Immunology and Vaccines in the Health Sciences Practice Quiz
Which of the following is the primary function of the immune system?
A) To protect the body from harmful microorganisms
B) To store energy for future use
C) To digest food
D) To help in the production of red blood cells
Which type of white blood cell is primarily responsible for fighting bacterial infections?
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) T-cells
D) B-cells
What is the role of antibodies in the immune response?
A) They destroy pathogens directly
B) They act as a signal for T-cells to destroy infected cells
C) They help activate the complement system
D) They bind to antigens to neutralize or mark them for destruction
Which of the following is a feature of the adaptive immune system?
A) It is present from birth and does not change
B) It involves memory cells to recognize previously encountered pathogens
C) It responds to pathogens immediately without delay
D) It is nonspecific and reacts in the same way to all pathogens
Which cells are responsible for the production of antibodies?
A) B-cells
B) T-cells
C) Macrophages
D) Dendritic cells
What is the function of T-helper cells in immune responses?
A) They produce antibodies
B) They stimulate other immune cells by releasing cytokines
C) They directly kill infected cells
D) They ingest and digest pathogens
Which of the following best describes a vaccine?
A) A treatment for active infections
B) A substance that stimulates the production of antibodies to protect against disease
C) A food supplement that boosts immunity
D) A type of pathogen
Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?
A) Immunity after vaccination
B) Immunity from mother to baby via breast milk
C) Immunity gained by exposure to a disease
D) Immunity from taking an antiviral drug
What is the main difference between active and passive immunity?
A) Active immunity involves the body producing its own antibodies, while passive immunity involves receiving antibodies from another source
B) Active immunity occurs faster than passive immunity
C) Passive immunity involves the activation of T-cells, while active immunity does not
D) There is no difference between active and passive immunity
What is the purpose of herd immunity?
A) To eliminate all pathogens from a population
B) To protect individuals who are not immune by reducing the spread of disease within the population
C) To provide long-lasting immunity to all members of a population
D) To boost individual immune responses to vaccines
Which of the following is an example of a live attenuated vaccine?
A) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine
B) Tetanus vaccine
C) Hepatitis B vaccine
D) Influenza vaccine (inactivated)
What is the purpose of the adjuvant in vaccines?
A) To prevent the vaccine from being destroyed by the body
B) To enhance the immune response to the vaccine
C) To increase the number of pathogens in the vaccine
D) To reduce side effects from the vaccine
Which immune cells are involved in the rejection of transplanted organs?
A) T-cells
B) B-cells
C) Neutrophils
D) Eosinophils
What type of vaccine is composed of inactivated or killed pathogens?
A) Subunit vaccine
B) Toxoid vaccine
C) Inactivated vaccine
D) Live attenuated vaccine
Which of the following is a common side effect of vaccines?
A) Long-term chronic illness
B) Pain or swelling at the injection site
C) Weight gain
D) Coughing and sneezing
What is an example of an autoimmune disease?
A) Type 1 diabetes
B) Tuberculosis
C) Measles
D) Common cold
Which molecule is responsible for the activation of the complement system?
A) Antibodies
B) Histamines
C) Interleukins
D) Cytokines
What does a “booster shot” in vaccination help with?
A) It provides initial protection against disease
B) It enhances and prolongs immunity by increasing antibody production
C) It prevents immediate side effects
D) It decreases the likelihood of vaccine-associated disease
What is the role of phagocytes in the immune system?
A) They secrete antibodies
B) They destroy pathogens through ingestion and digestion
C) They produce cytokines to regulate the immune response
D) They activate helper T-cells
Which of the following statements is true regarding the MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex)?
A) MHC molecules are involved in the presentation of antigens to T-cells
B) MHC molecules are responsible for the production of antibodies
C) MHC molecules kill infected cells directly
D) MHC molecules are only involved in innate immunity
Which of the following is a characteristic of the innate immune system?
A) It provides long-term protection through memory cells
B) It is specific to the pathogen
C) It responds rapidly and in a generalized manner to pathogens
D) It relies on antibodies produced by B-cells
What is an example of an inactivated vaccine?
A) Polio (IPV) vaccine
B) Yellow fever vaccine
C) Chickenpox vaccine
D) Rotavirus vaccine
What is the role of dendritic cells in the immune system?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To present antigens to T-cells
C) To destroy pathogens by phagocytosis
D) To regulate inflammation
Which of the following diseases is primarily prevented by a vaccine that contains a toxoid?
A) Tetanus
B) Hepatitis B
C) Influenza
D) Measles
Which of the following is NOT a component of the immune response?
A) Antibodies
B) Bone marrow
C) Mucous membranes
D) Insulin production
What is the primary function of the spleen in the immune system?
A) To produce red blood cells
B) To filter pathogens from the blood and recycle iron
C) To produce insulin
D) To store calcium
Which type of immune cell is responsible for killing virus-infected cells?
A) Cytotoxic T-cells
B) B-cells
C) Macrophages
D) Helper T-cells
The principle of “vaccination” is to:
A) Expose the immune system to a harmless form of the pathogen to stimulate an immune response
B) Treat an active infection with antibiotics
C) Enhance the growth of bacteria in the body
D) Inject the body with live pathogens to cause disease
Which of the following best describes herd immunity?
A) Immunity in which a majority of individuals in a population are vaccinated, helping to protect those who are not immune
B) Immunity provided by the use of antibiotics
C) Immunity that occurs when an individual is exposed to a virus and becomes ill
D) Immunity that only protects individuals who are vaccinated
The term “antigen” refers to:
A) A substance that can trigger an immune response
B) A protein that breaks down pathogens
C) A type of antibody
D) A molecule that fights off infection
31. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a T-cell receptor (TCR)?
A) It binds directly to pathogens in the blood
B) It recognizes antigens presented by MHC molecules
C) It produces antibodies
D) It is involved in the production of cytokines
32. Which of the following cells is involved in the allergic response?
A) Mast cells
B) Erythrocytes
C) T-helper cells
D) Neutrophils
33. Which of the following is true about the role of cytokines in immunity?
A) Cytokines directly kill pathogens
B) Cytokines are involved in cell signaling to coordinate immune responses
C) Cytokines produce antibodies
D) Cytokines form the structure of antibodies
34. Which type of immune cell is primarily responsible for the destruction of infected body cells?
A) B-cells
B) Cytotoxic T-cells
C) Helper T-cells
D) Dendritic cells
35. Which type of immunity is provided by vaccination?
A) Natural active immunity
B) Artificial passive immunity
C) Artificial active immunity
D) Natural passive immunity
36. What is the most common route for a vaccine to be administered?
A) Intravenous
B) Intramuscular
C) Oral
D) Subcutaneous
37. What type of vaccine contains only a piece of the pathogen, such as a protein or polysaccharide?
A) Recombinant vaccine
B) Subunit vaccine
C) Inactivated vaccine
D) Live attenuated vaccine
38. Which type of immunity occurs when a person is exposed to a disease and their body mounts an immune response, leading to the formation of memory cells?
A) Natural passive immunity
B) Artificial active immunity
C) Natural active immunity
D) Artificial passive immunity
39. What is the primary function of the lymphatic system in immune defense?
A) To produce hormones for cell regulation
B) To circulate immune cells throughout the body
C) To provide nutrients to cells
D) To filter toxins from the blood
40. What is the role of regulatory T-cells in immune responses?
A) They kill infected cells directly
B) They help regulate and suppress the immune response to prevent autoimmunity
C) They produce antibodies
D) They present antigens to helper T-cells
41. Which vaccine is used to prevent the human papillomavirus (HPV) infection?
A) MMR vaccine
B) Hib vaccine
C) HPV vaccine
D) Hepatitis B vaccine
42. Which of the following is an example of a non-specific defense mechanism?
A) The production of antibodies
B) The response of T-cells to a specific pathogen
C) The skin acting as a physical barrier
D) The memory response after vaccination
43. Which of the following is the most common cause of autoimmune diseases?
A) Inherited mutations
B) Environmental factors and infections
C) Overuse of antibiotics
D) Lack of sleep
44. What is the purpose of a “booster” vaccine dose?
A) To provide initial immunity against a pathogen
B) To restore immunity after it wanes over time
C) To introduce new pathogens to the body
D) To treat an active infection
45. Which type of immunity is provided when a baby receives antibodies from the mother during pregnancy or breastfeeding?
