IT Project Management Practice Exam Quiz
What is the primary goal of project management?
a) Delivering the project on time and within budget
b) Maximizing profits for the organization
c) Developing the best technology solution
d) Improving team morale
Answer: a) Delivering the project on time and within budget
What is the project life cycle phase where project objectives are defined?
a) Initiation
b) Planning
c) Execution
d) Closing
Answer: a) Initiation
Which document serves as a contract between the project sponsor and the project team?
a) Project Charter
b) Project Plan
c) Statement of Work (SOW)
d) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer: a) Project Charter
What is a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
a) A chart that tracks project deadlines
b) A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work
c) A report outlining project risks
d) A budget management tool
Answer: b) A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work
What is the critical path in a project?
a) The sequence of tasks that take the longest to complete
b) The path with the least dependencies
c) The path with the most budget allocated
d) The shortest path to complete the project
Answer: a) The sequence of tasks that take the longest to complete
Which methodology is known for iterative development?
a) Waterfall
b) Agile
c) Critical Path
d) Six Sigma
Answer: b) Agile
What is a key characteristic of the Agile methodology?
a) Strict adherence to original project plans
b) Fixed project timelines and budgets
c) Flexibility to adapt to changes
d) Focus on documentation over collaboration
Answer: c) Flexibility to adapt to changes
What is risk management in project management?
a) Identifying, analyzing, and responding to project risks
b) Avoiding all risks at all costs
c) Shifting risks to the project sponsor
d) Ignoring risks to focus on deliverables
Answer: a) Identifying, analyzing, and responding to project risks
Which technique is used to visually track project progress?
a) Gantt Chart
b) SWOT Analysis
c) Fishbone Diagram
d) Pareto Chart
Answer: a) Gantt Chart
What is scope creep?
a) Unplanned changes or growth in project scope
b) Reducing the project scope to save time
c) A detailed review of project objectives
d) A method for managing team conflicts
Answer: a) Unplanned changes or growth in project scope
What is the primary purpose of a stakeholder analysis?
a) To identify potential risks in a project
b) To understand stakeholder interests and influence
c) To create a detailed project budget
d) To track project milestones
Answer: b) To understand stakeholder interests and influence
In which project phase is the deliverable handed over to the client?
a) Planning
b) Execution
c) Closing
d) Monitoring
Answer: c) Closing
What is a project milestone?
a) A point in the project where key deliverables are completed
b) A task that has no dependencies
c) The final step in project execution
d) A document outlining stakeholder roles
Answer: a) A point in the project where key deliverables are completed
What is the main role of a project sponsor?
a) To manage the day-to-day activities of the project
b) To provide resources and support for the project
c) To create the project plan
d) To test the final deliverables
Answer: b) To provide resources and support for the project
What does a RACI matrix stand for?
a) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
b) Review, Approve, Control, Implement
c) Risk, Action, Control, Involvement
d) Requirement, Analysis, Cost, Integration
Answer: a) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
What is a common tool for identifying project risks?
a) SWOT Analysis
b) Critical Path Method
c) Fishbone Diagram
d) Monte Carlo Simulation
Answer: a) SWOT Analysis
Which project management certification is globally recognized?
a) ITIL
b) PMP (Project Management Professional)
c) Scrum Master
d) Six Sigma Green Belt
Answer: b) PMP (Project Management Professional)
What is the term for revising project baselines due to scope changes?
a) Project Reconfiguration
b) Baseline Adjustment
c) Scope Revision
d) Change Control
Answer: d) Change Control
What is the Triple Constraint in project management?
a) Scope, Time, Budget
b) Risk, Resources, Deliverables
c) Communication, Collaboration, Control
d) Quality, Team, Tools
Answer: a) Scope, Time, Budget
What is earned value management (EVM)?
a) A technique to measure project performance and progress
b) A method for assigning costs to project tasks
c) A budgeting tool for project execution
d) A strategy for stakeholder engagement
Answer: a) A technique to measure project performance and progress
What does the acronym PMO stand for?
a) Project Management Organization
b) Project Management Office
c) Project Monitoring Operations
d) Project Maintenance Officer
Answer: b) Project Management Office
Which phase involves tracking project performance?
a) Initiation
b) Monitoring and Controlling
c) Execution
d) Planning
Answer: b) Monitoring and Controlling
What is a deliverable in project management?
