NRNP 6552 Advanced Nurse Practice in Reproductive Health Practice Test
Which of the following is the most important aspect for a nurse practitioner to focus on during a 15–30 minute prenatal appointment?
A) Assessing the patient’s family history
B) Educating about the importance of prenatal vitamins
C) Screening for hypertension and gestational diabetes
D) Reviewing the patient’s previous labor experiences
In assessing a patient’s sexual health, which question is essential for understanding their sexual orientation in an unbiased manner?
A) “Are you sexually active?”
B) “What is your sexual preference?”
C) “What gender are you attracted to?”
D) “What would you like to know about sexual health?”
When conducting a postpartum assessment, which of the following should the nurse practitioner prioritize?
A) Discussion of birth control options
B) Screening for postpartum depression
C) Counseling on returning to work
D) Review of infant feeding practices
Which common gynecologic condition is often detected during a routine pap smear?
A) Ovarian cysts
B) Endometriosis
C) Cervical dysplasia
D) Polycystic ovary syndrome
What is the primary goal of prenatal care during the first trimester?
A) To monitor the growth of the fetus
B) To screen for genetic conditions and infections
C) To prepare the patient for labor and delivery
D) To provide emotional support to the mother
Which statement is true regarding the management of gestational diabetes?
A) It always requires insulin therapy
B) Blood sugar levels should be monitored only in the third trimester
C) Lifestyle changes, including diet and exercise, can manage the condition
D) Gestational diabetes typically resolves immediately after delivery
What is the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in perimenopausal women?
A) Ovarian cysts
B) Uterine fibroids
C) Endometrial cancer
D) Polycystic ovary syndrome
Which of the following is a major concern when providing prenatal care for women over the age of 35?
A) Increased risk for spontaneous abortion
B) Higher likelihood of delivering multiples
C) Increased risk for fetal chromosomal abnormalities
D) Higher risk for preterm labor
When should a nurse practitioner screen for intimate partner violence during a prenatal visit?
A) Only if the patient has disclosed previous abuse
B) At every visit, regardless of disclosure
C) Only during the first and third trimesters
D) When the patient expresses specific concerns
Which is an appropriate strategy for supporting a patient’s decision regarding their sexual identity?
A) Asking leading questions to understand their preferences
B) Respecting their stated identity and using preferred pronouns
C) Encouraging them to explore other sexual identities
D) Recommending therapy to “counsel” them on their choices
What is the primary objective of prenatal screenings?
A) To confirm the patient’s estimated due date
B) To detect fetal abnormalities or complications early
C) To ensure the patient receives adequate nutritional counseling
D) To assess the mother’s emotional state
What is the first-line treatment for mild preeclampsia during pregnancy?
A) Antihypertensive medication
B) Magnesium sulfate
C) Immediate delivery of the baby
D) Bed rest and regular blood pressure monitoring
Which of the following is a potential risk associated with using hormonal contraceptives during the postpartum period?
A) Increased risk of postpartum depression
B) Decreased milk supply
C) Increased risk of gestational diabetes
D) Increased risk of gestational hypertension
Which laboratory test is used to screen for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) during a routine gynecological examination?
A) Urinalysis
B) Pap smear
C) Serology for HIV
D) Complete blood count (CBC)
When considering lifestyle counseling for patients in a reproductive health setting, which behavior should the nurse prioritize for promoting healthy pregnancy outcomes?
A) Reducing alcohol consumption
B) Limiting caffeine intake
C) Encouraging regular physical activity
D) Emphasizing the importance of smoking cessation
Which of the following is an important aspect of prenatal education for a first-time pregnant patient?
A) Preparing a birth plan
B) Understanding labor and delivery stages
C) Focus on post-delivery birth control options
D) Identifying family members who will assist with childcare
What is the most important factor when providing counseling to a patient regarding the termination of pregnancy?
A) Educating the patient about the financial aspects of the procedure
B) Assessing the patient’s emotional and mental health needs
C) Providing information on fetal development stages
D) Offering resources for adoption counseling
Which of the following is a contraindication for hormonal contraception in a postpartum patient?
A) History of hypertension
B) History of thrombosis
C) Breastfeeding
D) Age over 35
What is a common postpartum concern that requires careful assessment and follow-up?
A) Hair loss
B) Sleep disturbances
C) Urinary incontinence
D) Weight gain
In assessing a patient with suspected endometriosis, which symptom is most indicative?
A) Painful periods (dysmenorrhea)
B) Heavy menstrual bleeding
C) Intermenstrual spotting
D) Urinary retention
What is the first step in counseling a patient who is at high risk for cervical cancer?
A) Refer for a colposcopy
B) Provide education about HPV vaccination
C) Discuss the option of a hysterectomy
D) Encourage regular pap smears and HPV testing
Which of the following is the best indicator for early identification of fetal distress in a pregnant patient?
A) Maternal fever
B) Decreased fetal movement
C) Persistent morning sickness
D) Increased amniotic fluid
Which of the following is considered a risk factor for postpartum depression?
A) Previous history of depression
B) Advanced maternal age
C) Lack of prenatal care
D) High socioeconomic status
What is the recommended action for managing preterm labor?
A) Administer corticosteroids to enhance fetal lung maturity
B) Initiate bed rest and monitor fetal heart rate
C) Perform a cesarean section immediately
D) Administer magnesium sulfate for fetal neuroprotection
What is an important counseling point for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?
A) The condition cannot be treated and requires ongoing monitoring
B) Lifestyle changes such as weight loss and diet modification can improve symptoms
C) Fertility treatments should be considered immediately
D) Surgical removal of cysts is the primary treatment option
Which of the following is an ethical consideration when discussing sexual identity with a patient?
A) Encouraging them to conform to societal norms
B) Making assumptions about their sexual orientation
C) Providing a safe and non-judgmental space for expression
D) Suggesting counseling to change their sexual orientation
During a routine gynecological exam, which is the most appropriate method for screening for cervical cancer?