A) Artificial passive immunity
B) Natural passive immunity
C) Artificial active immunity
D) Natural active immunity
46. The “Herd Immunity” concept works by:
A) Isolating infected individuals
B) Reducing pathogen exposure by vaccinating a large portion of the population
C) Limiting the availability of vaccines
D) Treating infected individuals with antiviral drugs
47. What is an example of a vaccine that provides protection against bacterial diseases?
A) Hepatitis A vaccine
B) Diphtheria vaccine
C) Varicella vaccine
D) Influenza vaccine
48. What immune cells are involved in the formation of memory cells after an infection or vaccination?
A) B-cells and T-cells
B) Neutrophils and macrophages
C) Eosinophils and basophils
D) Dendritic cells and mast cells
49. Which type of vaccine contains a bacterial toxin that has been inactivated but still stimulates an immune response?
A) Live attenuated vaccine
B) Inactivated vaccine
C) Toxoid vaccine
D) Subunit vaccine
50. Which of the following best describes the term “adjuvant” in vaccines?
A) It is a viral component used to stimulate immunity
B) It is a substance that enhances the immune response to the vaccine
C) It is the inactive form of a virus used in a vaccine
D) It is an antibiotic used in vaccine production
51. Which of the following cells is most involved in the initial recognition of pathogens?
A) T-helper cells
B) Macrophages
C) B-cells
D) Cytotoxic T-cells
52. How does an mRNA vaccine work?
A) It directly injects proteins from the pathogen into the body
B) It uses messenger RNA to instruct cells to produce the antigen for immune recognition
C) It contains live virus particles to stimulate an immune response
D) It modifies the pathogen to make it less harmful
53. What is a potential side effect of an allergic reaction to a vaccine?
A) Fever
B) Swelling and redness at the injection site
C) Anaphylaxis (severe allergic reaction)
D) Headache
54. What is the first line of defense in the body’s immune system?
A) Antibodies
B) Physical barriers such as the skin
C) Memory cells
D) T-cells
55. Which of the following is a characteristic of innate immunity?
A) It recognizes specific pathogens
B) It involves memory cells to recognize previously encountered pathogens
C) It responds in a non-specific manner to pathogens
D) It requires prior exposure to pathogens for activation
56. What is the function of the humoral immune response?
A) It involves the production of antibodies by B-cells
B) It activates T-cells to destroy infected cells
C) It creates memory cells to protect against future infections
D) It directly destroys pathogens through phagocytosis
57. Which of the following vaccines is used to prevent hepatitis B infection?
A) Polio vaccine
B) Hepatitis B vaccine
C) MMR vaccine
D) Varicella vaccine
58. Which of the following is a characteristic of memory cells in adaptive immunity?
A) They remain in the body long-term and respond rapidly upon re-exposure to a pathogen
B) They are destroyed after the immune response subsides
C) They do not participate in the immune response
D) They are the primary producers of antibodies
59. Which of the following is a method by which pathogens evade the immune system?
A) By producing vaccines that target specific antigens
B) By changing their surface proteins to avoid detection
C) By increasing the number of immune cells
D) By enhancing the immune response with cytokines
60. Which of the following is the most common method for preparing vaccines?
A) Using live pathogens that have been weakened
B) Using synthetic antibodies
C) Using inactive or killed pathogens
D) Using antibiotics to destroy pathogens before vaccination
61. Which of the following is the primary function of neutrophils in the immune system?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To activate T-cells
C) To phagocytize pathogens
D) To produce cytokines
62. What is the function of plasma cells in the immune system?
A) To directly kill infected cells
B) To release antibodies into the bloodstream
C) To store antibodies for later use
D) To regulate the immune response
63. Which of the following best describes the process of phagocytosis?
A) The destruction of infected cells by T-cells
B) The ingestion and digestion of pathogens by immune cells
C) The release of antibodies into the bloodstream
D) The activation of helper T-cells
64. What is the primary target of the BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) vaccine?
A) Influenza
B) Tuberculosis
C) Measles
D) Polio
65. Which of the following is true about memory B-cells?
A) They destroy infected cells directly
B) They produce antibodies during the primary immune response
C) They help with the rapid production of antibodies upon re-exposure to an antigen
D) They recognize pathogens through T-cell receptors
66. Which class of antibodies is most abundant in the blood and plays a key role in neutralizing pathogens?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgE
67. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective vaccine?
A) It stimulates a strong and long-lasting immune response
B) It provides immunity without causing disease
C) It only protects against a single strain of a pathogen
D) It induces the formation of memory cells
68. What is the role of the bone marrow in the immune system?
A) To produce red and white blood cells, including immune cells
B) To filter pathogens from the blood
C) To present antigens to T-cells
D) To store excess iron
69. Which of the following immune responses is specific to a particular pathogen?
A) Innate immune response
B) Adaptive immune response
C) Physical barriers
D) Inflammatory response
70. What is the function of interferons in the immune response?
A) To increase the production of antibodies
B) To interfere with viral replication and activate immune cells
C) To promote the inflammation response
D) To kill infected cells directly
71. What is the difference between humoral and cell-mediated immunity?
A) Humoral immunity involves antibodies, while cell-mediated immunity involves T-cells
B) Humoral immunity involves T-cells, while cell-mediated immunity involves B-cells
C) Humoral immunity is specific, while cell-mediated immunity is nonspecific
D) Humoral immunity involves cytokines, while cell-mediated immunity involves phagocytosis
72. Which vaccine is given to prevent pneumococcal infections?
A) MMR vaccine
B) Diphtheria vaccine
C) Pneumococcal vaccine
D) Hepatitis A vaccine
73. Which of the following is a major difference between active and passive immunity?
A) Active immunity provides temporary protection, while passive immunity provides long-lasting protection
B) Active immunity involves the production of antibodies by the body, while passive immunity involves the transfer of antibodies from another source
C) Passive immunity is achieved through vaccination, while active immunity occurs naturally
D) Active immunity does not involve memory cells, while passive immunity does
74. Which of the following is true about the influenza vaccine?
A) It provides lifetime immunity to the flu
B) It contains live influenza viruses that cause illness
C) It helps prevent infection with multiple strains of influenza
D) It is only effective for a few months, and a new vaccine is required each year
75. What is an example of a subunit vaccine?
A) Polio vaccine (inactivated)
B) MMR vaccine
C) Hepatitis B vaccine
D) Yellow fever vaccine
76. What type of immune cell is most responsible for the body’s ability to recognize and destroy cancer cells?
A) Cytotoxic T-cells
B) Helper T-cells
C) B-cells
D) Macrophages
77. What is the purpose of the MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine?
A) To protect against bacterial infections
B) To stimulate the immune system against viral infections
C) To provide protection from tuberculosis
D) To protect against HIV/AIDS
78. Which type of immune cell is involved in both innate and adaptive immunity?
A) Macrophages
B) T-helper cells
C) Dendritic cells
D) Plasma cells
79. What is a toxoid vaccine made from?
A) A whole virus or bacterium
B) A weakened pathogen
C) A bacterial toxin that has been inactivated
D) A portion of the pathogen’s DNA
80. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “live attenuated” vaccine?
A) It contains inactivated virus particles
B) It contains weakened or modified live pathogens
C) It requires multiple doses for effective protection
D) It is not suitable for individuals with weakened immune systems
81. What is the primary purpose of the immune checkpoint inhibitors used in cancer immunotherapy?
A) To boost the body’s ability to produce antibodies
B) To enhance the immune system’s response to cancer cells
C) To directly kill cancer cells without immune involvement
D) To suppress the immune response to avoid autoimmunity
82. What is an antigen-presenting cell (APC)?
A) A cell that produces antibodies
B) A cell that displays antigens to T-cells to activate them
C) A cell that kills infected cells directly
D) A cell that stores immune memory
83. Which of the following is NOT an example of a viral infection prevented by vaccines?
A) Smallpox
B) Polio
C) Measles
D) Tuberculosis
84. What type of immune response is triggered by a secondary exposure to a pathogen?
A) The same response as the first exposure
B) A stronger and faster response due to memory cells
C) A slower and weaker response
D) No response at all
85. Which of the following vaccines is administered as part of childhood immunization schedules?
A) Hepatitis C vaccine
B) BCG vaccine
C) Malaria vaccine
D) MMR vaccine
86. Which cell type is involved in the rejection of transplanted organs?
A) Cytotoxic T-cells
B) B-cells
C) Plasma cells
D) Neutrophils
87. What is the role of antigenic variation in the immune evasion of pathogens like the influenza virus?
A) It helps the pathogen increase its size and infect more cells
B) It helps the pathogen produce more toxins to damage the immune system
C) It allows the pathogen to change its surface proteins to avoid immune detection
D) It enables the pathogen to travel faster through the bloodstream
88. Which of the following immune responses involves the production of large quantities of antibodies to neutralize pathogens?