a) A tangible or intangible outcome produced during a project
b) A timeline for project completion
c) A strategy for resource allocation
d) A risk mitigation plan
Answer: a) A tangible or intangible outcome produced during a project
What is a project baseline?
a) The estimated start date for a project
b) The original approved plan for scope, time, and cost
c) A list of all project risks
d) A method for resource allocation
Answer: b) The original approved plan for scope, time, and cost
What is resource leveling?
a) Adjusting project timelines to align with resource availability
b) Allocating resources evenly across tasks
c) Adding more resources to critical tasks
d) Removing resources to reduce costs
Answer: a) Adjusting project timelines to align with resource availability
What is a sprint in Agile methodology?
a) A short, time-boxed period to complete specific tasks
b) A phase for testing deliverables
c) A milestone in a Waterfall project
d) A report summarizing project risks
Answer: a) A short, time-boxed period to complete specific tasks
What is a burn-down chart used for?
a) Tracking work remaining in a sprint
b) Estimating project costs
c) Identifying critical project risks
d) Documenting stakeholder feedback
Answer: a) Tracking work remaining in a sprint
What is a common method for prioritizing tasks in Agile?
a) MoSCoW Method
b) Pareto Analysis
c) Monte Carlo Simulation
d) Ishikawa Diagram
Answer: a) MoSCoW Method
Which Agile role ensures the team follows Agile principles?
a) Product Owner
b) Scrum Master
c) Project Sponsor
d) Business Analyst
Answer: b) Scrum Master
What is a key principle of Lean methodology?
a) Maximizing resource utilization
b) Eliminating waste in processes
c) Following strict project schedules
d) Reducing collaboration to speed up tasks
Answer: b) Eliminating waste in processes
Which phase in IT project management involves defining the project’s objectives and deliverables?
A) Execution
B) Planning
C) Initiation
D) Closing
Answer: C
What is the primary purpose of using a project management software scheduling tool?
A) To enhance team communication
B) To allocate resources and track schedules
C) To monitor stakeholder satisfaction
D) To create a project budget
Answer: B
Which of the following best describes the Agile project management approach?
A) Focuses on a sequential and rigid process
B) Encourages iterative development and flexibility
C) Centers on risk elimination before execution
D) Requires all deliverables to be completed upfront
Answer: B
In IT projects, what is the main benefit of using a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
A) To identify project stakeholders
B) To break the project into manageable components
C) To create a Gantt chart
D) To monitor team performance
Answer: B
What is the role of a Product Owner in an Agile IT project?
A) Managing the development team
B) Maintaining the product backlog and prioritizing requirements
C) Overseeing budget and schedule adherence
D) Ensuring quality control of deliverables
Answer: B
What is a key principle of the Scrum framework in Agile project management?
A) Minimizing team collaboration
B) Prioritizing detailed documentation
C) Conducting daily stand-up meetings
D) Avoiding feedback during the project
Answer: C
In traditional project management, which process group includes tracking, reviewing, and regulating progress?
A) Planning
B) Execution
C) Monitoring and Controlling
D) Closing
Answer: C
Which of the following is a tool used to visualize and manage project dependencies in IT projects?
A) Gantt Chart
B) Burndown Chart
C) Fishbone Diagram
D) Network Diagram
Answer: A
What is scope creep in IT project management?
A) A planned reduction in project scope
B) Uncontrolled expansion of project scope without adjustments to time, cost, or resources
C) The creation of new project milestones
D) The reduction of project deliverables to save costs
Answer: B
What does the acronym “MoSCoW” represent in Agile prioritization?
A) Must-Have, Should-Have, Could-Have, Won’t-Have
B) Manage, Observe, Simplify, Coordinate, Work
C) Monitor, Share, Create, Oversee, Workload
D) Model, Schedule, Control, Oversee, Work
Answer: A
In which Agile ceremony are completed tasks reviewed and feedback provided?
A) Sprint Planning
B) Daily Scrum
C) Sprint Review
D) Retrospective
Answer: C
Which project phase includes the handover of the final deliverables to the customer?
A) Execution
B) Planning
C) Monitoring and Controlling
D) Closing
Answer: D
What is the critical path in project scheduling?
A) The sequence of activities that determines the shortest project duration
B) The sequence of activities that determines the longest project duration
C) The path with the highest cost activities
D) The sequence of low-priority tasks
Answer: B
What is the purpose of a retrospective meeting in Agile?