A) Pelvic ultrasound
B) Colposcopy
C) Pap smear
D) Endometrial biopsy
Which factor is most important when assessing a patient’s risk for ectopic pregnancy?
A) History of smoking
B) Previous pelvic surgery
C) Age over 40
D) High levels of physical activity
Which of the following is a primary goal of postnatal care?
A) Monitoring for signs of postpartum depression
B) Discussing birth control options
C) Promoting breastfeeding initiation and support
D) Preparing the baby for immunizations
What is an effective strategy for educating patients on the prevention of sexually transmitted infections?
A) Discussing the risks of non-monogamous sexual activity
B) Providing pamphlets on the use of condoms
C) Recommending regular STI testing for sexually active individuals
D) Encouraging vaccination for HPV and hepatitis B
What is the recommended schedule for prenatal visits in a healthy pregnancy?
A) Every two weeks until 28 weeks, then weekly
B) Every four weeks until 28 weeks, then every two weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly
C) Every four weeks until 20 weeks, then weekly until delivery
D) Every two weeks throughout pregnancy
Which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) can be prevented with vaccination?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Chlamydia
C) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D) Trichomoniasis
Which of the following is the most common cause of first-trimester miscarriage?
A) Uterine fibroids
B) Chromosomal abnormalities
C) Maternal stress
D) Cervical incompetence
Which hormone is responsible for maintaining pregnancy in the early stages?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Oxytocin
D) Prolactin
Which condition is most likely to cause chronic pelvic pain in reproductive-aged women?
A) Ovarian cyst
B) Endometriosis
C) Uterine fibroids
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Which of the following is a contraindication for intrauterine device (IUD) placement?
A) Previous cesarean delivery
B) History of pelvic inflammatory disease
C) History of miscarriage
D) Nulliparity
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patient with primary dysmenorrhea?
A) Hormonal contraception
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
C) Acupuncture
D) Laparoscopic surgery
Which of the following factors increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy?
A) Previous C-section
B) Use of hormonal contraception
C) History of tubal surgery
D) High BMI
What is the most effective emergency contraceptive method?
A) Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
B) Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
C) Ulipristal acetate (Ella)
D) Combined oral contraceptive pills
Which test is used to confirm the diagnosis of menopause?
A) Serum estrogen level
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level
C) Progesterone level
D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level
Which dietary supplement is recommended to prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy?
A) Calcium
B) Folic acid
C) Vitamin D
D) Iron
Which of the following conditions is characterized by elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation?
A) Eclampsia
B) Gestational hypertension
C) Preeclampsia
D) Chronic hypertension
A 28-year-old patient presents with frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge and vaginal itching. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Chlamydia
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Bacterial vaginosis
D) Gonorrhea
Which type of contraception is most appropriate for a breastfeeding mother?
A) Combined oral contraceptive pills
B) Copper IUD
C) Vaginal ring
D) Depo-Provera
Which is the most common site of implantation for an ectopic pregnancy?
A) Ovary
B) Fallopian tube
C) Cervix
D) Abdomen
Which of the following is a key symptom of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?
A) Hot flashes
B) Heavy menstrual bleeding
C) Irregular menstrual cycles
D) Increased libido
Which test is recommended for the initial diagnosis of gestational diabetes?
A) Fasting glucose test
B) Hemoglobin A1c
C) 1-hour glucose tolerance test
D) Random blood glucose test
Which condition is a contraindication for estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) in postmenopausal women?
A) Osteoporosis
B) History of breast cancer
C) Menopausal symptoms
D) Vaginal atrophy
Which contraceptive method provides the longest duration of pregnancy prevention?
A) Copper IUD
B) Hormonal IUD
C) Nexplanon implant
D) Depo-Provera injection
What is the most common symptom of bacterial vaginosis?
A) Vaginal dryness
B) Frothy discharge
C) Fishy odor
D) Pain during intercourse
A patient presents with sudden onset of unilateral pelvic pain and a positive pregnancy test. What is the most concerning diagnosis?
A) Ovarian cyst
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Endometriosis
D) Miscarriage
What is the primary benefit of breastfeeding for newborns?
A) Improved sleep patterns
B) Prevention of food allergies
C) Enhanced immune system support
D) Increased birth weight
Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) can cause infertility if left untreated?
A) Genital herpes
B) Syphilis
C) Gonorrhea
D) Trichomoniasis
Which vaccine is recommended during each pregnancy, regardless of prior immunization history?
A) Influenza vaccine
B) Hepatitis B vaccine
C) Tdap vaccine
D) MMR vaccine
Which of the following is the best indicator of ovulation?
A) Breast tenderness
B) Increase in basal body temperature
C) Spotting mid-cycle
D) Mood changes
A postpartum woman presents with fever, chills, and uterine tenderness. Which condition should be suspected?
A) Endometriosis
B) Postpartum hemorrhage
C) Endometritis
D) Mastitis
Which medication is the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
A) Fluconazole
B) Metronidazole
C) Doxycycline
D) Azithromycin
Which of the following is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer?
A) Early menopause
B) HPV infection
C) Long-term use of birth control pills
D) High BMI
Which of the following is a common symptom of menopause?
A) Breast tenderness
B) Night sweats
C) Frequent urinary tract infections
D) Increased menstrual flow
What is the best initial step in the management of a patient with suspected preeclampsia?
A) Immediate delivery
B) Hospitalization for observation
C) Administration of magnesium sulfate
D) Monitoring blood pressure and urine protein levels
Which of the following is the most effective method of preventing perinatal transmission of HIV?
A) Exclusive breastfeeding
B) Administration of antiretroviral therapy (ART) during pregnancy
C) Delivery via cesarean section at 39 weeks
D) Avoidance of prenatal vitamins
Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of a molar pregnancy?