A) Innate immune response
B) Inflammatory response
C) Humoral immune response
D) Cell-mediated immune response
89. What type of immunity is provided by the administration of monoclonal antibodies?
A) Natural active immunity
B) Artificial passive immunity
C) Natural passive immunity
D) Artificial active immunity
90. What is the purpose of the oral polio vaccine (OPV)?
A) To reduce the risk of an allergic reaction to polio
B) To provide long-term immunity against polio through the ingestion of a live, attenuated virus
C) To eliminate all traces of polio virus in the population
D) To activate T-cells without producing antibodies
91. Which of the following is NOT an example of a live attenuated vaccine?
A) Measles vaccine
B) Yellow fever vaccine
C) Oral polio vaccine (OPV)
D) Hepatitis B vaccine
92. What is the primary function of dendritic cells in the immune response?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To destroy infected cells
C) To present antigens to T-cells
D) To produce cytokines
93. Which of the following statements is true about autoimmune diseases?
A) They are caused by an overactive immune response to external pathogens
B) The immune system attacks the body’s own tissues
C) They only affect older adults
D) They are always fatal if not treated
94. What is the function of the complement system in the immune response?
A) To promote inflammation and destroy pathogens
B) To produce antibodies
C) To activate T-cells
D) To produce memory cells
95. Which of the following vaccines is designed to prevent a bacterial infection that causes meningitis?
A) MMR vaccine
B) Hib vaccine
C) Diphtheria vaccine
D) HPV vaccine
96. Which part of the immune system is responsible for “recognizing” and responding to specific antigens?
A) Innate immune system
B) Adaptive immune system
C) Inflammatory response
D) Physical barriers
97. What is the function of helper T-cells in the immune system?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To kill infected cells directly
C) To activate other immune cells like B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells
D) To regulate the immune response
98. Which of the following is an example of an inactivated (killed) vaccine?
A) Measles vaccine
B) Influenza vaccine (inactivated)
C) Yellow fever vaccine
D) Oral polio vaccine (OPV)
99. What is the primary role of the spleen in the immune system?
A) To produce red blood cells
B) To filter pathogens and old blood cells from the blood
C) To store immune cells
D) To regulate body temperature
100. Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies?
A) Neutralizing toxins
B) Enhancing phagocytosis by immune cells
C) Destroying infected cells directly
D) Preventing pathogens from entering host cells
101. Which of the following is a characteristic of adaptive immunity?
A) It is a nonspecific response to pathogens
B) It involves the activation of T-cells and B-cells
C) It is immediate and short-lasting
D) It does not involve memory cells
102. What is the process by which the immune system “learns” to recognize and attack specific pathogens over time?
A) Innate immunity
B) Adaptive immunity
C) Complement activation
D) Phagocytosis
103. Which type of vaccine is composed of weakened (but live) pathogens?
A) Inactivated vaccine
B) Subunit vaccine
C) Toxoid vaccine
D) Live attenuated vaccine
104. What is the role of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) in the immune system?
A) To destroy pathogens directly
B) To present antigens on the surface of cells for recognition by T-cells
C) To produce antibodies
D) To regulate cytokine production
105. Which of the following is the most common route for administering vaccines to infants?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Subcutaneous
D) Intravenous
106. What is herd immunity?
A) Protection provided by the immune system of a single individual
B) Protection against disease provided when a significant portion of the population is vaccinated or immune
C) Immunity acquired by a person through the transfer of antibodies from another individual
D) Immunity that only protects against bacterial infections
107. Which of the following is the main characteristic of a toxoid vaccine?
A) It contains whole pathogens that have been killed
B) It contains an inactivated bacterial toxin
C) It contains weakened live pathogens
D) It contains a part of the pathogen’s DNA
108. Which of the following cells are essential for the body’s immune memory?
A) B-cells
B) T-helper cells
C) Memory cells
D) Neutrophils
109. Which vaccine is used to protect against the varicella-zoster virus (chickenpox)?
A) MMR vaccine
B) Diphtheria vaccine
C) Varicella vaccine
D) HPV vaccine
110. What is the function of natural killer (NK) cells in the immune response?
A) To phagocytize pathogens
B) To produce antibodies
C) To destroy infected or cancerous cells without prior sensitization
D) To activate T-cells
111. Which of the following best describes a booster shot?
A) A primary dose of a vaccine given after an infection
B) A secondary dose of a vaccine to enhance the immune response
C) A vaccine that prevents long-term infection
D) A treatment for viral infections
112. Which of the following immune responses is activated when an individual is first exposed to a pathogen?
A) Primary immune response
B) Secondary immune response
C) Tertiary immune response
D) Passive immunity
113. What is the function of the immune system’s inflammatory response?
A) To directly kill pathogens
B) To increase blood flow and bring immune cells to the site of infection
C) To prevent pathogens from entering the body
D) To reduce immune cell activity
114. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective vaccine?
A) It is safe and causes no severe side effects
B) It provides long-lasting immunity
C) It always provides 100% protection from disease
D) It can be produced in large quantities
115. What type of immunity occurs when a person receives antibodies through breast milk or placenta?
A) Artificial active immunity
B) Artificial passive immunity
C) Natural active immunity
D) Natural passive immunity
116. What is the primary purpose of an adjuvant in a vaccine?
A) To help the vaccine remain stable during storage
B) To enhance the immune response to the vaccine
C) To make the vaccine more affordable
D) To decrease the number of booster shots needed
117. What immune cells are primarily involved in the recognition of viruses?
A) B-cells
B) Cytotoxic T-cells
C) Helper T-cells
D) Mast cells
118. Which of the following vaccines provides protection against a virus that can lead to liver disease?
A) Hepatitis B vaccine
B) Influenza vaccine
C) Measles vaccine
D) Tuberculosis vaccine
119. What is the process by which antibodies prevent pathogens from entering host cells?
A) Phagocytosis
B) Opsonization
C) Neutralization
D) Complement activation
120. What is the primary difference between the innate and adaptive immune responses?
A) The innate immune response is slower and more specific
B) The adaptive immune response does not involve memory cells
C) The innate immune response is nonspecific and immediate
D) The adaptive immune response only involves B-cells
121. Which of the following best describes a herd immunity threshold?
A) The proportion of individuals required to achieve immunity through vaccination to prevent the spread of disease
B) The proportion of the population that naturally acquires immunity after infection
C) The percentage of individuals who need to contract a disease to ensure its complete eradication
D) The number of vaccines required for an individual to gain full immunity
122. Which of the following is a component of the innate immune response?
A) Antibody production by B-cells
B) Activation of cytotoxic T-cells
C) Physical barriers like the skin
D) Formation of memory cells
123. What is the function of a monoclonal antibody in vaccine development?
A) To kill bacteria directly
B) To enhance the body’s immune response to a pathogen
C) To stimulate the production of cytokines
D) To mimic a pathogen’s surface proteins for recognition by the immune system
124. Which of the following is a key feature of a DNA vaccine?
A) It uses weakened viruses to trigger immunity
B) It contains DNA encoding a pathogen’s antigens to stimulate an immune response
C) It requires an adjuvant to be effective
D) It is composed of inactivated bacterial toxins
125. Which of the following is the most common route for administering vaccines to adults?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Subcutaneous
D) Intravenous
126. What is the role of the blood-brain barrier in the immune system?
A) To prevent pathogens from entering the brain
B) To transport immune cells to the brain
C) To help activate immune responses in the brain
D) To produce antibodies within the brain
127. What is the primary purpose of an adjuvant in a vaccine?
A) To enhance the immune system’s response to the vaccine
B) To protect the vaccine from degradation
C) To act as a carrier for the pathogen’s antigens
D) To increase the risk of side effects
128. Which of the following is the function of cytotoxic T-cells?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To present antigens to B-cells
