ISACA CCAK Practice Exam
The Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) is a globally recognized certification jointly developed by ISACA and the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA). It is the first credential focused entirely on cloud auditing, and it provides professionals with the essential skills needed to evaluate and assess cloud computing environments in accordance with governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) requirements.
Whether you’re a cloud auditor, IT security professional, compliance officer, or risk manager, this certification equips you to validate the security and privacy controls of modern cloud infrastructures. As organizations continue migrating to the cloud, the demand for professionals who can audit cloud implementations with confidence and accuracy is rising—making CCAK a powerful credential to add to your resume.
What You Will Learn
The CCAK certification exam tests your ability to audit cloud environments through industry-accepted frameworks and best practices. With our expertly crafted CCAK practice exam, you’ll gain a deep understanding of:
How cloud computing changes traditional auditing approaches
Key cloud governance and compliance challenges
Best practices for cloud assurance and risk evaluation
Legal and regulatory obligations in cloud environments
Cloud control frameworks and standards such as CCM, STAR, and ISO
Audit tools, techniques, and lifecycle models specifically tailored to cloud ecosystems
By preparing with our comprehensive practice test, you’ll build the critical thinking skills necessary to succeed in real-world cloud auditing scenarios and the official CCAK certification exam.
Key Topics Covered
Our CCAK practice exam is designed to reflect the most up-to-date exam blueprint and includes hundreds of real-world, scenario-based questions with detailed answer explanations across all core domains, including:
Cloud Governance
Cloud Compliance Programs
Cloud Risk Management
Cloud Auditing
Cloud Assurance and Compliance Evaluation
CCM (Cloud Controls Matrix) and STAR Program
Audit Process for Cloud Environments
Each question is created by cloud auditing experts to mimic the style, format, and difficulty of the actual exam, helping you identify knowledge gaps, reinforce critical concepts, and gain exam-day confidence.
Why Choose Exam Sage for CCAK Preparation?
At Exam Sage, we specialize in crafting high-quality, reliable practice tests that align closely with official certification standards. When you choose our CCAK practice exam, you’re investing in:
✅ Realistic, exam-style questions with detailed answer explanations
✅ Fully updated content based on the latest ISACA and CSA guidance
✅ Unlimited access so you can study at your own pace
✅ Mobile-friendly format for learning on the go
✅ Actionable feedback to help you track progress and boost retention
We understand how important it is to pass the exam on the first try, and that’s why every question we create is designed to prepare you not just for the test—but for the practical demands of cloud audit roles in real-world settings.
Who Should Take the CCAK Exam?
The CCAK certification is ideal for:
Cloud Auditors and Assessors
IT Governance and Risk Professionals
Security Professionals working with cloud technologies
Compliance and Legal Specialists
IT Managers and Architects
Professionals preparing for cloud assurance responsibilities
If your role involves auditing or assessing cloud services, understanding cloud-specific risks, or ensuring cloud compliance, then the CCAK is a must-have credential.
Take the Next Step in Your Cloud Auditing Career
The cloud continues to reshape the digital landscape. Don’t get left behind. Master the knowledge and skills required to audit cloud systems with confidence by preparing with the most trusted CCAK practice exam available online—only at Exam Sage.
Start your CCAK exam prep today and become a trusted cloud audit expert with Exam Sage.
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Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the CCAK certification?
A) To certify cloud architects in designing secure cloud environments
B) To validate knowledge in auditing cloud services and environments
C) To certify developers in cloud application development
D) To assess cloud service providers’ marketing strategies
Answer: B
Explanation: The CCAK certification focuses on auditing cloud services, validating knowledge related to cloud audit concepts, risks, controls, and frameworks.
2. What is the main difference between cloud auditing and traditional IT auditing?
A) Cloud auditing requires physical access to servers
B) Cloud auditing emphasizes shared responsibility models and multi-tenant environments
C) Traditional IT auditing does not involve risk assessment
D) Cloud auditing ignores regulatory compliance
Answer: B
Explanation: Cloud auditing considers unique cloud aspects such as shared responsibility, multi-tenancy, and dynamic resource provisioning, which traditional IT audits may not emphasize.
3. In a cloud environment, which stakeholder is primarily responsible for maintaining the security of the physical infrastructure?
A) Cloud customer
B) Cloud service provider
C) Cloud auditor
D) End user
Answer: B
Explanation: The cloud service provider manages the physical infrastructure’s security, including data centers, hardware, and network.
4. Which type of cloud deployment model offers resources exclusively to a single organization but is managed by a third party?