A) Severe nausea and vomiting with abnormally high hCG levels
B) Painless vaginal bleeding in the second trimester
C) Fetal bradycardia with absent fetal movement
D) Uterine rupture with severe abdominal pain
Which of the following findings is most suggestive of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
A) Intermittent spotting with mild cramping
B) Amenorrhea with a positive pregnancy test
C) Sudden onset of severe pelvic pain with shoulder pain
D) Bilateral pelvic pain with dysmenorrhea
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with oligohydramnios?
A) Maternal hypertension
B) Gestational diabetes
C) Rh incompatibility
D) Placenta previa
Which of the following is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
A) Uterine atony
B) Placental abruption
C) Retained products of conception
D) Uterine inversion
What is the most common bacterial cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in pregnant women?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Proteus mirabilis
Which of the following is a risk factor for developing gestational hypertension?
A) Multiparity
B) Advanced maternal age
C) Pre-pregnancy BMI < 18.5
D) History of hypothyroidism
What is the primary purpose of the biophysical profile (BPP) in pregnancy?
A) Detect chromosomal abnormalities
B) Assess fetal well-being and oxygenation
C) Confirm gestational age
D) Measure amniotic fluid volume
Which test is most appropriate for evaluating ovarian reserve in women experiencing infertility?
A) Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH)
B) Beta-hCG
C) Prolactin level
D) CA-125
Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for combined oral contraceptives?
A) Family history of ovarian cancer
B) History of deep vein thrombosis
C) History of seasonal allergies
D) History of pelvic inflammatory disease
Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A) Influenza vaccine
B) Tdap vaccine
C) MMR vaccine
D) Hepatitis B vaccine
Which of the following is a first-line treatment for mild premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?
A) Hormone replacement therapy
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
D) Oral contraceptives
Which of the following fetal heart rate patterns is most concerning for fetal distress?
A) Early decelerations
B) Late decelerations
C) Variable decelerations
D) Accelerations
What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in reproductive-aged women?
A) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
B) Pregnancy
C) Hyperprolactinemia
D) Thyroid dysfunction
Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated gonorrhea?
A) Endometriosis
B) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
C) Vulvodynia
D) Ovarian torsion
Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to the use of a copper intrauterine device (IUD)?
A) Nulliparity
B) History of menorrhagia
C) Past cesarean section
D) History of migraine headaches
Which medication is most appropriate for the treatment of syphilis in pregnancy?
A) Doxycycline
B) Azithromycin
C) Penicillin G
D) Metronidazole
Which is the best diagnostic test for confirming rupture of membranes in pregnancy?
A) Nitrazine test
B) Amniotic fluid index
C) Cervical dilation assessment
D) Serum progesterone level
Which of the following symptoms is most suggestive of placental abruption?
A) Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
B) Sudden-onset painful vaginal bleeding with rigid uterus
C) Gradual increase in blood pressure
D) Abnormal fetal heart tones with normal maternal vitals
Which of the following is a risk factor for postpartum depression?
A) Multiparity
B) History of depression
C) High socioeconomic status
D) High BMI
Which of the following contraceptive methods has the highest failure rate with typical use?
A) Copper IUD
B) Combined oral contraceptives
C) Condoms
D) Withdrawal method
Which hormone is primarily responsible for milk production postpartum?
A) Oxytocin
B) Progesterone
C) Estrogen
D) Prolactin
Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in reproductive-aged women?
A) Uterine fibroids
B) Endometrial cancer
C) Adenomyosis
D) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
Which condition is most likely to present with pruritus, excoriations, and white, atrophic vaginal epithelium in a postmenopausal woman?
A) Lichen sclerosus
B) Bacterial vaginosis
C) Candidiasis
D) Trichomoniasis
What is the primary treatment for mastitis in a breastfeeding mother?
A) Stop breastfeeding
B) Antibiotics and continued breastfeeding
C) Ice packs and pain medication
D) Drainage of the affected duct
Which of the following is a risk factor for gestational diabetes mellitus?
A) Advanced maternal age
B) Pre-pregnancy underweight status
C) Multiparity
D) Low carbohydrate diet
Which screening test is recommended for all pregnant women at 35–37 weeks of gestation?
A) Group B streptococcus (GBS) screening
B) Gonorrhea and chlamydia screening
C) Thyroid function test
D) Cervical cancer screening
Which test is used to evaluate fetal lung maturity?
A) Amniotic fluid index
B) Lecithin-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
C) Biophysical profile
D) Non-stress test
Which of the following findings is most suggestive of a uterine rupture during labor?
A) Gradual onset of pain with irregular contractions
B) Sudden loss of fetal station with severe abdominal pain
C) Bradycardia in the mother with no fetal distress
D) Increasing cervical dilation with intact membranes
Which of the following is the most common cause of first-trimester spontaneous abortion?
A) Maternal drug use
B) Chromosomal abnormalities
C) Cervical insufficiency
D) Uterine fibroids
Which of the following fetal presentations is considered most favorable for vaginal delivery?
A) Breech presentation
B) Occiput anterior presentation
C) Occiput posterior presentation
D) Transverse lie
A patient presents with postpartum depression. Which of the following is the first-line pharmacologic treatment?
A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Tricyclic antidepressants
D) Beta-blockers
Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of methylergonovine (Methergine) for postpartum hemorrhage?
A) Hypertension
B) Anemia
C) Type 1 diabetes
D) Multiparity
What is the primary benefit of delayed cord clamping in newborns?
A) Increased risk of jaundice
B) Increased neonatal iron stores
C) Decreased risk of neonatal polycythemia
D) Faster transition to spontaneous breathing
Which of the following is a characteristic of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?
A) Hyperinsulinemia and ovulatory dysfunction
B) Hyperthyroidism and obesity
C) Increased risk of osteoporosis
D) Low androgen levels
Which test is most appropriate to confirm a diagnosis of menopause?
A) Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B) Serum progesterone
C) Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH)
D) Serum prolactin
Which contraceptive method is most effective for emergency contraception when taken within five days of unprotected intercourse?
A) Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
B) Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
C) Combination oral contraceptives
D) Progesterone-only pill
Which of the following is a symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum?
A) Severe nausea and vomiting with weight loss
B) Gestational hypertension
C) Polyhydramnios
D) Maternal bradycardia
Which of the following is the best test to confirm the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis?
A) Wet mount with clue cells
B) PCR test
C) Gram stain
D) Blood culture
Which of the following statements about gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is true?
A) It is always treated with insulin
B) It is diagnosed with an oral glucose tolerance test
C) It does not increase the risk of preeclampsia
D) It is a permanent condition after pregnancy
Which of the following is a primary treatment for preeclampsia with severe features?
A) Magnesium sulfate and antihypertensive therapy
B) Low-dose aspirin and bed rest
C) Heparin therapy
D) Weekly non-stress tests until delivery
Which of the following is a first-line antibiotic for the treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy?
A) Nitrofurantoin
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Doxycycline
D) Azithromycin
What is the most common cause of anovulation in reproductive-aged women?
A) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Prolactinoma
D) Turner syndrome
Which of the following findings on a Pap smear is most concerning for cervical cancer?
A) Atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US)
B) High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)
C) Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL)
D) Reactive cellular changes
Which vaccine is recommended for pregnant women in the third trimester to protect newborns against pertussis?
A) Tdap
B) MMR
C) Varicella
D) HPV
What is the most common site of metastasis for breast cancer?
A) Lungs
B) Bone
C) Brain
D) Liver
Which of the following factors is most associated with increased risk of endometrial cancer?
A) Obesity and unopposed estrogen exposure
B) Use of combined oral contraceptives
C) BRCA1 gene mutation
D) HPV infection
Which of the following is a first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea?
A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
D) Acetaminophen
Which sexually transmitted infection is most strongly associated with cervical cancer?
A) Chlamydia
B) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
C) Gonorrhea
D) Trichomoniasis
Which of the following is the most effective method for reducing vertical transmission of hepatitis B from mother to infant?
A) Administering hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin at birth
B) Scheduling cesarean section delivery
C) Avoiding breastfeeding
D) Treating with antiviral therapy during pregnancy
Which of the following is a hallmark feature of HELLP syndrome?
A) Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets
B) Hypoglycemia, electrolyte imbalance, and proteinuria
C) Hyperbilirubinemia, thrombocytosis, and anemia
D) Hypotension, bradycardia, and decreased urine output
Which test is used to confirm an ectopic pregnancy?
A) Serum beta-hCG and transvaginal ultrasound
B) Pelvic MRI
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Serum progesterone level
Which hormone is responsible for the maintenance of pregnancy in the first trimester?
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Oxytocin
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in perimenopausal women?
A) Endometrial hyperplasia
B) Uterine fibroids
C) Cervical polyps
D) Ovarian cysts
Which is the best first-line treatment for chlamydia infection in pregnancy?
A) Azithromycin
B) Doxycycline
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Metronidazole
Which hormone is primarily responsible for preparing the endometrium for implantation?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with oligohydramnios?
A) Fetal neural tube defects
B) Fetal renal agenesis
C) Maternal diabetes
D) Polycythemia
A patient in her second trimester reports a sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM)
B) Placenta previa
C) Urinary tract infection
D) Threatened miscarriage
Which of the following is the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension?
A) Labetalol
B) Methyldopa
C) Nifedipine
D) All of the above
Which prenatal screening test is performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation to assess the risk of neural tube defects?
A) Nuchal translucency ultrasound
B) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
C) Amniocentesis
D) Chorionic villus sampling
Which of the following sexually transmitted infections must be reported to public health authorities?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) All of the above
Which of the following is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
A) Uterine atony
B) Retained placental fragments
C) Uterine rupture
D) Placenta previa
Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A) Influenza (inactivated)
B) Tdap
C) MMR
D) Hepatitis B
Which test is most appropriate to confirm a diagnosis of ovarian cancer?
A) CA-125 blood test and transvaginal ultrasound
B) Endometrial biopsy
C) MRI of the pelvis
D) Pap smear
Which condition is characterized by excess amniotic fluid during pregnancy?
A) Oligohydramnios
B) Polyhydramnios
C) Placenta accreta
D) Pre-eclampsia
Which is a key diagnostic feature of bacterial vaginosis?
A) Fishy odor and clue cells on microscopy
B) Yellow-green discharge and motile trichomonads
C) Thick, white, curd-like discharge
D) Painful vesicles on the vulva
Which contraceptive method is safest for a breastfeeding mother immediately postpartum?
A) Progestin-only pills
B) Combination oral contraceptives
C) Copper IUD
D) Both A and C
Which of the following is the primary risk factor for placental abruption?
A) Preeclampsia
B) Gestational diabetes
C) Prior cesarean delivery
D) High BMI
Which type of abortion is characterized by fetal death with retained products of conception?
A) Inevitable abortion
B) Missed abortion
C) Threatened abortion
D) Incomplete abortion
Which of the following fetal heart rate patterns is most concerning for fetal distress?
A) Early decelerations
B) Variable decelerations
C) Late decelerations
D) Accelerations
Which is the best management for an Rh-negative mother at 28 weeks gestation?
A) Administer RhoGAM
B) Order a direct Coombs test
C) Perform an amniocentesis
D) Begin steroid therapy
Which medication is used to manage preterm labor?
A) Terbutaline
B) Magnesium sulfate
C) Nifedipine
D) All of the above
Which condition is associated with increased risk of endometrial cancer?
A) Obesity and unopposed estrogen
B) Oral contraceptive use
C) Multiparity
D) Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease
Which is the most common location for an ectopic pregnancy?
A) Cervix
B) Ovary
C) Fallopian tube
D) Peritoneal cavity
Which hormone is responsible for stimulating milk production postpartum?