A) To prioritize tasks for the next sprint
B) To identify lessons learned and improve processes
C) To present completed deliverables to stakeholders
D) To assign roles and responsibilities to team members
Answer: B
What does a burn-down chart measure in an Agile project?
A) Team productivity
B) Project risks
C) Work remaining versus time
D) Resource utilization
Answer: C
Which methodology is best suited for projects with high levels of uncertainty and changing requirements?
A) Waterfall
B) Agile
C) Six Sigma
D) Prince2
Answer: B
In a project schedule, what is a milestone?
A) A deliverable requiring approval from the project sponsor
B) A task that takes the least amount of time to complete
C) A significant point or event in the project timeline
D) A breakdown of project costs
Answer: C
What is the primary goal of stakeholder analysis in IT projects?
A) To estimate project costs
B) To define the project timeline
C) To identify and manage stakeholder expectations
D) To allocate team roles and responsibilities
Answer: C
In an Agile project, what is the term for a short, time-boxed development cycle?
A) Iteration
B) Milestone
C) Sprint
D) Release
Answer: C
Which of the following is NOT a key component of the project initiation phase?
A) Defining project goals
B) Creating the project charter
C) Allocating resources
D) Identifying stakeholders
Answer: C
What is the primary role of a Scrum Master?
A) Managing the project budget
B) Facilitating the Agile process and removing team obstacles
C) Prioritizing the product backlog
D) Testing the final deliverables
Answer: B
What is the significance of using a RACI chart in project management?
A) To estimate project risks
B) To document stakeholder engagement
C) To define team roles and responsibilities
D) To track project milestones
Answer: C
What is earned value management (EVM) primarily used for in IT project management?
A) Measuring project performance and progress
B) Scheduling tasks
C) Conducting risk analysis
D) Allocating resources
Answer: A
What is the primary focus of the Planning phase in IT project management?
A) Monitoring project progress
B) Delivering project outcomes
C) Defining tasks, resources, and timelines
D) Closing stakeholder agreements
Answer: C
What is a Kanban board used for in Agile IT projects?
A) Monitoring project risks
B) Visualizing workflows and task progress
C) Creating detailed project schedules
D) Assigning team roles and responsibilities
Answer: B
What is a deliverable in an IT project?
A) A task completed by the team
B) A measurable outcome or product resulting from the project
C) A milestone in the project schedule
D) A list of project risks
Answer: B
In which process group is the project schedule baseline created?
A) Initiating
B) Planning
C) Executing
D) Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: B
What does the Triple Constraint in project management refer to?
A) Resources, Deliverables, Stakeholders
B) Time, Cost, Scope
C) Quality, Risk, Communication
D) Budget, Tools, Teams
Answer: B
What is resource leveling in IT project management?
A) Ensuring resources are evenly distributed
B) Adjusting timelines to align with resource availability
C) Adding resources to high-priority tasks
D) Reducing resource usage to lower costs
Answer: B
What is the key objective of the Closing phase in project management?
A) Monitoring risks
B) Delivering the final product and documenting lessons learned
C) Revising the project charter
D) Allocating additional resources
Answer: B
What is the primary focus of risk management in IT projects?
A) Eliminating all project risks
B) Identifying, analyzing, and mitigating risks
C) Assigning risks to stakeholders
D) Ensuring all risks are documented after project completion
Answer: B
Which document formally authorizes the existence of a project?
A) Project Plan
B) Statement of Work (SOW)
C) Project Charter
D) Business Case
Answer: C
In Agile, what does the term “velocity” refer to?
A) The time it takes to complete a sprint
B) The cost of completing tasks during a sprint
C) The amount of work a team can complete during a sprint
D) The number of defects resolved during a sprint
Answer: C
Which of the following is a common Agile estimation technique?
A) Critical Path Method
B) Monte Carlo Simulation
C) Fibonacci Sequence
D) Pareto Analysis
Answer: C
What is the critical path in project scheduling?
A) The path that requires the most resources
B) The sequence of tasks with the most flexibility
C) The longest sequence of tasks with zero slack
D) The shortest sequence of tasks to complete the project
Answer: C
Which Agile practice emphasizes delivering small, functional increments of a product?
A) Sprint Planning
B) Incremental Delivery
C) Waterfall Execution
D) Continuous Deployment
Answer: B
What is the primary purpose of a Gantt chart in project management?
A) To identify risks
B) To visualize task scheduling and dependencies
C) To assess team performance
D) To allocate resources
Answer: B
What does the term “time-boxing” mean in Agile project management?