A) Public cloud
B) Private cloud
C) Community cloud
D) Hybrid cloud
Answer: B
Explanation: A private cloud serves a single organization, possibly managed by an external provider but dedicated exclusively to one customer.
5. What is the significance of the shared responsibility model in cloud auditing?
A) It eliminates the need for cloud audits
B) It defines which security controls the cloud provider manages and which are the customer’s responsibility
C) It requires the cloud provider to manage all security aspects
D) It only applies to SaaS cloud models
Answer: B
Explanation: The shared responsibility model clearly defines security duties between the cloud provider and the customer, essential for audit scoping.
6. Which of the following is an important security control for ensuring data confidentiality in the cloud?
A) Network segmentation
B) Encryption of data at rest and in transit
C) Use of public IP addresses
D) Unrestricted access permissions
Answer: B
Explanation: Encrypting data both at rest and in transit ensures data confidentiality in cloud environments.
7. What is the primary purpose of Cloud Service Level Agreements (SLAs)?
A) To dictate the price of cloud services
B) To define performance and availability commitments between the provider and customer
C) To outline the customer’s internal audit policies
D) To specify the programming languages used in the cloud
Answer: B
Explanation: SLAs specify service performance, availability, and responsibilities to ensure clarity between parties.
8. During a cloud audit, what should an auditor primarily verify in relation to identity and access management (IAM)?
A) Use of strong encryption algorithms
B) Proper user provisioning, role-based access, and periodic access reviews
C) The number of users registered
D) The geographic location of data centers
Answer: B
Explanation: Auditors verify that access rights are appropriately assigned and reviewed regularly to prevent unauthorized access.
9. Which framework is commonly used for cloud security controls and auditing?
A) COBIT
B) NIST SP 800-53
C) ITIL
D) PMBOK
Answer: B
Explanation: NIST SP 800-53 provides a comprehensive catalog of security controls suitable for cloud auditing.
10. What is a primary risk introduced by multi-tenancy in cloud environments?
A) Single point of failure
B) Data leakage or unauthorized access between tenants
C) Increased hardware costs
D) Lack of scalability
Answer: B
Explanation: Multi-tenancy risks include improper isolation leading to potential data leaks between customers sharing the same infrastructure.
11. What does “elasticity” in cloud computing refer to?
A) The ability to provide a fixed amount of resources regardless of demand
B) The ability to scale resources up or down automatically based on demand
C) Data backup frequency
D) The use of redundant hardware
Answer: B
Explanation: Elasticity allows dynamic adjustment of cloud resources in response to workload changes.
12. Which cloud service model provides the most control to the customer?
A) SaaS
B) PaaS
C) IaaS
D) FaaS
Answer: C
Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) gives customers control over operating systems and deployed applications, while the provider manages infrastructure.
13. What is the key audit challenge associated with cloud service provider transparency?
A) Providers always allow auditors full access
B) Limited visibility into underlying infrastructure and controls
C) Providers have no security controls
D) Providers do not comply with any standards
Answer: B
Explanation: Auditors may have limited visibility into cloud providers’ internal controls and infrastructure, complicating audit evidence gathering.
14. Which of the following best describes “data sovereignty” in cloud computing?
A) Data stored in the cloud is always encrypted
B) Data is subject to the laws and regulations of the country where it is physically stored
C) Data is owned by the cloud service provider
D) Data cannot be moved between regions
Answer: B
Explanation: Data sovereignty means data must comply with the laws of the country where it is stored physically.
15. What is a key benefit of cloud audit automation tools?
A) They eliminate the need for manual auditing
B) They help collect and analyze large volumes of audit data efficiently
C) They replace cloud service providers’ responsibilities
D) They guarantee 100% security compliance
Answer: B
Explanation: Automation tools assist auditors by collecting and analyzing data at scale, improving audit efficiency.
16. Which type of cloud audit report is typically issued to customers by cloud providers to demonstrate compliance?
A) SOC 1, SOC 2, or SOC 3 reports
B) PCI-DSS reports
C) HIPAA reports
D) ISO 9001 certificates
Answer: A
Explanation: Service Organization Control (SOC) reports are common cloud audit reports used to demonstrate controls and compliance.
17. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a cloud audit objective?
A) Assessing data security and privacy controls
B) Evaluating vendor financial health
C) Verifying compliance with applicable regulations
D) Reviewing change management processes
Answer: B
Explanation: Vendor financial health is usually not within the scope of a cloud audit focused on controls and compliance.
18. What is “data remanence,” and why is it a concern in cloud environments?
A) The process of backing up data
B) Residual representation of data that remains after attempts to erase it
C) Data encryption process
D) Data replication for high availability
Answer: B
Explanation: Data remanence refers to leftover data that can potentially be recovered, posing a confidentiality risk after deletion.