C) To kill infected cells directly
D) To activate macrophages
129. What is the term for the process by which an immune cell engulfs and digests a pathogen?
A) Opsonization
B) Phagocytosis
C) Antigen presentation
D) Clonal selection
130. Which of the following vaccines is composed of purified parts of a pathogen rather than whole microorganisms?
A) Inactivated vaccine
B) Subunit vaccine
C) Live attenuated vaccine
D) DNA vaccine
131. What is the primary characteristic of an inactivated (killed) vaccine?
A) It contains live but weakened pathogens
B) It contains dead pathogens or pathogen components
C) It requires multiple doses to be effective
D) It provides long-lasting immunity without the need for boosters
132. Which immune cells are responsible for producing antibodies?
A) Helper T-cells
B) Cytotoxic T-cells
C) B-cells
D) Natural killer cells
133. Which of the following is the most common cause of vaccine failure?
A) Inadequate storage conditions for vaccines
B) Insufficient vaccination coverage in the population
C) Inadequate production of memory cells
D) Incorrect administration technique
134. What is the function of the thymus in the immune system?
A) To filter pathogens from the blood
B) To produce antibodies
C) To mature T-cells
D) To produce red blood cells
135. Which of the following is a characteristic of passive immunity?
A) It involves the body’s own production of antibodies
B) It is long-lasting and provides lifelong protection
C) It involves the transfer of antibodies from another individual or organism
D) It is acquired through vaccination
136. What is the function of memory T-cells in the immune response?
A) To produce antibodies during the primary immune response
B) To activate other immune cells upon re-exposure to a pathogen
C) To destroy infected cells directly
D) To engulf and digest pathogens
137. Which of the following vaccines is recommended for protection against the human papillomavirus (HPV)?
A) Diphtheria vaccine
B) MMR vaccine
C) HPV vaccine
D) BCG vaccine
138. What is the function of regulatory T-cells in the immune system?
A) To destroy infected cells
B) To suppress excessive immune responses and prevent autoimmunity
C) To present antigens to B-cells
D) To produce antibodies
139. Which of the following is a disadvantage of live attenuated vaccines?
A) They provide less long-term immunity than inactivated vaccines
B) They can cause disease in immunocompromised individuals
C) They require multiple doses to be effective
D) They are more likely to cause allergic reactions
140. What is the purpose of vaccination?
A) To cure an existing infection
B) To expose the body to a pathogen to cause disease
C) To stimulate an immune response and provide immunity without causing illness
D) To suppress the immune system
141. What type of immune response is triggered when an individual receives an injection of antibodies?
A) Active immunity
B) Passive immunity
C) Innate immunity
D) Adaptive immunity
142. Which of the following is the primary component of a virus that the immune system recognizes as foreign?
A) Nucleic acids
B) Lipids
C) Proteins on the surface of the virus
D) Enzymes
143. Which of the following best describes a “killed” or “inactivated” vaccine?
A) It contains live pathogens that have been weakened
B) It contains pathogens that have been chemically or physically destroyed
C) It contains only a portion of the pathogen’s genetic material
D) It stimulates only cell-mediated immunity
144. What is the main role of the immune system’s antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To present foreign antigens to T-cells for immune activation
C) To destroy pathogens directly
D) To produce cytokines to activate immune responses
145. Which of the following vaccines is a live attenuated vaccine?
A) Polio vaccine (inactivated)
B) Hepatitis B vaccine
C) MMR vaccine
D) Influenza vaccine (inactivated)
146. Which of the following diseases is associated with an inactivated vaccine for its prevention?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Measles
C) Rubella
D) Yellow fever
147. What is the main purpose of cytokines in the immune response?
A) To activate and regulate immune cell activity
B) To directly destroy infected cells
C) To enhance the production of antibodies
D) To create memory cells for future immune responses
148. What is the primary cause of antibiotic resistance?
A) Overuse of vaccines
B) Overuse and misuse of antibiotics
C) Mutations in the immune system
D) Lack of immunization coverage
149. Which of the following immune responses occurs during the primary exposure to a pathogen?
A) A faster and stronger immune response
B) A slower response with the production of memory cells
C) Immediate destruction of the pathogen
D) Activation of only innate immune cells
150. Which of the following is an example of an autoimmune disease?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Measles
D) Polio
151. What is the main role of neutrophils in the immune system?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To activate T-cells
C) To phagocytize and destroy pathogens
D) To regulate immune responses
152. What is the term for the ability of the immune system to distinguish self from non-self?
A) Tolerance
B) Specificity
C) Memory
D) Immunologic memory
153. Which of the following is a function of the bone marrow in the immune system?
A) To produce immune cells, including red and white blood cells
B) To mature T-cells
C) To store antibodies
D) To remove pathogens from the blood
154. Which type of immunity results from receiving a vaccine?
A) Active immunity
B) Passive immunity
C) Innate immunity
D) Artificial immunity
155. Which of the following is a characteristic of a subunit vaccine?
A) It contains whole, inactivated pathogens
B) It contains parts of the pathogen, such as proteins or sugars
C) It contains live attenuated organisms
D) It only provides protection against bacterial infections
156. What is the primary function of B-cells in the immune system?
A) To present antigens to T-cells
B) To produce antibodies
C) To destroy infected cells
D) To phagocytize pathogens
157. Which type of immune response occurs when an individual is exposed to a pathogen for the first time?
A) Secondary immune response
B) Primary immune response
C) Memory immune response
D) Adaptive immune response
158. Which of the following is a characteristic of a live attenuated vaccine?
A) It is composed of dead pathogens
B) It induces immunity by using a weakened form of the pathogen
C) It contains no pathogen material
D) It only requires a single dose
159. Which of the following immune system cells are responsible for producing cytokines?
A) T-cells
B) B-cells
C) Phagocytes
D) Mast cells
160. What is the role of the antigen-presenting cells (APCs) in the immune response?
A) To kill infected cells directly
B) To stimulate the production of antibodies
C) To display antigens on their surface for recognition by T-cells
D) To regulate the body’s response to pathogens
161. What is the function of a toxoid vaccine?
A) To stimulate an immune response against the bacterial toxin
B) To provide immunity against live pathogens
C) To produce antibodies to fight infections
D) To mimic the pathogen’s genetic material
162. Which of the following is the best method for determining if a vaccine is effective?
A) Analyzing antibody levels in the blood after vaccination
B) Observing the occurrence of side effects
C) Monitoring the spread of infection in the community
D) Tracking the number of people who have received the vaccine
163. Which of the following cells are involved in the process of clonal selection?
A) B-cells
B) T-cells
C) Both B-cells and T-cells
D) Neutrophils
164. What is the function of the lymphatic system in immune function?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To store immune cells and filter pathogens
C) To destroy infected cells directly
D) To generate the inflammatory response
165. Which of the following vaccines is a recombinant DNA vaccine?
A) Hepatitis B vaccine
B) Influenza vaccine
C) Chickenpox vaccine
D) Polio vaccine
166. Which of the following diseases is prevented by a vaccine that provides protection against a bacterial infection causing pneumonia?
A) Pneumococcal disease
B) Tuberculosis
C) Hepatitis A
D) Influenza
167. Which of the following is a characteristic of passive immunity?
A) It results from natural infection
B) It involves the direct production of antibodies by the individual
C) It involves the transfer of antibodies from another individual or organism
D) It is long-lasting and provides lifelong protection
168. Which of the following is NOT a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response?
A) Erythrocytes
B) B-cells
C) T-cells
D) Neutrophils
169. What is the term for the process by which a pathogen’s antigens are displayed on the surface of cells by MHC molecules?
A) Phagocytosis
B) Antigen presentation
C) Clonal expansion
D) Immunoglobulin synthesis
170. What is the function of the protein INF-γ (interferon-gamma) in the immune system?
A) To promote inflammation and activate immune cells
B) To kill infected cells directly
C) To activate the complement system
D) To neutralize toxins
171. What type of immune cells are responsible for producing antibodies in response to infection?
A) T-cells
B) Memory cells
C) B-cells
D) Phagocytes
172. Which of the following is NOT typically included in a combination vaccine?
A) Measles
B) Mumps
C) Rubella
D) Influenza
173. Which immune system process involves the destruction of infected or damaged cells by a cytotoxic T-cell?
A) Phagocytosis
B) Cytotoxicity
C) Clonal selection
D) Antibody production
174. Which of the following immune system cells are responsible for responding to foreign pathogens by producing antibodies?