A) Setting a fixed deadline for the project
B) Limiting the amount of work in progress
C) Allocating a fixed duration for a specific activity
D) Scheduling multiple tasks simultaneously
Answer: C
In project management, what is a stakeholder register?
A) A list of project team members and their roles
B) A document that tracks stakeholder engagement levels
C) A directory of all project stakeholders and their expectations
D) A tool for monitoring project risks
Answer: C
What is the function of a RAID log in project management?
A) Tracking project schedules
B) Documenting Risks, Assumptions, Issues, and Dependencies
C) Monitoring team performance
D) Allocating resources to high-priority tasks
Answer: B
Which type of chart is most commonly used to track task progress in Agile?
A) Bar Chart
B) Kanban Board
C) PERT Chart
D) Pareto Chart
Answer: B
What is the purpose of a sprint retrospective?
A) To estimate tasks for the next sprint
B) To review the sprint’s successes and areas for improvement
C) To finalize the sprint deliverables
D) To manage stakeholder expectations
Answer: B
Which of the following is a key responsibility of the project sponsor?
A) Managing daily project activities
B) Monitoring the project’s critical path
C) Providing financial and strategic support to the project
D) Conducting sprint reviews
Answer: C
In risk management, what does the term “mitigation” mean?
A) Accepting a risk without action
B) Reducing the impact or probability of a risk
C) Transferring a risk to another party
D) Ignoring a low-priority risk
Answer: B
Which document is used to formally close a project?
A) Project Management Plan
B) Lessons Learned Document
C) Project Closure Report
D) Stakeholder Analysis Document
Answer: C
What is a Scrum team typically composed of?
A) Product Owner, Scrum Master, Development Team
B) Project Manager, Scrum Master, Development Team
C) Business Analyst, Product Owner, Development Team
D) Stakeholders, Product Owner, Scrum Master
Answer: A
In Agile, what is a “user story”?
A) A detailed project requirement document
B) A tool to track defects in the project
C) A description of a feature or functionality from the end user’s perspective
D) A log of team performance
Answer: C
What is the main advantage of Continuous Integration in Agile?
A) Delivering projects within budget
B) Catching and resolving issues early through frequent code integration
C) Completing projects in shorter durations
D) Reducing team workload
Answer: B
What is “earned value” in project management?
A) The total value of completed work in monetary terms
B) The planned cost of a project
C) The actual cost of resources used in the project
D) The difference between planned and actual costs
Answer: A
What does “project scope” define?
A) The project’s deliverables, boundaries, and requirements
B) The timeline for project completion
C) The total cost of the project
D) The team structure and responsibilities
Answer: A
What is the primary goal of sprint planning in Scrum?
A) To determine the sprint duration
B) To prioritize backlog items and commit to work
C) To analyze team velocity
D) To gather feedback from stakeholders
Answer: B
In a risk matrix, what do the axes typically represent?
A) Likelihood and Impact
B) Time and Cost
C) Scope and Schedule
D) Resources and Quality
Answer: A
What is the primary purpose of a “stand-up” meeting in Agile?
A) Reviewing completed deliverables
B) Assigning roles for the next sprint
C) Sharing progress, roadblocks, and plans in a brief session
D) Presenting the final product to stakeholders
Answer: C
What is the difference between a project and an operation?
A) A project is temporary, while an operation is ongoing
B) A project focuses on profits, while an operation focuses on resources
C) A project is small-scale, while an operation is large-scale
D) A project has no defined timeline, while an operation does
Answer: A
In IT project management, what is the “iron triangle”?
A) Resources, Schedule, Risks
B) Time, Cost, Scope
C) Quality, Team, Risks
D) Budget, Communication, Schedule
Answer: B
What is a “dependency” in project management?
A) A risk that impacts multiple tasks
B) A task that cannot begin until another task is completed
C) A deliverable that depends on stakeholder approval
D) A role in the project team
Answer: B
What is the purpose of a project communication plan?
A) To monitor team performance
B) To outline how information will be shared with stakeholders
C) To allocate resources for communication activities
D) To track project milestones
Answer: B
In Scrum, what is the time-box for a sprint review?
A) 4 hours
B) 8 hours
C) 2 hours
D) As needed, based on the team’s preference
Answer: A
What is a key deliverable of the planning phase in IT project management?