19. Which of the following is a common mitigation strategy for insider threats in cloud environments?
A) Disabling all cloud access
B) Implementing role-based access control and continuous monitoring
C) Ignoring user activities
D) Outsourcing all security functions
Answer: B
Explanation: RBAC and monitoring reduce insider threat risks by limiting privileges and detecting suspicious behavior.
20. What is a critical consideration when auditing cloud-based disaster recovery plans?
A) Ensuring the backup data is stored on physical tapes only
B) Verifying the cloud provider’s ability to restore services within agreed RTO and RPO
C) Avoiding regular testing of recovery plans
D) Outsourcing recovery to third parties without oversight
Answer: B
Explanation: Auditors must verify the provider can meet Recovery Time Objectives (RTO) and Recovery Point Objectives (RPO) to ensure business continuity.
21. Which of the following cloud audit tools is best suited for continuous monitoring?
A) Manual log reviews
B) Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems
C) Penetration testing only
D) Paper-based checklists
Answer: B
Explanation: SIEM systems automate continuous log collection, analysis, and alerting, improving ongoing security monitoring.
22. What role does encryption key management play in cloud security auditing?
A) It ensures only providers control all keys
B) It is critical to protect data confidentiality and control access to encrypted data
C) It is irrelevant if data is encrypted
D) It allows any user to decrypt data
Answer: B
Explanation: Proper key management is essential to maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of encrypted data.
23. What is a major cloud-specific risk in relation to API security?
A) APIs cannot be secured
B) APIs can be exploited to gain unauthorized access if not properly secured
C) APIs only affect software developers
D) API security is the responsibility of end users only
Answer: B
Explanation: APIs are critical interfaces; vulnerabilities can expose cloud resources to attackers.
24. How does virtualization impact cloud audit procedures?
A) It reduces audit scope to only physical hardware
B) It requires auditors to understand hypervisor security and virtual machine isolation
C) Virtualization removes all security concerns
D) It is irrelevant to cloud auditing
Answer: B
Explanation: Virtualization introduces new security layers; auditors must assess hypervisor and VM security controls.
25. What is “vendor lock-in” risk in cloud computing?
A) The risk that customers cannot easily switch providers due to proprietary technologies or data formats
B) The risk of losing physical keys to data centers
C) The risk of overpaying for cloud services
D) The risk of hardware failure
Answer: A
Explanation: Vendor lock-in occurs when a customer is tied to one provider due to lack of interoperability or proprietary services.
26. What cloud characteristic increases the complexity of audit trails?
A) Single-user environments
B) Dynamic provisioning and on-demand resource scaling
C) Static IP addressing
D) Physical access restrictions
Answer: B
Explanation: Rapid and automatic changes in cloud resources require advanced logging to maintain reliable audit trails.
27. Which regulation specifically addresses data protection and privacy within the European Union?
A) HIPAA
B) GDPR
C) SOX
D) PCI-DSS
Answer: B
Explanation: The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) governs data privacy and protection in the EU.
28. What is a key objective of cloud governance in the context of auditing?
A) Maximizing cloud service marketing
B) Ensuring cloud resources are used effectively, securely, and in compliance with policies
C) Eliminating the need for audits
D) Automating all cloud services
Answer: B
Explanation: Cloud governance ensures policies, controls, and processes are followed for security and compliance.
29. Which audit technique is particularly important for verifying cloud provider compliance with privacy requirements?
A) Physical inspection of servers
B) Reviewing privacy impact assessments and data handling procedures
C) Checking employee attendance logs
D) Inspecting marketing materials
Answer: B
Explanation: Auditors review documentation on privacy assessments and data controls to ensure compliance.
30. What is an important consideration when auditing data deletion in the cloud?
A) Confirming deletion policies align with regulatory retention requirements
B) Assuming data is deleted immediately upon request
C) Ignoring data backups
D) Relying only on customer notifications
Answer: A
Explanation: Auditors must verify data deletion aligns with laws and policies, including retention and erasure processes.
31. What is the main purpose of continuous auditing in a cloud environment?
A) To eliminate the need for manual audits
B) To provide ongoing assurance by automatically monitoring cloud controls and risks
C) To replace cloud service providers’ responsibilities
D) To increase audit costs
Answer: B
Explanation: Continuous auditing leverages automation and tools to provide real-time or near-real-time insight into cloud control effectiveness.