A) Neutrophils
B) B-cells
C) T-helper cells
D) Cytotoxic T-cells
175. What is the role of memory cells in the immune system?
A) To destroy infected cells directly
B) To produce antibodies immediately upon exposure to a pathogen
C) To store information about pathogens for faster immune responses in the future
D) To kill cancerous cells
176. What is the term for immunity that is acquired by a mother passing antibodies to her baby through the placenta or breast milk?
A) Artificial passive immunity
B) Natural passive immunity
C) Artificial active immunity
D) Natural active immunity
177. Which of the following is a common side effect of vaccinations?
A) Severe allergic reactions
B) Pain and swelling at the injection site
C) Development of the disease being vaccinated against
D) Long-term immune suppression
178. Which of the following types of vaccines uses the virus’s genetic material to trigger an immune response?
A) mRNA vaccines
B) Inactivated vaccines
C) Subunit vaccines
D) Live attenuated vaccines
179. Which of the following is the best method to prevent the spread of infectious diseases in the population?
A) Promoting proper hygiene
B) Encouraging the use of antiviral medications
C) Widespread vaccination programs
D) Eliminating non-essential travel
180. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of autoimmune diseases?
A) The immune system attacks the body’s own tissues
B) The immune system is unable to recognize foreign pathogens
C) The immune system produces excessive antibodies against foreign invaders
D) The immune system fails to react to vaccines
181. What is the primary function of the complement system in the immune response?
A) To activate B-cells
B) To enhance the immune response by promoting inflammation and phagocytosis
C) To produce antibodies
D) To recognize and destroy pathogens directly
182. What type of immunity does a person acquire after receiving a vaccination?
A) Passive immunity
B) Active immunity
C) Innate immunity
D) Autoimmunity
183. What is the role of dendritic cells in the immune response?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To present antigens to T-cells and initiate the adaptive immune response
C) To destroy infected cells
D) To generate cytokines
184. Which of the following is a characteristic of inactivated (killed) vaccines?
A) They provide long-lasting immunity with a single dose
B) They contain live but weakened forms of pathogens
C) They contain killed or inactivated forms of the pathogen
D) They are only effective against viral infections
185. What is the key characteristic of an adjuvant in vaccine development?
A) It weakens the pathogen to stimulate the immune response
B) It enhances the immune system’s response to the antigen
C) It prevents the vaccine from degrading
D) It mimics the pathogen’s surface proteins
186. Which of the following is an example of a recombinant vaccine?
A) Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine
B) Hepatitis B vaccine
C) Inactivated polio vaccine
D) Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine
187. Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
A) Transporting immune cells throughout the body
B) Filtration of pathogens from the blood
C) Producing red blood cells
D) Circulating lymph to support immune responses
188. What is the main function of helper T-cells (CD4+ T-cells) in the immune response?
A) To kill infected cells
B) To produce antibodies
C) To activate and regulate other immune cells, including B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells
D) To present antigens to other cells
189. What type of immunity is provided by the administration of an antibody-containing serum to an individual?
A) Active immunity
B) Passive immunity
C) Innate immunity
D) Acquired immunity
190. What is the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To transport immune cells to the site of infection
C) To present foreign antigens on the surface of cells for recognition by T-cells
D) To neutralize toxins
191. Which of the following vaccines is most likely to cause a mild form of the disease in certain individuals?
A) Live attenuated vaccines
B) Inactivated vaccines
C) Subunit vaccines
D) DNA vaccines
192. Which of the following is the primary benefit of herd immunity?
A) It protects individuals who cannot be vaccinated due to health reasons
B) It prevents the spread of disease within a vaccinated population
C) It leads to the complete eradication of diseases
D) It reduces the need for vaccine boosters
193. Which of the following statements about T-cells is true?
A) T-cells are responsible for producing antibodies
B) T-cells can recognize and destroy infected cells
C) T-cells are produced in the bone marrow but mature in the spleen
D) T-cells are not involved in adaptive immunity
194. What is the term for the ability of the immune system to “remember” a pathogen after the first exposure?
A) Immune tolerance
B) Immunologic memory
C) Immune suppression
D) Antigenic variation
195. What is the primary role of macrophages in the immune system?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To present antigens to T-cells and phagocytize pathogens
C) To activate B-cells
D) To kill infected cells directly
196. What is the difference between active and passive immunity?
A) Active immunity requires the presence of antibodies, while passive immunity requires the production of antibodies by the individual
B) Active immunity involves the transfer of antibodies from one individual to another, while passive immunity is generated by exposure to a pathogen
C) Active immunity involves the individual’s own immune system producing antibodies, while passive immunity involves receiving pre-formed antibodies
D) There is no difference between active and passive immunity
197. Which of the following is NOT an example of an autoimmune disease?
A) Type 1 diabetes
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Tuberculosis
D) Multiple sclerosis
198. Which of the following best describes an inactivated vaccine?
A) It uses a live but weakened version of a virus to trigger immunity
B) It contains a killed version of a pathogen to stimulate the immune system
C) It uses parts of the pathogen, such as proteins, to stimulate immunity
D) It stimulates an immune response by introducing the pathogen’s DNA into the body
199. What is the main role of memory B-cells in the immune response?
A) To kill infected cells
B) To produce antibodies during the primary response
C) To store information about a pathogen for quicker response in the future
D) To activate cytotoxic T-cells
200. What is the main difference between a primary and secondary immune response?
A) The secondary immune response is slower and weaker than the primary response
B) The secondary immune response is faster and stronger due to the presence of memory cells
C) The primary immune response is more specific to pathogens
D) There is no significant difference between the primary and secondary immune responses
201. Which of the following vaccines is made from a weakened version of the pathogen?
A) Inactivated polio vaccine
B) Live attenuated measles vaccine
C) Subunit influenza vaccine
D) Recombinant hepatitis B vaccine
202. What is the most common method of administration for most vaccines?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular injection
C) Intravenous injection
D) Intradermal injection
203. Which of the following is the primary function of antibodies in the immune system?
A) To destroy infected cells
B) To activate the complement system
C) To bind to pathogens and neutralize them or mark them for destruction
D) To produce more immune cells
204. What is the main purpose of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) vaccine, if developed?
A) To cure HIV infection
B) To protect against the disease caused by HIV
C) To help the body eliminate existing HIV infections
D) To increase the immune system’s production of T-cells
205. Which of the following is a characteristic of an RNA vaccine?
A) It contains inactivated pathogens
B) It contains a synthetic RNA encoding the pathogen’s antigen
C) It provides lifelong immunity with one dose
D) It contains live, weakened pathogens
206. What is the role of the spleen in the immune system?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To filter pathogens and old red blood cells from the blood
C) To store immune cells for future use
D) To activate memory cells
207. Which of the following best describes the process of phagocytosis?
A) The process by which immune cells produce antibodies
B) The engulfing and digestion of pathogens by immune cells
C) The activation of the complement system
D) The stimulation of T-cells by B-cells
208. Which of the following is an example of a viral vector vaccine?
A) Polio vaccine
B) Ebola vaccine
C) MMR vaccine
D) Hepatitis B vaccine
209. What is the main reason for the development of vaccine boosters?
A) To provide protection against more strains of the pathogen
B) To enhance the immune response after the initial vaccine dose wanes over time
C) To stimulate the production of memory cells
D) To prevent the mutation of the pathogen
210. What is the characteristic of a conjugate vaccine?
A) It contains parts of the pathogen’s RNA
B) It links antigens from the pathogen with a carrier protein to enhance the immune response
C) It uses live, attenuated versions of the pathogen
D) It provides immunity without needing an immune response
211. Which immune cells are responsible for killing infected cells directly?
A) B-cells
B) T-helper cells
C) Cytotoxic T-cells
D) Dendritic cells
212. What is the primary function of the inflammatory response?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To repair tissue damage
C) To recruit immune cells to the site of infection or injury
D) To suppress immune cell activity
213. Which of the following is true about the adaptive immune system?
A) It is nonspecific and provides a general defense
B) It develops over time and remembers pathogens
C) It is a part of the innate immune system
D) It only reacts to bacterial infections
214. Which class of antibodies is the first to be produced in response to an infection?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgM
D) IgG
215. What is the role of regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the immune system?
A) To kill infected cells directly
B) To suppress immune responses and maintain tolerance
C) To stimulate B-cells to produce antibodies
D) To present antigens to T-cells
216. What is the main purpose of herd immunity in a population?
A) To allow individuals to acquire natural immunity to a disease
B) To protect individuals who are not vaccinated from infection
C) To reduce the immune response to infections
D) To prevent the development of autoimmune diseases
217. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action for mRNA vaccines?