A) Risk Register
B) Project Scope Statement
C) Lessons Learned Document
D) Product Backlog
Answer: B
What is backlog grooming in Agile?
A) Assigning tasks to team members
B) Refining and prioritizing backlog items for future sprints
C) Removing completed tasks from the backlog
D) Estimating time for project completion
Answer: B
What is the purpose of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
A) To assign tasks to specific team members
B) To organize project tasks into manageable sections
C) To define project scope boundaries
D) To track project costs
Answer: B
Which of the following is a key benefit of Agile methodology for IT projects?
A) Eliminating the need for documentation
B) Allowing changes in requirements even late in the project
C) Reducing team size requirements
D) Strict adherence to pre-defined schedules
Answer: B
What is the primary responsibility of a Product Owner in Scrum?
A) Writing code for the project
B) Managing the Scrum team’s daily tasks
C) Defining and prioritizing the product backlog
D) Conducting performance appraisals
Answer: C
Which of the following tools is commonly used for project scheduling?
A) Kanban Boards
B) Microsoft Project
C) SWOT Analysis
D) RAID Log
Answer: B
What is a “burn-down chart” used for in Agile?
A) Tracking team productivity
B) Monitoring project budget
C) Visualizing work remaining in a sprint
D) Allocating resources among team members
Answer: C
In IT project management, what does “scope creep” refer to?
A) An increase in project costs due to poor planning
B) Unauthorized changes or additions to project scope
C) Reducing scope to meet deadlines
D) The process of redefining project deliverables
Answer: B
What is the purpose of a feasibility study in project management?
A) To evaluate team performance
B) To identify risks and constraints
C) To determine if the project is viable and achievable
D) To develop a project budget
Answer: C
What is the primary focus of Earned Value Management (EVM)?
A) Managing project risks
B) Evaluating schedule and cost performance
C) Improving team collaboration
D) Defining project scope
Answer: B
Which phase of the project management lifecycle involves tracking progress and performance?
A) Initiation
B) Planning
C) Execution
D) Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: D
In Scrum, what is the maximum duration of a sprint?
A) 1 week
B) 2 weeks
C) 4 weeks
D) 6 weeks
Answer: C
What is the role of the Scrum Master in an Agile project?
A) Ensuring the team adheres to Scrum principles
B) Assigning tasks to team members
C) Approving deliverables
D) Writing user stories
Answer: A
Which of the following is not a process group in traditional project management?
A) Initiating
B) Closing
C) Designing
D) Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: C
What is the main output of the project initiation phase?
A) Project Schedule
B) Project Charter
C) Risk Register
D) Product Backlog
Answer: B
Which Agile framework uses a visual board to manage work items?
A) Scrum
B) Extreme Programming (XP)
C) Kanban
D) Crystal
Answer: C
In IT project management, which tool is best suited for analyzing task dependencies?
A) Gantt Chart
B) Critical Path Method (CPM)
C) Pareto Chart
D) Fishbone Diagram
Answer: B
What is the primary focus of the initiation phase in project management?
A) Managing stakeholder communication
B) Identifying project objectives and stakeholders
C) Developing the project schedule
D) Allocating resources
Answer: B
Which technique is used to estimate project costs in Agile?
A) Parametric Estimation
B) Story Point Estimation
C) Earned Value Analysis
D) Bottom-Up Estimation
Answer: B
What is the key difference between Agile and Waterfall methodologies?
A) Agile focuses on fixed requirements, while Waterfall is iterative
B) Agile is iterative and incremental, while Waterfall is linear and sequential
C) Agile requires large teams, while Waterfall uses small teams
D) Agile is used only for IT projects, while Waterfall applies to all industries
Answer: B
In Agile, what does the term “increment” refer to?
A) A prioritized user story
B) A working product delivered at the end of a sprint
C) A scheduled meeting
D) A defect resolved during the sprint
Answer: B
What does a PERT chart primarily help with?
A) Estimating project costs
B) Tracking team performance
C) Identifying task dependencies and timelines
D) Allocating resources
Answer: C
In project risk management, what is a “trigger”?
A) A condition that causes a risk to occur
B) A mitigation strategy
C) A risk response plan
D) An external factor influencing the project
Answer: A
What is a Sprint Goal?
A) The total number of tasks to complete in a sprint
B) A concise statement defining the purpose of a sprint
C) A detailed plan for the sprint backlog
D) A list of risks associated with a sprint
Answer: B
Which of the following is a key principle of Agile?