32. When auditing cloud change management, what is a key focus area?
A) Physical hardware replacement logs
B) Documentation and approval of changes, including cloud configuration changes
C) Marketing strategy adjustments
D) End user satisfaction surveys
Answer: B
Explanation: Auditors verify that all cloud environment changes are properly documented, approved, tested, and implemented following procedures.
33. Which cloud security concept helps ensure that only authorized users can perform specific actions?
A) Encryption
B) Least privilege access and role-based access control (RBAC)
C) Multi-tenancy
D) Data masking
Answer: B
Explanation: Least privilege and RBAC limit users’ access to only what is necessary, reducing risk of unauthorized actions.
34. What is the main concern with shadow IT in cloud environments?
A) Use of unauthorized cloud services increases risk due to lack of oversight and controls
B) It reduces costs for IT departments
C) It simplifies audit processes
D) It eliminates the need for vendor management
Answer: A
Explanation: Shadow IT involves employees using unsanctioned cloud services, which can lead to data leakage and non-compliance.
35. Which of the following is a common cloud auditing method to verify encryption effectiveness?
A) Reviewing encryption key lifecycle management and usage logs
B) Observing physical locks on data centers
C) Interviewing cloud service marketing teams
D) Checking service pricing
Answer: A
Explanation: Key lifecycle and usage logs help auditors confirm encryption is properly applied and managed.
36. What role do cloud access security brokers (CASBs) play in cloud security?
A) They provide a bridge between users and cloud providers to enforce security policies and monitor activity
B) They replace cloud service providers’ security functions
C) They serve as firewalls only
D) They encrypt all cloud data automatically
Answer: A
Explanation: CASBs help enforce security policies, provide visibility, and monitor cloud usage between users and providers.
37. What is the purpose of conducting penetration testing in cloud environments?
A) To identify and exploit security vulnerabilities before attackers do
B) To increase cloud provider marketing
C) To document compliance with financial laws
D) To replace automated monitoring tools
Answer: A
Explanation: Pen testing helps uncover security weaknesses, enabling proactive remediation.
38. What is an essential component of cloud data backup auditing?
A) Ensuring backups are performed regularly and tested for recoverability
B) Confirming backups are stored in physical vaults only
C) Ignoring backup encryption
D) Verifying only backup schedules, not content
Answer: A
Explanation: Auditors must verify backups exist, are encrypted, and can be restored when needed.
39. What audit risk arises from the use of third-party cloud service providers?
A) Reduced regulatory requirements
B) Less control over security controls and compliance, increasing dependence on vendor trustworthiness
C) Elimination of security risks
D) Guaranteed 100% uptime
Answer: B
Explanation: Auditors must consider risks associated with vendor management and shared responsibility.
40. What is a primary function of a cloud governance framework?
A) To maximize cloud service sales
B) To establish policies and controls to manage cloud resources and risks effectively
C) To eliminate all cloud security risks
D) To decentralize control over cloud resources
Answer: B
Explanation: Governance frameworks help organizations manage cloud risk, compliance, and performance.
41. Which tool or technique is typically used to verify physical security controls at a cloud provider’s data center?
A) Remote penetration test
B) Onsite audit or review of the provider’s physical security reports and certifications (e.g., SOC, ISO 27001)
C) Reviewing software licenses
D) Checking user manuals
Answer: B
Explanation: Physical security audits often require onsite visits or reviewing third-party assurance reports.
42. What cloud security principle helps protect against data interception during transmission?
A) Data tokenization
B) Use of Transport Layer Security (TLS) or Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption
C) Backup data encryption
D) Disabling all external access
Answer: B
Explanation: TLS/SSL encrypts data in transit, protecting against interception and tampering.
43. What is the purpose of log management in cloud auditing?
A) To store logs indefinitely without analysis
B) To collect, retain, and analyze logs for detecting and investigating security incidents
C) To reduce cloud costs
D) To manage user account creation
Answer: B
Explanation: Effective log management supports detection of unauthorized activities and audit trails.
44. What type of cloud audit evidence is considered most reliable?
A) Verbal confirmation from cloud provider staff
B) Independent third-party audit reports and system-generated logs
C) Marketing brochures
D) Internal customer satisfaction surveys
Answer: B
Explanation: Third-party audits and system logs provide objective and verifiable evidence.
45. Why is multi-factor authentication (MFA) recommended in cloud environments?
A) It simplifies password management
B) It adds an extra layer of security beyond just passwords
C) It eliminates the need for encryption
D) It reduces network bandwidth usage
Answer: B
Explanation: MFA improves account security by requiring multiple forms of verification.