A) They introduce live, weakened pathogens into the body
B) They introduce synthetic RNA that encodes a pathogen’s antigen to stimulate an immune response
C) They contain killed pathogens that trigger an immune response
D) They use genetic material from the pathogen to make antibodies
218. What is the main advantage of DNA vaccines?
A) They are easier and cheaper to produce than traditional vaccines
B) They require fewer booster doses
C) They induce stronger immunity than mRNA vaccines
D) They can only be administered intravenously
219. Which of the following types of immunity is provided through vaccination?
A) Innate immunity
B) Passive immunity
C) Active immunity
D) Acquired immunity
220. What is the main reason that vaccines may require multiple doses or booster shots?
A) To overcome immune tolerance
B) To ensure long-lasting immunity by boosting the immune response
C) To allow for the gradual development of immunity
D) To prevent side effects from occurring
221. Which of the following immune cells is responsible for recognizing and responding to a previously encountered pathogen?
A) Dendritic cells
B) Memory B-cells
C) Neutrophils
D) Cytotoxic T-cells
222. What is the primary cause of vaccine failure in individuals?
A) The vaccine itself is ineffective
B) The individual’s immune system fails to mount a proper response
C) The pathogen mutates to evade the vaccine
D) The vaccine is stored improperly
223. What is the most common method used to prevent the spread of infectious diseases?
A) The use of antiviral drugs
B) Widespread vaccination campaigns
C) Isolation of infected individuals
D) Increasing the use of antibiotics
224. Which of the following is an example of a conjugate vaccine?
A) Influenza vaccine
B) Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine
C) Hepatitis B vaccine
D) Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine
225. Which of the following is a common side effect of a live attenuated vaccine?
A) A mild form of the disease caused by the pathogen
B) Severe allergic reaction
C) Long-term immune suppression
D) No side effects at all
226. Which type of vaccine provides the longest duration of immunity?
A) Inactivated vaccines
B) Live attenuated vaccines
C) Subunit vaccines
D) Recombinant vaccines
227. What type of immune cell is primarily involved in antibody production?
A) T-helper cells
B) B-cells
C) Cytotoxic T-cells
D) Macrophages
228. What is the primary function of cytokines in the immune system?
A) To kill infected cells directly
B) To trigger the production of antibodies
C) To mediate communication between immune cells and regulate immune responses
D) To prevent the spread of pathogens
229. What is the term for the process of introducing a weakened or killed pathogen to stimulate immunity?
A) Immunization
B) Pathogen exposure
C) Immune suppression
D) Disease eradication
230. What is the primary difference between passive and active immunity?
A) Active immunity involves direct exposure to a pathogen, while passive immunity involves receiving antibodies from another source
B) Passive immunity is long-lasting, while active immunity is short-lived
C) Active immunity occurs without any immune response, while passive immunity involves immune cell activation
D) There is no significant difference between active and passive immunity
231. Which of the following is a characteristic of a subunit vaccine?
A) It contains a live but weakened pathogen
B) It contains fragments or components of the pathogen rather than the whole organism
C) It is made from synthetic proteins only
D) It requires multiple booster shots to provide protection
232. Which of the following is an example of a disease that has been eradicated through vaccination?
A) Smallpox
B) Polio
C) Tuberculosis
D) Hepatitis C
233. Which of the following vaccines is made from killed (inactivated) virus particles?
A) Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine
B) Inactivated polio vaccine
C) Hepatitis B vaccine
D) Yellow fever vaccine
234. Which of the following is a major advantage of using recombinant DNA technology in vaccine development?
A) It reduces the cost of vaccine production
B) It allows for vaccines to be produced without the need for animal testing
C) It creates vaccines with enhanced ability to stimulate the immune response
D) It guarantees that the vaccine will have no side effects
235. What is the term for the process by which immune cells, such as B-cells, produce large amounts of antibodies against a specific pathogen?
A) Clonal selection
B) Apoptosis
C) Phagocytosis
D) Cytotoxicity
236. What is the function of T-cell receptors (TCRs) on the surface of T-cells?
A) To produce cytokines
B) To bind to specific antigens presented by MHC molecules
C) To activate B-cells
D) To destroy infected cells directly
237. Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide vaccine?
A) Hepatitis B vaccine
B) Pneumococcal vaccine
C) Varicella vaccine
D) Measles vaccine
238. Which of the following vaccines is primarily recommended for young children?
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
B) Rotavirus vaccine
C) Herpes zoster vaccine
D) Shingles vaccine
239. What is the primary challenge in developing a vaccine for HIV?
A) The virus mutates rapidly, leading to new strains that the immune system cannot recognize
B) HIV is not infectious, making vaccination unnecessary
C) HIV primarily infects immune cells, which makes vaccination ineffective
D) There is no known method for producing HIV antigens in the laboratory
240. What is the primary function of the lymph nodes in immune system function?
A) To produce red blood cells
B) To filter and trap pathogens from lymph and blood
C) To store memory cells
D) To regulate the production of antibodies
241. What is the first line of defense in the immune system?
A) Antibodies
B) Physical barriers like skin and mucous membranes
C) T-cells
D) Phagocytic cells
242. What is the function of the bone marrow in immune system development?
A) To filter pathogens from the blood
B) To produce white blood cells, including B-cells and T-cells
C) To produce antibodies
D) To mature T-cells before they enter circulation
243. What is an example of a passive immunization method?
A) Vaccination with a weakened virus
B) Receiving a tetanus immunoglobulin shot after an injury
C) Exposure to a pathogen followed by immune system activation
D) Receiving a recombinant vaccine
244. Which of the following best describes the role of natural killer (NK) cells in immunity?
A) They directly neutralize pathogens in the blood
B) They recognize and kill infected or tumor cells without prior sensitization
C) They present antigens to helper T-cells
D) They produce antibodies against foreign invaders
245. What is the function of interferons in the immune response?
A) To block the replication of viruses in infected cells
B) To promote the activity of B-cells
C) To recruit T-cells to the site of infection
D) To trigger the release of antibodies
246. Which of the following is an example of a live attenuated vaccine?
A) Hepatitis B vaccine
B) Flu vaccine
C) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine
D) Pneumococcal vaccine
247. What type of immunity is provided by maternal antibodies passed from mother to fetus during pregnancy?
A) Passive immunity
B) Active immunity
C) Herd immunity
D) Acquired immunity
248. Which of the following describes a primary immune response?
A) It is a rapid and robust immune reaction following second exposure to an antigen
B) It involves the activation of memory cells
C) It is the immune system’s first encounter with a pathogen, leading to a slower response
D) It occurs when an individual is exposed to a vaccine
249. What is the role of a T-helper cell (CD4+ T-cell) in the adaptive immune system?
A) To destroy infected cells
B) To activate B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells
C) To present antigens to B-cells
D) To regulate inflammation
250. What is the role of the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) in immune responses?
A) To suppress immune responses and prevent autoimmunity
B) To stimulate the growth and activation of T-cells
C) To neutralize pathogens
D) To increase the production of red blood cells
251. What is the main purpose of a vaccine adjuvant?
A) To inactivate the pathogen
B) To strengthen the immune system’s response to the antigen
C) To neutralize the side effects of the vaccine
D) To reduce the cost of vaccine production
252. Which of the following is an example of a subunit vaccine?
A) Polio vaccine
B) Pertussis vaccine
C) Measles vaccine
D) Yellow fever vaccine
253. What is an antigen-presenting cell (APC)?
A) A cell that produces antibodies
B) A cell that presents pathogen-derived antigens to T-cells to initiate an immune response