A) Delivering documentation as the primary measure of progress
B) Responding to change over following a plan
C) Preferring comprehensive processes over individual interactions
D) Avoiding customer collaboration during development
Answer: B
Which Agile practice helps ensure high-quality deliverables?
A) Test-Driven Development (TDD)
B) Time-boxing
C) Earned Value Analysis
D) Kanban Boards
Answer: A
What is the primary purpose of project milestones?
A) Assigning responsibilities to team members
B) Identifying major points of progress in the project lifecycle
C) Ensuring resource allocation
D) Monitoring risks
Answer: B
What is the primary benefit of retrospectives in Agile projects?
A) Finalizing deliverables
B) Improving team performance through reflection
C) Assigning user stories for the next sprint
D) Updating the risk register
Answer: B
In IT project management, what is the function of a configuration management plan?
A) Managing changes to project scope and deliverables
B) Identifying team roles and responsibilities
C) Developing communication strategies
D) Allocating resources
Answer: A
What is the primary purpose of stakeholder engagement in project management?
A) Assigning tasks to stakeholders
B) Aligning project goals with stakeholder expectations
C) Identifying risks associated with stakeholders
D) Finalizing project deliverables
Answer: B
What is a “sprint backlog” in Scrum?
A) A list of tasks completed during a sprint
B) A list of defects resolved during a sprint
C) A subset of the product backlog selected for a sprint
D) A report of the sprint’s progress
Answer: C
Which phase in traditional project management involves finalizing deliverables and obtaining stakeholder approval?
A) Planning
B) Execution
C) Closing
D) Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: C
In project management, what is the “triple constraint”?
A) Cost, time, and scope
B) Cost, quality, and communication
C) Time, stakeholders, and quality
D) Risks, issues, and scope
Answer: A
What is the main advantage of a hybrid project management approach?
A) Strict adherence to traditional project methodologies
B) Combining the benefits of Agile and traditional methods
C) Using Kanban exclusively for task tracking
D) Faster delivery of documentation
Answer: B
In Scrum, what is the term for a review session held at the end of a sprint?
A) Retrospective
B) Sprint Review
C) Planning Session
D) Stand-Up
Answer: B
What is the primary objective of stakeholder analysis in project management?
A) Assigning roles and responsibilities
B) Identifying stakeholder influence and interest
C) Managing project risks
D) Preparing project deliverables
Answer: B
In Agile, what does the “Definition of Done” ensure?
A) Team completion of assigned tasks
B) Acceptance criteria for deliverables are met
C) Sprints are completed within the timebox
D) All team members agree on the sprint goals
Answer: B
Which project management artifact is most associated with Kanban?
A) Sprint Backlog
B) Product Roadmap
C) Visual Board
D) Work Breakdown Structure
Answer: C
What is the primary purpose of the Critical Path Method (CPM)?
A) Identifying tasks that can be delayed without affecting project timelines
B) Allocating resources across tasks
C) Measuring team performance
D) Tracking project costs
Answer: A
Which Agile methodology emphasizes pair programming and test-driven development?
A) Scrum
B) Kanban
C) Extreme Programming (XP)
D) Crystal
Answer: C
What is the role of a Gantt chart in traditional project management?
A) Risk analysis
B) Resource allocation
C) Visualizing task schedules and dependencies
D) Measuring project performance
Answer: C
What is “timeboxing” in Agile?
A) Fixing the duration of each project phase
B) Limiting the time allocated to a task or sprint
C) Scheduling meetings for a fixed time
D) Creating a timeline for stakeholder engagement
Answer: B
Which document defines how project risks will be identified, assessed, and managed?
A) Risk Management Plan
B) Risk Register
C) Project Charter
D) Stakeholder Register
Answer: A
What is a “minimum viable product” (MVP) in Agile projects?
A) A basic version of a product with only essential features
B) A fully completed project deliverable
C) The last increment of a sprint
D) A product that meets all scope requirements
Answer: A
In IT project management, what does “resource leveling” address?
A) Balancing resource availability with project demands
B) Assigning team members to multiple tasks simultaneously
C) Reducing project risks
D) Allocating additional funds for project contingencies
Answer: A
In a RAID log, what does the “R” stand for?
A) Risks
B) Resources
C) Requirements
D) Roadblocks
Answer: A
In Agile, what is the purpose of “backlog grooming”?
