Isaca CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor Exam
The Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) certification remains a trusted benchmark for professionals auditing, controlling, and assuring information systems. This exam preparation material is crafted to reflect the core competencies expected in the field, including Information Systems Auditing Processes, Governance and Management of IT, Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation, Operations and Business Resilience, and Protection of Information Assets.
Created to mirror the complexity and scope of actual exam questions, this resource encourages critical thinking and supports mastery of key concepts. It’s especially valuable for IT auditors, compliance officers, and cybersecurity professionals seeking to deepen their understanding of audit principles, risk management, and IT governance.
Covering both theoretical frameworks and practical audit applications, this preparation tool helps you evaluate systems integrity, ensure process effectiveness, and align with global standards. Whether you’re preparing for your first attempt or seeking to refresh your expertise, this focused approach enables confident progression toward certification.
Sharpen your skills and be fully prepared to demonstrate your knowledge and professionalism in information systems auditing.
Sample Questions and Answers
Domain 1: Information System Auditing Process
1. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in the information systems audit process?
A. Develop the audit program
B. Define audit objectives and scope
C. Perform a risk assessment
D. Conduct an opening meeting with auditees
Answer: C. Perform a risk assessment
Explanation: Risk assessment guides the audit plan by identifying areas of high risk that require more attention, making it the foundational step in the audit process.
2. What is the PRIMARY purpose of an audit charter?
A. To list all audit objectives
B. To outline the audit schedule
C. To define the authority and responsibilities of the audit function
D. To describe audit findings
Answer: C. To define the authority and responsibilities of the audit function
Explanation: An audit charter formally authorizes the audit function and outlines its scope, independence, and authority.
3. When an auditor detects a control deficiency, what should be the next course of action?
A. Report it to the media
B. Ignore it if it is minor
C. Communicate it to management with recommendations
D. Immediately stop the audit
Answer: C. Communicate it to management with recommendations
Explanation: The auditor should report control deficiencies and recommend corrective actions to responsible stakeholders.
4. An IS auditor is reviewing user access management. What should be of GREATEST concern?
A. Users are trained on password policies
B. Role-based access is implemented
C. Terminated employees still have access rights
D. Access is logged monthly
Answer: C. Terminated employees still have access rights
Explanation: This is a critical control failure that could lead to unauthorized access and data breaches.
5. Which of the following BEST supports the integrity of audit evidence?
A. Evidence provided by auditees
B. Evidence documented in emails
C. Evidence that is objective and verifiable
D. Verbal confirmations from stakeholders
Answer: C. Evidence that is objective and verifiable
Explanation: Objective, verifiable evidence supports credible audit findings and helps ensure audit integrity.
Domain 2: Governance and Management of IT
6. What is the PRIMARY focus of IT governance?
A. Budgeting IT costs
B. Managing project schedules
C. Aligning IT with business objectives
D. Implementing IT policies
Answer: C. Aligning IT with business objectives
Explanation: IT governance ensures that IT investments support business goals and deliver value.
7. A balanced scorecard is used by management to:
A. Monitor staff performance
B. Track IT infrastructure uptime
C. Measure strategic IT performance
D. Document security incidents
Answer: C. Measure strategic IT performance
Explanation: A balanced scorecard links strategic objectives with performance metrics across financial, customer, internal process, and learning/growth perspectives.
8. Which role is typically responsible for approving IT policies?
A. IT helpdesk
B. CIO
C. Business analyst
D. IT security administrator
Answer: B. CIO
Explanation: The CIO (Chief Information Officer) is accountable for IT governance and policy approval.
9. Which of the following BEST demonstrates effective IT risk management?
A. Daily backup logs are reviewed
B. IT budget is increased annually
C. Risk assessments are regularly conducted and documented
D. All users reset passwords every 90 days
Answer: C. Risk assessments are regularly conducted and documented
Explanation: Risk assessments help identify and mitigate IT risks, forming a core part of IT risk management.
10. An IS auditor is reviewing change management. What is the GREATEST risk if changes are implemented without proper testing?
A. Increased documentation
B. Budget overruns
C. System instability and outages
D. Delayed user training
Answer: C. System instability and outages
Explanation: Implementing untested changes can lead to critical failures in systems and services.
Domain 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development, and Implementation
11. The PRIMARY goal of a post-implementation review is to:
A. Train users
B. Reallocate project resources
C. Evaluate whether project objectives were met
D. Identify future project opportunities
Answer: C. Evaluate whether project objectives were met
Explanation: Post-implementation reviews assess project success and document lessons learned.
12. Which of the following BEST ensures that system development complies with user requirements?
A. Project milestones
B. Code reviews
C. User acceptance testing (UAT)
D. Developer documentation
Answer: C. User acceptance testing (UAT)
Explanation: UAT ensures that the delivered system meets user needs and business requirements.