A) Oxytocin
B) Estrogen
C) Prolactin
D) Progesterone
Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with mastitis?
A) Discontinue breastfeeding
B) Apply cold compresses
C) Continue breastfeeding and administer antibiotics
D) Aspirate the infected area
Which is the first-line treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis?
A) Metronidazole
B) Fluconazole
C) Clindamycin
D) Doxycycline
Which of the following is a contraindication to estrogen-containing contraceptives?
A) Smoking in a 22-year-old patient
B) History of deep vein thrombosis
C) History of depression
D) Nulliparity
Which condition is most strongly associated with infertility in women?
A) Endometriosis
B) Uterine fibroids
C) Polycystic ovary syndrome
D) Both A and C
What is the recommended initial test for a woman presenting with postmenopausal bleeding?
A) Pap smear
B) Transvaginal ultrasound
C) Hysteroscopy
D) Endometrial biopsy
Which of the following conditions is an absolute contraindication to hormonal contraception?
A) History of migraines with aura
B) BMI over 30
C) Family history of breast cancer
D) Age over 35
Which of the following is a potential risk of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
A) Increased risk of breast cancer
B) Increased risk of osteoporosis
C) Increased risk of weight gain
D) Increased risk of endometriosis
Which test is the gold standard for diagnosing endometriosis?
A) Transvaginal ultrasound
B) MRI of the pelvis
C) Laparoscopy
D) Hysterosalpingography
Which of the following is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
A) Pregnancy
B) Turner syndrome
C) Prolactinoma
D) Thyroid dysfunction
Which of the following is the most effective method of sterilization for women?
A) Bilateral tubal ligation
B) Copper IUD
C) Progestin implant
D) Hysterectomy
Which is the most common cause of first-trimester miscarriage?
A) Uterine abnormalities
B) Chromosomal abnormalities
C) Maternal infections
D) Endocrine disorders
A 35-year-old pregnant patient presents with pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP). What is the first-line treatment?
A) Systemic corticosteroids
B) Topical corticosteroids and antihistamines
C) Oral antibiotics
D) Antifungal therapy
Which is a primary risk factor for developing preeclampsia?
A) Maternal age >35
B) Multiple gestation
C) Chronic hypertension
D) All of the above
What is the most appropriate test to evaluate a woman presenting with postcoital bleeding?
A) Pap smear
B) Colposcopy
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) CA-125 test
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenic effects?
A) Lisinopril
B) Metformin
C) Levothyroxine
D) Insulin
Which condition is characterized by placental attachment that deeply invades the myometrium?
A) Placenta previa
B) Placenta accreta
C) Placental abruption
D) Vasa previa
Which type of contraception is most effective at preventing sexually transmitted infections?
A) Copper IUD
B) Oral contraceptive pills
C) Male condoms
D) Progestin implant
Which of the following fetal heart rate patterns indicates umbilical cord compression?
A) Early decelerations
B) Variable decelerations
C) Late decelerations
D) Sinusoidal pattern
What is the preferred imaging modality for assessing an adnexal mass in pregnancy?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) X-ray
A pregnant patient is diagnosed with asymptomatic bacteriuria. What is the best course of treatment?
A) No treatment is necessary
B) Short-course antibiotics such as nitrofurantoin
C) Increase fluid intake only
D) Ciprofloxacin
Which genetic screening test is performed during the first trimester to assess for Down syndrome?
A) Quad screen
B) Nuchal translucency ultrasound and maternal serum testing
C) Amniocentesis
D) Fetal echocardiography
Which is the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in adolescents?
A) Polycystic ovary syndrome
B) Coagulopathy disorders
C) Anovulation
D) Endometrial hyperplasia
Which of the following is a contraindication to IUD placement?
A) Nulliparity
B) History of ectopic pregnancy
C) Current pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Age over 40
Which hormone is responsible for triggering ovulation?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Which pregnancy complication is most associated with polyhydramnios?
A) Neural tube defects
B) Preeclampsia
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Intrauterine growth restriction
What is the best management strategy for a woman with recurrent urinary tract infections after menopause?
A) Continuous antibiotic prophylaxis
B) Vaginal estrogen therapy
C) Increased fluid intake
D) Avoiding sexual intercourse
Which of the following is a known risk factor for gestational diabetes?
A) BMI < 25
B) History of previous large-for-gestational-age baby
C) Underweight mother
D) Nulliparity
Which condition is the leading cause of maternal mortality in the postpartum period?
A) Postpartum hemorrhage
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Eclampsia
D) Infection
What is the preferred initial treatment for a hemodynamically stable patient with an ectopic pregnancy?
A) Methotrexate
B) Salpingectomy
C) Laparotomy
D) Expectant management
Which of the following is an indication for cesarean delivery?
A) Breech presentation at term
B) Previous cesarean with classical incision
C) Placenta previa
D) All of the above
Which test is used to confirm rupture of membranes in pregnancy?
A) Non-stress test
B) Fern test
C) Bishop score
D) Amniocentesis
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Doxycycline
C) Cephalexin
D) Azithromycin
Which condition is a contraindication to vaginal delivery?
A) Previous shoulder dystocia
B) Previous cesarean with a low transverse incision
C) Placenta previa
D) Gestational diabetes
Which of the following increases a woman’s risk for developing cervical cancer?
A) Long-term oral contraceptive use
B) HPV infection
C) Multiparity
D) Obesity
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to combined oral contraceptives?
A) Age over 40
B) Hypertension controlled with medication
C) History of deep vein thrombosis
D) Obesity
Which intervention is appropriate for a newborn with meconium-stained amniotic fluid at birth?
A) Immediate deep suctioning
B) Routine resuscitation as indicated
C) Immediate intubation
D) Delayed cord clamping
Which is the most common cause of primary dysmenorrhea?