A) Refining and prioritizing the product backlog
B) Allocating resources to tasks
C) Reviewing completed tasks for errors
D) Planning the next sprint
Answer: A
What is a key characteristic of an Agile cross-functional team?
A) Members with diverse skill sets working collaboratively
B) Each member specializes in a single area of expertise
C) Teams that report directly to senior management
D) Teams that change roles during each sprint
Answer: A
What is the purpose of a Project Charter?
A) To authorize the project and outline key objectives
B) To track project costs
C) To identify risks and mitigation plans
D) To define resource allocation
Answer: A
What is the primary focus of Agile retrospectives?
A) Identifying areas for improvement in team performance
B) Revisiting project scope and objectives
C) Creating detailed project reports
D) Reviewing stakeholder feedback
Answer: A
What is the role of “epics” in Agile?
A) Large user stories that can be broken down into smaller tasks
B) Completed tasks in the product backlog
C) Tasks that take the most time to complete
D) Errors identified during a sprint
Answer: A
Which of the following is a common risk in IT projects?
A) Changing technology standards
B) Overestimating resource needs
C) Fixed project scope
D) High team retention rates
Answer: A
What is the key benefit of using a Kanban board in IT projects?
A) Visualizing workflow and work in progress
B) Creating a detailed Gantt chart
C) Documenting team roles and responsibilities
D) Tracking earned value
Answer: A
In traditional project management, what is the primary output of the planning phase?
A) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B) Sprint Backlog
C) Completed Project Charter
D) Lessons Learned Document
Answer: A
What is the primary purpose of risk mitigation in project management?
A) Reducing the likelihood or impact of identified risks
B) Eliminating all risks from the project
C) Postponing tasks affected by risks
D) Prioritizing risks based on severity
Answer: A
Which of the following tools is primarily used to track project deliverables?
A) Deliverable Tracker
B) Product Backlog
C) Scope Management Plan
D) Requirements Traceability Matrix
Answer: D
What is a “sprint retrospective” in Scrum?
A) A review of the team’s performance after the sprint
B) A summary of all tasks completed during the sprint
C) A planning session for the next sprint
D) A product demonstration session
Answer: A
Which tool can be used to calculate the probability and impact of risks?
A) Probability-Impact Matrix
B) RAID Log
C) Critical Path Analysis
D) Ishikawa Diagram
Answer: A
What is a “fishbone diagram” commonly used for in IT projects?
A) Identifying the root causes of problems
B) Defining the project scope
C) Allocating resources to tasks
D) Visualizing task dependencies
Answer: A
In project management, what is “progressive elaboration”?
A) Developing detailed plans as project work progresses
B) Revising project scope during execution
C) Finalizing deliverables before execution
D) Reassigning resources based on project needs
Answer: A
What is the main purpose of a Product Roadmap?
A) Visualizing the strategic direction of the product
B) Tracking task completion rates
C) Managing project risks
D) Allocating resources
Answer: A
What is the term for measuring the efficiency of resource utilization in IT projects?
A) Resource Optimization
B) Resource Utilization Rate
C) Resource Burn Rate
D) Resource Allocation Index
Answer: B
What is the primary goal of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
A) To allocate resources to tasks
B) To define and organize the total scope of the project
C) To identify project risks
D) To create a project timeline
Answer: B
In Agile, what does the term “velocity” refer to?
A) The speed at which sprints are completed
B) The amount of work a team can complete in a sprint
C) The time it takes to resolve bugs
D) The efficiency of stakeholder communication
Answer: B
Which project management phase focuses on formally closing a project?
A) Execution
B) Planning
C) Monitoring and Controlling
D) Closing
Answer: D
What is the key focus of Scrum’s “daily stand-up” meetings?
A) Reviewing the sprint backlog
B) Identifying and resolving blockers
C) Planning the next sprint
D) Updating the product roadmap
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT a key role in the Scrum framework?
A) Product Owner
B) Scrum Master
C) Development Team
D) Project Sponsor
Answer: D
What is a project “stakeholder”?
A) Anyone who invests financially in the project
B) Any individual or group that can affect or be affected by the project
C) Only the project sponsor and client
D) The team responsible for executing project tasks
Answer: B
What does “scope creep” refer to in project management?
A) Uncontrolled changes or growth in a project’s scope
B) Delays caused by inadequate planning
C) Miscommunication between team members
D) Poor stakeholder engagement
Answer: A
Which Agile framework uses “Feature-Driven Development (FDD)” as a core practice?