C) A cell that kills infected cells directly
D) A cell that neutralizes toxins
254. What is the primary function of memory cells in the immune system?
A) To produce cytokines
B) To produce antibodies during the secondary immune response
C) To identify and kill infected cells
D) To suppress immune responses
255. Which of the following is a method used to make inactivated vaccines?
A) Growing the virus or bacteria and then killing or inactivating it using heat or chemicals
B) Genetically engineering the pathogen to become harmless
C) Using a weakened form of the pathogen
D) Extracting specific proteins from the pathogen to use as an antigen
256. Which type of immune cell is responsible for recognizing and responding to infected cells?
A) Helper T-cells
B) Cytotoxic T-cells
C) B-cells
D) Neutrophils
257. Which of the following is true about herd immunity?
A) It is achieved when enough individuals in a population are immune to a disease, making its spread unlikely
B) It is only relevant for bacterial infections, not viral ones
C) It only protects individuals who are vaccinated, not those who are unvaccinated
D) It is achieved through natural infection, not vaccination
258. What is the primary reason why some vaccines require boosters?
A) To increase the immune response to a new strain of the pathogen
B) To prevent the pathogen from mutating
C) To ensure the immune system “remembers” the pathogen for long-term protection
D) To reduce side effects from the vaccine
259. Which type of vaccine uses a protein fragment of the pathogen to stimulate an immune response?
A) Inactivated vaccines
B) Subunit vaccines
C) Live attenuated vaccines
D) DNA vaccines
260. What is the purpose of a DNA vaccine?
A) To introduce genetic material encoding an antigen that will stimulate an immune response
B) To produce antibodies that can fight the infection
C) To weaken the pathogen so the body can fight it off
D) To kill the pathogen before the immune system can react
261. What is the main characteristic of a recombinant vaccine?
A) It uses live but weakened forms of the pathogen
B) It uses fragments of the pathogen, such as proteins, to stimulate an immune response
C) It uses synthetic RNA to encode the pathogen’s antigen
D) It contains inactivated whole pathogens
262. Which of the following cells are involved in the phagocytosis of pathogens?
A) T-cells
B) Macrophages and neutrophils
C) B-cells
D) Eosinophils
263. What is the role of the complement system in the immune response?
A) To enhance the phagocytosis of pathogens
B) To destroy infected cells directly
C) To produce antibodies
D) To create long-lasting immunity
264. Which of the following vaccines is given as part of routine childhood immunizations in many countries?
A) Chickenpox vaccine
B) Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine
C) HPV vaccine
D) Hepatitis C vaccine
265. Which of the following vaccines is an example of a virus-like particle (VLP) vaccine?
A) Hepatitis B vaccine
B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
C) Influenza vaccine
D) Rabies vaccine
266. What is the role of the mucosal immune system in protecting the body?
A) It creates antibodies in the bloodstream
B) It defends against pathogens entering through mucosal surfaces, like the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts
C) It creates memory cells for future infections
D) It neutralizes pathogens in the blood
267. Which of the following is a disadvantage of live attenuated vaccines?
A) They can cause the disease in individuals with weakened immune systems
B) They are less effective than inactivated vaccines
C) They require booster shots more frequently
D) They are not stable at room temperature
268. What is the term for the process of deliberately infecting an individual with a small amount of a pathogen to promote immunity?
A) Vaccination
B) Immunization
C) Inoculation
D) Seroconversion
269. What is the role of the thymus in immune system function?
A) It produces red blood cells
B) It is where T-cells mature and differentiate
C) It stores immune cells for later use
D) It is responsible for antibody production
270. Which of the following is an example of a recombinant vector vaccine?
A) Flu vaccine
B) Malaria vaccine
C) Hepatitis B vaccine
D) Tuberculosis vaccine
271. Which of the following is the function of the spleen in the immune system?
A) It stores red blood cells for later use
B) It produces and matures T-cells
C) It filters blood, removing pathogens and old red blood cells
D) It produces antibodies in response to infections
272. Which type of immune response involves the activation of both humoral and cell-mediated immunity?
A) Innate immunity
B) Adaptive immunity
C) Inflammatory response
D) Passive immunity
273. What is the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules?
A) To neutralize pathogens directly
B) To present antigen fragments to T-cells
C) To produce cytokines that enhance immune responses
D) To increase the production of red blood cells
274. What is the primary difference between MHC Class I and MHC Class II molecules?
A) MHC Class I presents antigens to cytotoxic T-cells, while MHC Class II presents antigens to helper T-cells
B) MHC Class I presents antigens to helper T-cells, while MHC Class II presents antigens to cytotoxic T-cells
C) MHC Class I is found on B-cells, while MHC Class II is found on T-cells
D) MHC Class I presents antigens only in viral infections, while MHC Class II is for bacterial infections
275. What is the purpose of the “herd immunity threshold”?
A) It represents the percentage of a population that needs to be vaccinated to protect individuals who are not vaccinated
B) It indicates the minimum amount of a vaccine required for effective disease prevention
C) It is the level of immunity required to stop a pathogen from mutating
D) It identifies the point at which vaccination is no longer effective
276. Which of the following is a characteristic of a killed or inactivated vaccine?
A) It contains live, weakened pathogens
B) It produces a stronger immune response than live vaccines
C) It cannot cause the disease it is meant to protect against
D) It requires the use of an adjuvant to be effective
277. What is the main reason for the use of aluminum salts in vaccines?
A) To inactivate the virus
B) To stabilize the vaccine during storage
C) To enhance the immune response to the vaccine
D) To reduce the risk of side effects
278. Which of the following is a benefit of using recombinant protein vaccines?
A) They do not require refrigeration
B) They can be produced quickly and in large quantities
C) They use live virus, which carries some risk
D) They have fewer side effects than inactivated vaccines
279. What is the role of the helper T-cell (CD4+) in the immune response?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To kill infected cells directly
C) To activate and direct other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-cells and B-cells
D) To regulate immune tolerance
280. Which of the following best describes the principle of herd immunity?
A) Immunity is conferred to individuals who have been infected with the disease
B) It protects individuals who cannot be vaccinated by reducing overall disease transmission in the population
C) It allows individuals to become infected without showing symptoms
D) It is a form of passive immunity passed from mother to child
281. Which type of cell is involved in both phagocytosis and antigen presentation?
A) Macrophages
B) B-cells
C) Neutrophils
D) T-cells
282. What is an adjuvant used in vaccines?
A) A virus that is used to trigger immunity
B) A compound that enhances the immune response to the vaccine
C) A live but weakened form of the pathogen
D) An ingredient that prevents the pathogen from replicating
283. What does the term “immunogenicity” refer to in vaccine development?
A) The ability of the vaccine to cause an allergic reaction
B) The ability of the vaccine to stimulate an immune response
C) The ability of the vaccine to prevent the disease
D) The safety of the vaccine in human populations
284. What is the function of a booster shot?
A) To provide immediate immunity after exposure to a pathogen
B) To enhance and prolong the immune response after the initial vaccination
C) To provide a new strain of the pathogen for better immunity
D) To suppress any side effects from the initial vaccine dose
285. Which of the following is an example of a disease prevented by a conjugate vaccine?
A) Diphtheria
B) Measles
C) Pneumococcal infections
D) Polio
286. Which of the following describes the role of T-regulatory cells (Tregs) in the immune system?
A) They kill infected cells directly
B) They suppress overactive immune responses and prevent autoimmune reactions
C) They activate B-cells to produce antibodies
D) They produce cytokines that recruit other immune cells
287. What is the mechanism of action for monoclonal antibodies used in immunotherapy?
A) They neutralize toxins produced by pathogens
B) They target and bind to specific antigens on pathogens or cancer cells to trigger an immune response
C) They activate B-cells to produce more antibodies
D) They destroy infected cells directly
288. Which of the following vaccines is given to protect against a sexually transmitted infection?
A) Hepatitis B vaccine
B) Influenza vaccine
C) Rotavirus vaccine
D) MMR vaccine
289. What is the primary function of plasma cells in the immune system?
A) To present antigens to T-cells
B) To produce large quantities of antibodies against a specific pathogen
C) To activate memory B-cells
D) To destroy infected cells directly
290. Which of the following best describes the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) in immunity?
A) They produce antibodies to fight infection
B) They capture and process pathogens, presenting antigens to T-cells for recognition
C) They secrete cytokines to activate immune responses
D) They kill infected cells directly
291. Which of the following best describes passive immunity?
A) Immunity that is gained through vaccination
B) Immunity that is transferred from one individual to another via antibodies or immune cells
C) Immunity that is developed after exposure to a pathogen
D) Immunity that lasts a lifetime without the need for boosters
292. What is the role of dendritic cells in the immune response?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To directly kill infected cells
C) To capture pathogens and present antigens to T-cells
D) To store memory cells for future use
293. What is a key feature of a herd immunity threshold?
A) It is based on the number of people who are infected with the disease
B) It is the percentage of people who need to be vaccinated or immune to prevent the disease from spreading
C) It reflects the severity of the disease in the population
D) It is a measure of the pathogen’s ability to mutate
294. Which of the following is a disadvantage of inactivated (killed) vaccines?
A) They require multiple doses to be effective
B) They often cause long-term immunity after a single dose
C) They can cause the disease in immunocompromised individuals
D) They typically produce stronger immune responses than live vaccines
295. What is the function of the CD8+ receptor on cytotoxic T-cells?
A) To recognize and bind to MHC Class I molecules presenting foreign antigens
B) To activate B-cells to produce antibodies
C) To inhibit the production of antibodies
D) To destroy infected cells directly
True & false
1. The immune system is divided into two main components: the innate and adaptive immune systems.
Answer: True
2. Innate immunity provides specific protection against pathogens, whereas adaptive immunity provides generalized defense mechanisms.