A) Endometriosis
B) Uterine fibroids
C) Increased prostaglandin production
D) Ovarian cysts
Which test should be ordered first in a woman presenting with secondary amenorrhea?
A) FSH and LH levels
B) Prolactin level
C) Pregnancy test
D) MRI of the brain
What is the most effective treatment for vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause?
A) Herbal supplements
B) Estrogen therapy
C) SSRI medications
D) Calcium supplementation
Which condition is characterized by an overgrowth of placental tissue and absence of an embryo?
A) Molar pregnancy
B) Placenta accreta
C) Abruptio placentae
D) Ovarian torsion
Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum during early pregnancy?
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Which of the following is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
A) Uterine atony
B) Retained placental fragments
C) Cervical laceration
D) Coagulopathy
Which medication is the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
A) Clindamycin
B) Fluconazole
C) Azithromycin
D) Acyclovir
What is the recommended amount of folic acid supplementation for women planning pregnancy?
A) 200 mcg
B) 400 mcg
C) 800 mcg
D) 1 mg
Which of the following sexually transmitted infections must be reported to public health authorities?
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Human papillomavirus
C) Chlamydia
D) Bacterial vaginosis
A pregnant patient at 38 weeks reports decreased fetal movement. What is the most appropriate next step?
A) Perform a non-stress test
B) Order a contraction stress test
C) Advise the patient to monitor movement for 24 hours
D) Perform an immediate cesarean section
Which of the following is a contraindication to hormonal contraception?
A) Age over 30
B) History of migraine without aura
C) Uncontrolled hypertension
D) Nulliparity
A woman presents with severe, unilateral pelvic pain and a history of polycystic ovary syndrome. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Endometriosis
B) Ovarian torsion
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Ectopic pregnancy
Which fetal position is most favorable for vaginal delivery?
A) Occiput posterior
B) Occiput transverse
C) Occiput anterior
D) Breech
Which test is used to confirm a suspected rupture of membranes?
A) Amniocentesis
B) Fern test
C) Biophysical profile
D) Non-stress test
What is the primary action of emergency contraception (Plan B)?
A) Prevents fertilization
B) Induces menstruation
C) Disrupts implantation
D) Stops sperm motility
Which of the following findings is suggestive of gestational diabetes?
A) Polyhydramnios
B) Intrauterine growth restriction
C) Oligohydramnios
D) Small for gestational age fetus
Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC)?
A) Prior low transverse cesarean incision
B) Prior classical cesarean incision
C) Previous successful VBAC
D) Age under 35
Which fetal heart rate pattern is associated with uteroplacental insufficiency?
A) Early decelerations
B) Variable decelerations
C) Late decelerations
D) Sinusoidal pattern
Which symptom is most characteristic of menopause?
A) Dysmenorrhea
B) Amenorrhea for 12 consecutive months
C) Increased menstrual flow
D) Hypothyroidism
Which of the following is the most effective form of contraception?
A) Male condoms
B) Combined oral contraceptive pills
C) Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
D) Fertility awareness method
Which of the following is a risk factor for developing preterm labor?
A) Smoking
B) Maternal obesity
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Low caffeine intake
Which condition requires prophylactic antibiotics during labor?
A) Group B streptococcus (GBS) positive status
B) Prior history of gestational diabetes
C) Advanced maternal age
D) Prior cesarean section
Which of the following is a contraindication to breastfeeding?
A) Maternal history of hypertension
B) HIV-positive status in a developed country
C) Maternal hypothyroidism
D) C-section delivery
Which hormone surges just before ovulation?
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Which condition is the leading cause of maternal mortality worldwide?
A) Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy
B) Postpartum hemorrhage
C) Sepsis
D) Ectopic pregnancy
Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A) Influenza
B) Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap)
C) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)
D) Hepatitis B
What is the preferred treatment for mild preeclampsia at 37 weeks gestation?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Immediate delivery
C) Antihypertensive medication only
D) Bed rest
What is the most appropriate test for a woman with a suspected ovarian cyst?
A) MRI
B) Transvaginal ultrasound
C) Hysteroscopy
D) CT scan
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with gestational hypertension?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Proteinuria
C) Oligohydramnios
D) Preterm labor
Which contraceptive method is considered permanent?
A) Copper IUD
B) Vasectomy
C) Birth control patch
D) Implantable rod
Which of the following increases the risk of endometrial cancer?
A) Early menopause
B) Multiparity
C) Unopposed estrogen therapy
D) Smoking
Which is a major risk factor for ovarian cancer?
A) Early menopause
B) Long-term oral contraceptive use
C) BRCA1/BRCA2 genetic mutation
D) Multiparity
Which of the following is an early sign of pregnancy?
A) Weight loss
B) Chloasma
C) Chadwick’s sign
D) Amenorrhea after 20 weeks
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with neural tube defects?
A) Vitamin D
B) Folic acid
C) Vitamin B12
D) Iron
Which of the following is the best initial test for confirming pregnancy?
A) Serum hCG
B) Transabdominal ultrasound
C) Serum progesterone
D) Fetal Doppler
Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer?
A) Chlamydia
B) Gonorrhea
C) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D) Syphilis
A patient with irregular menstrual cycles and signs of hyperandrogenism likely has which condition?
A) Endometriosis
B) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
C) Primary ovarian insufficiency
D) Uterine fibroids
Which of the following is the most effective emergency contraception method?
A) Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
B) Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
C) Ulipristal acetate (Ella)
D) Combined oral contraceptive pills
Which of the following symptoms is most concerning for ectopic pregnancy?
A) Mild cramping and nausea
B) Unilateral pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding
C) Increased urinary frequency
D) Bilateral breast tenderness
Which condition is a contraindication to the use of combined oral contraceptives?
A) Age over 40
B) Migraine with aura
C) History of dysmenorrhea
D) Obesity
What is the preferred treatment for a pregnant patient diagnosed with syphilis?