13. Which model emphasizes thorough documentation and sequential phases?
A. Spiral model
B. Agile model
C. Waterfall model
D. Rapid Application Development (RAD)
Answer: C. Waterfall model
Explanation: The Waterfall model follows a linear, sequential design process with formal documentation at each phase.
14. Which is the PRIMARY objective of system design specifications?
A. Define software testing requirements
B. Outline the coding languages used
C. Translate business requirements into technical specifications
D. Document user training plans
Answer: C. Translate business requirements into technical specifications
Explanation: System design specifications guide developers to build systems that meet business needs.
15. What is the PRIMARY risk of inadequate involvement of end-users during system development?
A. Project delays
B. Increased documentation
C. Poor user acceptance
D. Higher costs
Answer: C. Poor user acceptance
Explanation: Lack of user input often results in systems that do not align with user needs.
Domain 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience
16. The PRIMARY goal of business continuity planning is to:
A. Prevent data breaches
B. Ensure uninterrupted critical business operations
C. Reduce staff turnover
D. Improve market share
Answer: B. Ensure uninterrupted critical business operations
Explanation: BCP ensures the continuation or quick recovery of essential functions during a disruption.
17. What is the MOST critical component of disaster recovery planning?
A. Insurance
B. Data backups
C. Employee benefits
D. IT staffing
Answer: B. Data backups
Explanation: Data is essential to business continuity; without reliable backups, recovery is impossible.
18. Recovery Time Objective (RTO) defines:
A. The point in time to which data must be recovered
B. The maximum allowable downtime
C. The time to complete a backup
D. The cost of restoring systems
Answer: B. The maximum allowable downtime
Explanation: RTO is the duration within which a process or system must be restored after disruption.
19. A hot site is BEST described as:
A. A manual process
B. A facility equipped with power but no hardware
C. A fully equipped and operational backup site
D. A paper-based backup plan
Answer: C. A fully equipped and operational backup site
Explanation: A hot site is ready for immediate use during a disaster.
20. Which of the following BEST ensures proper batch processing?
A. Backup tapes
B. Run-to-run controls
C. Encryption keys
D. System logs
Answer: B. Run-to-run controls
Explanation: Run-to-run controls verify that batch processing jobs run completely and correctly from one step to the next.
Domain 5: Protection of Information Assets
21. The PRIMARY objective of access controls is to:
A. Prevent system downtime
B. Ensure availability
C. Enforce least privilege
D. Create audit trails
Answer: C. Enforce least privilege
Explanation: Access controls limit users to the minimal level of access required, enforcing least privilege.
22. What is the PRIMARY goal of encryption?
A. Minimize downtime
B. Prevent brute-force attacks
C. Ensure confidentiality
D. Reduce data storage
Answer: C. Ensure confidentiality
Explanation: Encryption protects data from unauthorized access by converting it into unreadable form.
23. What does a digital signature primarily provide?
A. Availability and encryption
B. Authentication and integrity
C. Confidentiality and obfuscation
D. Backup and recovery
Answer: B. Authentication and integrity
Explanation: Digital signatures confirm the identity of the sender and that data has not been altered.
24. Which of the following is the BEST control to detect unauthorized changes to system files?
A. Antivirus software
B. File integrity monitoring
C. Data masking
D. Encryption
Answer: B. File integrity monitoring
Explanation: File integrity monitoring detects changes to critical files, which may indicate unauthorized activity.
25. The MOST effective way to mitigate phishing attacks is to:
A. Install antivirus software
B. Use spam filters
C. Conduct user awareness training
D. Implement data loss prevention (DLP) tools
Answer: C. Conduct user awareness training
Explanation: Educating users helps them recognize and avoid phishing attempts.
26. What is the PRIMARY purpose of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
A. Prevent attacks
B. Detect unauthorized activity
C. Backup data
D. Control network traffic
Answer: B. Detect unauthorized activity
Explanation: IDSs monitor networks/systems and alert administrators to suspicious behavior.
27. What control BEST ensures data cannot be read by unauthorized users during transmission?
A. Firewalls
B. Tokenization
C. Encryption
D. Password protection
Answer: C. Encryption
Explanation: Encryption secures data in transit, making it unreadable to unauthorized parties.
28. Two-factor authentication provides:
A. Confidentiality and speed
B. Identification and encryption
C. Stronger user authentication
D. Network redundancy
Answer: C. Stronger user authentication
Explanation: It combines two independent credentials, improving access security.
29. Which of the following is a preventive control?
A. Audit logging
B. Firewall
C. Intrusion detection
D. Post-incident review
Answer: B. Firewall
Explanation: Firewalls prevent unauthorized access, making them a preventive control.
30. An IS auditor finds that logs are not reviewed regularly. What is the BEST recommendation?
A. Delete old logs
B. Increase storage capacity
C. Implement a log review procedure
D. Use encryption for logs
Answer: C. Implement a log review procedure
Explanation: Regular log reviews help detect suspicious activity and enhance security monitoring.