’s reputation, compliance, and service level agreements
C) Select a vendor with no prior experience
D) Avoid signing a formal contract
Answer: B
Explanation: Vendor evaluation ensures reliability and adherence to organizational needs.