A) Azithromycin
B) Doxycycline
C) Benzathine penicillin G
D) Metronidazole
Which of the following is the most common cause of first-trimester pregnancy loss?
A) Cervical insufficiency
B) Chromosomal abnormalities
C) Maternal infection
D) Uterine fibroids
Which vaccine is recommended for all pregnant women in the third trimester?
A) Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
B) Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap)
C) Varicella
D) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
What is the most common site for an ectopic pregnancy?
A) Ovary
B) Cervix
C) Fallopian tube
D) Abdominal cavity
Which fetal heart rate pattern is most concerning for fetal hypoxia?
A) Early decelerations
B) Variable decelerations
C) Late decelerations
D) Moderate variability
Which is the primary mechanism of action of progestin-only contraceptives?
A) Inhibition of ovulation
B) Thinning of the endometrial lining
C) Suppression of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) Increased basal body temperature
Which of the following is a major risk factor for placenta previa?
A) Nulliparity
B) Advanced maternal age
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Previous vaginal delivery
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to vaginal delivery?
A) Previous cesarean section
B) Breech presentation
C) Complete placenta previa
D) Gestational diabetes
Which hormone is primarily responsible for milk production postpartum?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Prolactin
D) Oxytocin
Which of the following is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
A) Hyperprolactinemia
B) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
C) Pregnancy
D) Thyroid dysfunction
Which test is used to confirm rupture of membranes in labor?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Fern test
C) Amniotic fluid index
D) Ultrasound
Which antihypertensive medication is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A) Labetalol
B) Methyldopa
C) ACE inhibitors
D) Nifedipine
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for endometriosis?
A) Pelvic ultrasound
B) MRI
C) Laparoscopy
D) Endometrial biopsy
What is the first-line treatment for menopause-related vasomotor symptoms in a healthy woman with an intact uterus?
A) Estrogen therapy alone
B) Combined estrogen-progestin therapy
C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
D) Gabapentin
What is the most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Human papillomavirus
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Trichomoniasis
Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy?
A) Oxytocin
B) Estrogen
C) Progesterone
D) Prolactin
Which of the following is a risk factor for gestational diabetes?
A) Low maternal age
B) Underweight status
C) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
D) Multiparity
Which postpartum condition is most commonly associated with breastfeeding difficulties?
A) Endometritis
B) Mastitis
C) Uterine atony
D) Ovarian cysts
Which of the following is an early sign of preeclampsia?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Proteinuria
C) Leukocytosis
D) Bradycardia
Which medication is used to induce ovulation in patients with infertility due to anovulation?
A) Letrozole
B) Metformin
C) Leuprolide
D) Spironolactone
Which of the following is an indication for cesarean delivery?
A) Well-controlled gestational diabetes
B) Mild preeclampsia
C) Placental abruption
D) Nulliparity
Which of the following is a contraindication to estrogen hormone therapy?
A) Age under 50
B) History of venous thromboembolism
C) History of dysmenorrhea
D) Uterine fibroids
Which of the following is the most common symptom of uterine fibroids?
A) Dysmenorrhea
B) Pelvic pain
C) Heavy menstrual bleeding
D) Infertility
Which of the following is a risk factor for postpartum depression?
A) History of gestational hypertension
B) History of depression
C) High socioeconomic status
D) Multiparity
Which of the following is the best initial management for a hemodynamically stable patient with an incomplete abortion?
A) Expectant management
B) Methotrexate
C) Dilation and curettage
D) Hysterectomy
Which of the following fetal heart rate patterns requires immediate intervention?
A) Early decelerations
B) Moderate variability
C) Late decelerations
D) Accelerations
A patient with heavy, irregular menstrual bleeding and an enlarged, irregularly shaped uterus likely has which condition?
A) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
B) Endometriosis
C) Uterine fibroids
D) Ovarian cysts
Which of the following is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
A) Uterine atony
B) Placenta previa
C) Retained placenta
D) Coagulopathy
Which infection is associated with increased risk of preterm labor?
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cystitis in a pregnant patient?
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Nitrofurantoin
C) Doxycycline
D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with anovulatory infertility?
A) Endometriosis
B) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
C) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
D) Uterine fibroids
Which of the following contraceptive methods is most effective at preventing pregnancy?
A) Condoms
B) Combined oral contraceptive pills
C) Intrauterine device (IUD)
D) Withdrawal method
Which vitamin is most important to supplement before and during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects?
A) Vitamin B12
B) Vitamin D
C) Folate (Folic acid)
D) Iron
Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of a copper intrauterine device (IUD)?
A) Nulliparity
B) History of ectopic pregnancy
C) Current pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
D) Irregular menstrual cycles
Which pregnancy complication is characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and end-organ dysfunction?
A) Gestational hypertension
B) Preeclampsia
C) Eclampsia
D) HELLP syndrome
Which of the following is a normal physiologic change during pregnancy?
A) Increased cardiac output
B) Decreased blood volume
C) Increased hemoglobin levels
D) Decreased glomerular filtration rate
What is the most common cause of galactorrhea in a non-pregnant, non-lactating woman?
A) Pituitary adenoma
B) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Ovarian cyst
Which of the following is a major risk factor for ovarian cancer?
A) Multiparity
B) Early menopause
C) Family history of BRCA mutations
D) Use of oral contraceptives
Which of the following is a recommended treatment for gestational diabetes?
A) Metformin as first-line therapy
B) Dietary modifications and insulin if needed
C) Oral contraceptives to regulate hormones
D) High-protein diet and weight loss
Which is the most common cause of postpartum depression?
A) Hormonal fluctuations
B) Poor diet
C) Infection
D) Excessive physical activity
Which screening test is recommended for all pregnant women at 24-28 weeks gestation?
A) Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
B) Glucose tolerance test
C) Syphilis serology
D) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Which condition is a contraindication for vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)?
A) History of preeclampsia
B) Previous classical cesarean incision
C) Prior vaginal delivery
D) History of gestational diabetes
Which is a characteristic sign of placenta abruption?