Answer: False (Innate immunity provides non-specific defense, while adaptive immunity is specific.)
3. Vaccines can only provide immunity against bacterial infections.
Answer: False (Vaccines can provide immunity against both bacterial and viral infections.)
4. Memory cells are responsible for providing long-term immunity by recognizing and responding to previously encountered pathogens.
Answer: True
5. The spleen is the primary site where B-cells mature and differentiate.
Answer: False (B-cells mature in the bone marrow, not the spleen.)
6. Active immunity results from exposure to a pathogen or vaccination, whereas passive immunity is gained through the transfer of antibodies.
Answer: True
7. Antibodies are produced by T-cells to neutralize pathogens.
Answer: False (Antibodies are produced by B-cells, not T-cells.)
8. A live attenuated vaccine contains a pathogen that has been weakened but still capable of replication within the body.
Answer: True
9. Immunization with a vaccine is an example of passive immunity.
Answer: False (Immunization provides active immunity.)
10. The primary function of cytotoxic T-cells is to destroy infected or cancerous cells.
Answer: True
11. Helper T-cells are responsible for the activation of B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells.
Answer: True
12. A subunit vaccine contains entire pathogens that have been killed or inactivated.
Answer: False (A subunit vaccine contains only fragments or components of a pathogen, not the whole pathogen.)
13. The primary response to an infection is always faster than the secondary immune response.
Answer: False (The secondary immune response is faster and more robust than the primary response.)
14. The MHC Class I molecules present antigens to cytotoxic T-cells, while MHC Class II molecules present antigens to helper T-cells.
Answer: True
15. Passive immunity can provide long-term protection against infections.
Answer: False (Passive immunity provides temporary protection, as antibodies eventually degrade.)
16. Inactivated (killed) vaccines are made from pathogens that have been killed or inactivated so they can no longer cause disease.
Answer: True
17. The bone marrow is responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
Answer: True
18. Interleukins are a group of cytokines that regulate immune cell communication and promote immune responses.
Answer: True
19. Dendritic cells are primarily involved in the destruction of infected cells.
Answer: False (Dendritic cells are antigen-presenting cells that activate T-cells.)
20. A booster dose is required for some vaccines to increase the immune response and provide long-lasting protection.
Answer: True
21. The adaptive immune system is capable of distinguishing between self and non-self cells through the use of antibodies.
Answer: False (The immune system distinguishes between self and non-self cells using MHC molecules, not antibodies.)
22. The use of aluminum salts in vaccines is to enhance the immune response by acting as an adjuvant.
Answer: True
23. The primary function of the lymphatic system is to produce and store red blood cells.
Answer: False (The lymphatic system is primarily involved in immune defense and fluid balance, not red blood cell production.)
24. The use of live attenuated vaccines is generally not recommended for immunocompromised individuals.
Answer: True
25. Cytokines are signaling molecules that help regulate the immune response and can influence both the innate and adaptive immune systems.
Answer: True
26. An example of a disease that can be prevented by a conjugate vaccine is pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Answer: True
27. Herd immunity occurs when a large portion of the population is immune to a disease, either through vaccination or previous infection, reducing the spread of the disease.
Answer: True
28. The process of phagocytosis is carried out by white blood cells, such as neutrophils and macrophages, to engulf and digest pathogens.
Answer: True
29. A recombinant vaccine uses part of the pathogen’s DNA to generate an immune response without using the whole pathogen.
Answer: True
30. The immune system’s primary function is to digest pathogens and provide energy for the body.
Answer: False (The immune system’s primary function is to defend the body against pathogens and foreign substances, not to provide energy.)
31. The complement system helps enhance the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear pathogens.
Answer: True
32. T-helper cells recognize antigens presented on MHC Class II molecules.
Answer: True
33. A toxoid vaccine contains inactivated toxins produced by pathogens, which can cause disease.
Answer: True
34. Natural immunity can result from an infection with a pathogen, leading to the production of memory cells.
Answer: True
35. Immunization with an attenuated vaccine always provides immediate protection against the pathogen.
Answer: False (It may take some time for the immune system to generate a full protective response.)
36. A person who has received a vaccination will have both an active and passive immune response.
Answer: False (Vaccination induces an active immune response, not a passive one.)
37. The lymph nodes are responsible for filtering the blood and removing pathogens.
Answer: False (The spleen filters the blood, while lymph nodes filter lymph fluid.)
38. The process of antibody neutralization involves antibodies binding to toxins or pathogens and preventing their harmful effects.
Answer: True
39. The MHC Class II molecules are present on all nucleated cells in the body.
Answer: False (MHC Class II molecules are primarily found on antigen-presenting cells like macrophages and dendritic cells.)
40. Autoimmunity occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own tissues.
Answer: True
41. Anaphylaxis is a rare, mild reaction to a vaccine.
Answer: False (Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction.)
42. B-cells are responsible for producing antibodies that bind to pathogens and help neutralize them.
Answer: True
43. T-cells are only responsible for detecting and responding to bacterial infections.
Answer: False (T-cells respond to both viral and bacterial infections.)
44. Antigen-presenting cells are responsible for detecting and eliminating pathogens in the bloodstream.
Answer: False (Antigen-presenting cells process pathogens and present their antigens to T-cells, but they don’t directly eliminate pathogens.)
45. The primary difference between active and passive immunity is that active immunity results from exposure to a pathogen, while passive immunity is provided through vaccination.
Answer: False (Active immunity is the result of exposure or vaccination, while passive immunity is provided by receiving antibodies from another source.)
46. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is the first antibody produced in response to an infection.
Answer: False (IgM is the first antibody produced, followed by IgG.)
47. The immune system’s response to the first exposure to a pathogen is called the secondary immune response.
Answer: False (It is called the primary immune response.)
48. A person with acquired immunity will not need booster doses of a vaccine.
Answer: False (Booster doses may be necessary to maintain immunity over time.)
49. T-cell receptors (TCRs) on helper T-cells bind to antigens presented on MHC Class II molecules.
Answer: True
50. Vaccination with inactivated vaccines can cause the disease they are meant to protect against.
Answer: False (Inactivated vaccines cannot cause the disease since the pathogen is killed or inactivated.)
51. Memory B-cells can live for many years, allowing the immune system to respond more rapidly if the pathogen is encountered again.
Answer: True
52. Vaccines that use live, weakened pathogens are called subunit vaccines.
Answer: False (Vaccines that use live, weakened pathogens are called live attenuated vaccines.)
53. The immune system is completely inactive until a pathogen invades the body.
Answer: False (The immune system is constantly monitoring for threats and responding to minor infections or threats.)
54. The role of the lymphatic system in immunity is to transport immune cells and filter harmful pathogens from lymph.
Answer: True
55. The process of opsonization involves antibodies coating pathogens to make them easier for phagocytes to engulf.
Answer: True
56. Interferons are proteins produced by infected cells to help prevent the spread of infection to nearby cells.
Answer: True
57. Booster shots for vaccines are only required for children and not for adults.
Answer: False (Booster shots may be necessary for both children and adults to maintain immunity.)
58. The thymus is where T-cells mature and differentiate.
Answer: True
59. The introduction of a weakened or killed form of a pathogen in a vaccine is intended to stimulate an immune response without causing illness.
Answer: True
60. Memory cells help the immune system recognize and respond more quickly to subsequent infections with the same pathogen.
Answer: True