46. What is a typical cloud provider’s responsibility under the shared responsibility model?
A) Managing guest operating system patching
B) Securing the physical infrastructure and foundational cloud services
C) Managing customer data classification
D) Defining user access roles
Answer: B
Explanation: Providers handle infrastructure security, while customers manage their own data and configurations.
47. What does “elasticity” in cloud computing improve?
A) Security audit scope
B) Cost efficiency and scalability by matching resource allocation to demand
C) Physical security of servers
D) User interface design
Answer: B
Explanation: Elasticity allows dynamic scaling of resources, improving cost and operational efficiency.
48. What cloud audit step involves evaluating risk exposure related to data stored in multiple jurisdictions?
A) Data classification
B) Data sovereignty and regulatory compliance assessment
C) Backup verification
D) Physical security checks
Answer: B
Explanation: Auditors assess risks arising from varying laws affecting data across regions.
49. Which of the following is an example of a cloud audit control?
A) Automated configuration management to ensure compliance with security policies
B) Sales performance metrics
C) Employee vacation tracking
D) Marketing budget controls
Answer: A
Explanation: Configuration management helps ensure systems remain secure and compliant.
50. What is the primary purpose of a cloud incident response plan?
A) To prevent any incidents from occurring
B) To provide structured procedures for detecting, responding to, and recovering from security incidents
C) To outsource all responsibility to the cloud provider
D) To document audit findings only
Answer: B
Explanation: Incident response plans ensure prompt and effective handling of security events.
51. What type of risk does a lack of cloud resource tagging introduce?
A) Increased infrastructure costs and poor resource management
B) Improved security controls
C) Reduced audit complexity
D) Faster incident response
Answer: A
Explanation: Without tagging, resources can be mismanaged, causing cost overruns and audit difficulties.
52. Which of the following best describes “immutable logs” in cloud auditing?
A) Logs that cannot be altered or deleted once created
B) Logs that are encrypted but modifiable
C) Logs stored locally only
D) Logs manually entered by users
Answer: A
Explanation: Immutable logs ensure audit trails remain reliable and tamper-proof.
53. Why is it important to audit cloud provider certifications?
A) To verify marketing claims only
B) To ensure that the provider adheres to industry standards and best practices
C) To increase audit costs
D) To reduce the scope of audits
Answer: B
Explanation: Certifications demonstrate compliance with security and operational standards, reducing audit risks.
54. What is the main benefit of multi-region cloud deployment?
A) Improved disaster recovery and service availability through geographic redundancy
B) Increased complexity with no added benefits
C) Reduced data privacy compliance
D) Higher costs without advantages
Answer: A
Explanation: Multi-region deployments improve resiliency and business continuity.
55. What does the principle of “least privilege” require?
A) Users have the minimum necessary access rights to perform their tasks
B) Users can access any resource
C) Only administrators have access to all resources
D) No access restrictions are needed
Answer: A
Explanation: This principle minimizes risk by limiting access to what is strictly necessary.
56. How does the use of containers affect cloud auditing?
A) Containers eliminate the need for audits
B) Containers introduce new layers requiring specific audit focus on container security, image management, and orchestration
C) Containers replace virtual machines in all cases
D) Containers do not impact audit scope
Answer: B
Explanation: Containers add complexity and new attack surfaces needing dedicated audit procedures.
57. Which cloud audit activity helps verify compliance with data retention policies?
A) Reviewing data backup frequency only
B) Assessing how data lifecycle management and deletion procedures meet policy requirements
C) Physical inspection of servers
D) Checking password policies
Answer: B
Explanation: Auditors verify that data retention and deletion align with organizational and regulatory policies.
58. What is a key consideration when auditing cloud API security?
A) Ensuring APIs are publicly accessible without restrictions
B) Verifying proper authentication, authorization, rate limiting, and logging of API calls
C) Ignoring API vulnerabilities
D) Only auditing UI components
Answer: B
Explanation: Secure APIs require strong controls to prevent abuse and unauthorized access.
59. How should auditors approach reviewing cloud provider subcontractors?
A) Ignore subcontractors completely
B) Assess subcontractors’ compliance through provider disclosures and audit reports
C) Require full audit access to subcontractors
D) Assume subcontractors are always compliant
Answer: B
Explanation: Auditors rely on cloud provider information and reports about subcontractors’ controls.
60. What is the role of encryption in cloud data protection during data migration?
A) It is unnecessary during migration
B) It protects data confidentiality and integrity while data moves between locations
C) It slows down migration and should be avoided
D) It only protects data at rest
Answer: B
Explanation: Encryption during migration ensures data is secure against interception or tampering.