A) Painless vaginal bleeding
B) Rigid, tender uterus with pain
C) Increased fetal movement
D) Gradual onset of contractions
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal abnormalities?
A) Penicillin
B) Clindamycin
C) Tetracycline
D) Cephalexin
What is the primary treatment for severe preeclampsia?
A) Bed rest
B) Antihypertensive medication only
C) Magnesium sulfate and delivery
D) Weekly monitoring until term
Which of the following is an effective non-hormonal treatment for menopause symptoms?
A) Estrogen therapy
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
C) Oral contraceptive pills
D) Progesterone therapy
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dysmenorrhea?
A) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
B) Endometriosis
C) Ovarian cyst
D) Fibroadenoma
Which intervention is recommended to reduce perineal trauma during childbirth?
A) Routine episiotomy
B) Perineal massage
C) Lithotomy position
D) Use of forceps
What is the most common cause of third-trimester bleeding?
A) Placental abruption
B) Uterine rupture
C) Placenta previa
D) Cervical insufficiency
Which condition requires immediate treatment with Rh immunoglobulin (Rhogam)?
A) Rh-positive mother with an Rh-negative baby
B) Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive baby
C) Rh-negative mother with an Rh-negative baby
D) ABO incompatibility
Which of the following is a common risk factor for gestational trophoblastic disease?
A) Multiparity
B) Advanced maternal age
C) Previous molar pregnancy
D) Previous cesarean section
Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum in early pregnancy?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Which of the following is a potential complication of polyhydramnios?
A) Oligohydramnios
B) Umbilical cord prolapse
C) Small for gestational age (SGA) baby
D) Hypoglycemia
Which of the following is the most effective emergency contraceptive method?
A) Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
B) Ulipristal acetate (Ella)
C) Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
D) High-dose combined oral contraceptive pills
Which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is most commonly associated with cervical cancer?
A) Chlamydia
B) Gonorrhea
C) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D) Trichomoniasis
What is the recommended first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
A) Clindamycin
B) Doxycycline
C) Fluconazole
D) Valacyclovir
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in pregnant patients with hypertension?
A) Labetalol
B) Methyldopa
C) ACE inhibitors
D) Nifedipine
Which fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern suggests umbilical cord compression?
A) Early decelerations
B) Late decelerations
C) Variable decelerations
D) Sinusoidal pattern
Which contraceptive method is most appropriate for a breastfeeding mother who desires contraception?
A) Combined oral contraceptive pills
B) Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
C) Vaginal contraceptive ring
D) Transdermal contraceptive patch
Which of the following is a contraindication for methotrexate treatment in ectopic pregnancy?
A) Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
B) Hemodynamically unstable patient
C) β-hCG level < 5000 mIU/mL
D) No fetal cardiac activity detected
Which of the following is the most common cause of first-trimester pregnancy loss?
A) Uterine abnormalities
B) Chromosomal abnormalities
C) Maternal infections
D) Hormonal imbalances
Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy during the first trimester?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Oxytocin
D) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Which of the following is a major risk factor for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?
A) Advanced maternal age
B) First pregnancy
C) Underweight BMI
D) History of asthma
Which of the following conditions is most associated with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM)?
A) Polyhydramnios
B) Maternal obesity
C) Bacterial vaginosis
D) Hyperthyroidism
Which of the following is a contraindication to breastfeeding?
A) Maternal use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
B) Maternal HIV infection in the U.S.
C) Maternal mastitis
D) Maternal history of gestational diabetes
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for endometriosis?
A) Pelvic ultrasound
B) MRI
C) Laparoscopy with biopsy
D) CA-125 blood test
Which of the following is a serious complication of untreated gonorrhea in women?
A) Endometriosis
B) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
D) Ovarian cysts
Which of the following symptoms is most consistent with menopause?
A) Increased menstrual frequency
B) Increased estrogen levels
C) Hot flashes and night sweats
D) Increased libido
Which is the best initial imaging study for an adnexal mass in a premenopausal woman?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) X-ray
Which medication is first-line treatment for postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony?
A) Oxytocin
B) Misoprostol
C) Methylergonovine
D) Tranexamic acid
Which of the following is a recommended screening test for all pregnant women at the first prenatal visit?
A) Thyroid function test
B) Hepatitis C screening
C) Syphilis screening
D) CA-125
What is the most common cause of infertility in women?
A) Endometriosis
B) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
C) Uterine fibroids
D) Hypothyroidism
Which condition requires antibiotic prophylaxis during labor to prevent neonatal infection?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Group B Streptococcus (GBS) colonization
C) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D) Syphilis
Which fetal presentation is associated with the highest risk of umbilical cord prolapse?
A) Cephalic
B) Breech
C) Occiput anterior
D) Occiput posterior
Which of the following is an early sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity in a patient with preeclampsia?
A) Hypertension
B) Hyperreflexia
C) Loss of deep tendon reflexes
D) Increased urinary output
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for hormonal contraception?
A) History of migraines with aura
B) Age over 30 years
C) History of urinary tract infections
D) Parity of more than two children
Which of the following is a normal change in pregnancy?
A) Decreased tidal volume
B) Increased cardiac output
C) Decreased renal blood flow
D) Increased systemic vascular resistance
Which is the most effective method to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV during pregnancy?
A) Cesarean delivery only
B) Antiretroviral therapy (ART) throughout pregnancy
C) Avoiding breastfeeding only
D) Use of antibiotics
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause postpartum endometritis?
A) Vaginal delivery
B) Cesarean section
C) Home birth
D) Breastfeeding
Which of the following findings would be most concerning in a postpartum patient with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Swelling of one leg
B) Positive Homan’s sign
C) Sudden onset of shortness of breath
D) Localized redness in the calf
Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A) Tdap
B) Influenza (inactivated)
C) MMR
D) Hepatitis B