A) Scrum
B) Kanban
C) XP (Extreme Programming)
D) FDD (Feature-Driven Development)
Answer: D
What is the purpose of a project kickoff meeting?
A) To initiate the planning phase
B) To align the team and stakeholders on project goals and expectations
C) To finalize project deliverables
D) To conduct risk analysis
Answer: B
What is the main output of the Initiating phase in project management?
A) Project Charter
B) Stakeholder Register
C) Risk Management Plan
D) Work Breakdown Structure
Answer: A
In the context of Agile, what is a “user story”?
A) A detailed task assigned to developers
B) A description of a feature or functionality from the user’s perspective
C) A report summarizing sprint outcomes
D) A narrative explaining the project’s goals
Answer: B
What is the main purpose of a “burn-down chart”?
A) To track project costs
B) To visualize remaining work in a sprint
C) To document stakeholder feedback
D) To identify risks and issues
Answer: B
In IT project management, what is a “critical success factor”?
A) An essential activity that must be completed to ensure project success
B) A backup plan for project risks
C) A deliverable approved by the client
D) A budgetary constraint
Answer: A
What is the primary function of a RAID log in project management?
A) Tracking project resources
B) Documenting Risks, Assumptions, Issues, and Dependencies
C) Managing project costs
D) Assigning roles and responsibilities
Answer: B
What does “Kanban” mean in Japanese?
A) Task prioritization
B) Visual signal or card
C) Continuous improvement
D) Sprint planning
Answer: B
What is the purpose of Earned Value Management (EVM)?
A) To calculate resource utilization
B) To measure project performance and progress
C) To track team velocity
D) To prioritize the product backlog
Answer: B
What is the first step in risk management?
A) Risk assessment
B) Risk mitigation
C) Risk identification
D) Risk communication
Answer: C
In Agile, what does the term “increment” refer to?
A) A working product or feature delivered after a sprint
B) A section of the product backlog
C) A period of time allocated to task completion
D) A detailed design document
Answer: A
What is the primary objective of a project “baseline”?
A) To provide a point of reference for scope, schedule, and cost
B) To estimate future project performance
C) To finalize stakeholder requirements
D) To close the project
Answer: A
What is the primary purpose of project milestones?
A) To measure progress against the schedule
B) To estimate the project budget
C) To allocate resources effectively
D) To complete the risk management plan
Answer: A
Which methodology includes the concept of a “timebox”?
A) Kanban
B) Waterfall
C) Agile
D) CPM (Critical Path Method)
Answer: C
What is a primary characteristic of the Waterfall model?
A) Iterative cycles
B) Defined sequential phases
C) Emphasis on flexibility
D) Focus on adaptive planning
Answer: B
In IT project management, what does a “use case diagram” depict?
A) The sequence of tasks in the project lifecycle
B) Interactions between users and a system
C) The project scope
D) The risks and dependencies in a project
Answer: B
What is the Agile Manifesto’s view on documentation?
A) Comprehensive documentation is the highest priority
B) Documentation is unnecessary in Agile projects
C) Documentation should be sufficient but not excessive
D) Documentation should be created only at the end of the project
Answer: C
What does “resource smoothing” focus on?
A) Adjusting activities to fit within resource limits without changing the project timeline
B) Allocating additional resources to critical tasks
C) Delaying non-critical tasks
D) Reducing project costs
Answer: A
What is the goal of a stakeholder engagement plan?
A) To define communication strategies with stakeholders
B) To assign tasks to stakeholders
C) To identify risks associated with stakeholders
D) To finalize the project budget
Answer: A
Which of the following is a limitation of the Waterfall model?
A) Lack of clear structure
B) Inflexibility to changes during the project
C) Emphasis on iterative development
D) High resource requirements
Answer: B
What is the main benefit of prototyping in IT projects?
A) Reducing the project timeline
B) Helping users and stakeholders visualize the end product
C) Improving team velocity
D) Increasing project cost accuracy
Answer: B
What is “rolling wave planning”?
A) Planning detailed tasks for near-term phases and high-level planning for future phases
B) Defining the entire project scope in one session
C) Revisiting project risks at regular intervals
D) Tracking progress against baseline goals
Answer: A
What does a project’s “RACI matrix” define?
A) Risks, Assumptions, Costs, and Issues
B) Roles and responsibilities of stakeholders
C) Deliverable completion timelines
D) Milestone dependencies
Answer: B