SC-100: Microsoft Cybersecurity Architect Exam Practice Test
The SC-100: Microsoft Cybersecurity Architect certification exam is designed for professionals aiming to validate their expertise in designing and implementing comprehensive cybersecurity strategies using Microsoft solutions. This certification is essential for cybersecurity architects who develop security architecture, govern risk management, and lead compliance efforts across cloud and hybrid environments.
What Is the SC-100 Certification Exam?
This exam evaluates your ability to design a Zero Trust strategy, implement security operations, and establish governance frameworks that safeguard organizational assets. It covers advanced concepts such as identity and access management, threat protection, information protection, and security operations in Microsoft Azure and Microsoft 365 environments. Passing this exam proves you can architect security solutions that align with industry best practices and compliance standards.
What Will You Learn?
By preparing with our practice tests, you’ll gain deep insights into critical topics including:
Designing a Zero Trust security model and conditional access policies
Implementing identity and access management with Azure Active Directory
Planning security operations with Microsoft Defender tools and Azure Sentinel
Protecting data and managing information governance
Managing threat protection for hybrid cloud environments
Architecting compliance and risk management frameworks
Our practice questions simulate the real exam environment, helping you strengthen your knowledge and improve your confidence.
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Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which principle best describes the Zero Trust security model?
A) Trust but verify
B) Verify once and trust always
C) Never trust, always verify
D) Trust internal users implicitly
Answer: C) Never trust, always verify
Explanation: Zero Trust means never automatically trusting any user or device, even if inside the network, and always verifying their identity and security posture before granting access.
2. What is the primary purpose of Microsoft Defender for Identity in a cybersecurity architecture?
A) To protect cloud workloads
B) To monitor and detect identity-based attacks on Active Directory
C) To manage device compliance policies
D) To secure email communications
Answer: B) To monitor and detect identity-based attacks on Active Directory
Explanation: Defender for Identity focuses on detecting suspicious activities and compromised credentials related to Active Directory environments.
3. Which Microsoft Azure service is used to centrally manage identity and access policies across on-premises and cloud resources?
A) Azure Security Center
B) Azure Sentinel
C) Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
D) Azure Firewall
Answer: C) Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
Explanation: Azure AD provides identity and access management for users and applications both on-premises and in the cloud.
4. In a cybersecurity architecture, what is the role of Conditional Access policies?
A) To encrypt data at rest
B) To block network traffic from suspicious IP addresses
C) To enforce access controls based on user, device, location, and risk signals
D) To configure firewall rules
Answer: C) To enforce access controls based on user, device, location, and risk signals
Explanation: Conditional Access policies evaluate risk factors and conditions to grant or block access dynamically.
5. Which Microsoft service provides Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) capabilities?
A) Azure Security Center
B) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
C) Azure Sentinel
D) Microsoft Information Protection
Answer: C) Azure Sentinel
Explanation: Azure Sentinel is Microsoft’s cloud-native SIEM solution for collecting, analyzing, and responding to security events.
6. What is the most secure way to manage privileged accounts in Microsoft cybersecurity architecture?
A) Using static passwords shared among administrators
B) Implementing Just-In-Time (JIT) access with Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
C) Storing credentials in a shared document
D) Using personal user accounts for administrative tasks
Answer: B) Implementing Just-In-Time (JIT) access with Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
Explanation: JIT access with PIM reduces risk by granting temporary, time-limited privileged access.
7. What is the primary purpose of Microsoft Information Protection (MIP)?
A) To detect and respond to threats
B) To classify, label, and protect sensitive data
C) To enforce firewall rules
D) To monitor network traffic
Answer: B) To classify, label, and protect sensitive data
Explanation: MIP helps organizations protect data by classifying and labeling it according to sensitivity.
8. Which Azure service allows you to create custom threat detection rules and alerts across hybrid environments?
A) Azure Sentinel
B) Azure Security Center
C) Azure Firewall
D) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
Answer: A) Azure Sentinel
Explanation: Azure Sentinel enables custom analytics and threat detection for hybrid environments.
9. What security principle is enforced by segmenting a network into smaller zones?
A) Defense in Depth
B) Least Privilege
C) Network Segmentation
D) Zero Trust
Answer: C) Network Segmentation
Explanation: Network segmentation isolates different parts of the network to limit the spread of threats.
10. What role does Azure Key Vault play in a Microsoft cybersecurity architecture?
A) Protecting virtual machines
B) Managing encryption keys and secrets securely
C) Configuring firewall policies
D) Monitoring user behavior
Answer: B) Managing encryption keys and secrets securely
Explanation: Azure Key Vault securely stores and controls access to keys, secrets, and certificates.
11. What is a primary benefit of implementing Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)?
A) Reduces user login times
B) Eliminates the need for passwords
C) Adds an additional layer of security by requiring more than one form of verification
D) Simplifies user account management
Answer: C) Adds an additional layer of security by requiring more than one form of verification
Explanation: MFA improves security by requiring users to provide multiple proofs of identity.
12. Which service would you use to monitor endpoint security on Windows devices in Microsoft cybersecurity architecture?
A) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
B) Azure AD Identity Protection
C) Azure Firewall
D) Microsoft Defender for Identity
Answer: A) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
Explanation: Defender for Endpoint provides advanced endpoint detection and response on Windows devices.
13. What type of attack does Microsoft Defender for Office 365 primarily protect against?
A) Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
B) Phishing and email-based threats
C) Ransomware attacks on endpoints
D) SQL injection attacks
Answer: B) Phishing and email-based threats
Explanation: Defender for Office 365 helps protect email systems from phishing, malware, and other threats.
14. What is the main objective of a Cybersecurity Architecture framework?
A) To increase network bandwidth
B) To create a blueprint for securing IT infrastructure aligned with business goals
C) To reduce costs by eliminating security controls
D) To replace all legacy systems
Answer: B) To create a blueprint for securing IT infrastructure aligned with business goals
Explanation: Cybersecurity architecture defines the security design principles that support organizational goals.
15. What is the best way to secure APIs exposed by cloud applications?
A) Use IP whitelisting only
B) Implement OAuth 2.0 and token-based authentication
C) Rely on network firewall rules only
D) Use HTTP Basic Authentication
Answer: B) Implement OAuth 2.0 and token-based authentication
Explanation: OAuth 2.0 provides secure, standardized token-based authentication for APIs.
16. How does Microsoft Cloud App Security help in securing cloud environments?
A) By encrypting all cloud data automatically
B) By providing visibility and control over cloud app usage and threats
C) By replacing all existing security tools
D) By managing network traffic routing
Answer: B) By providing visibility and control over cloud app usage and threats
Explanation: Cloud App Security helps detect risky behaviors and control access in cloud applications.
17. What is the role of Azure Policy in a cybersecurity architecture?
A) To monitor user login attempts
B) To enforce governance and compliance by applying rules to resources
C) To detect malware infections on devices
D) To route traffic through VPNs
Answer: B) To enforce governance and compliance by applying rules to resources
Explanation: Azure Policy enables organizations to enforce rules on Azure resources to ensure compliance.
18. What is an advantage of using Microsoft Defender for Cloud?
A) It only protects on-premises data centers
B) It provides unified security management and threat protection across hybrid cloud workloads
C) It automatically patches all vulnerabilities
D) It replaces the need for a firewall
Answer: B) It provides unified security management and threat protection across hybrid cloud workloads
Explanation: Defender for Cloud offers integrated security management across cloud and on-premises.
19. What type of attack does Azure DDoS Protection defend against?
A) Credential theft
B) Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks
C) Cross-site scripting (XSS)
D) SQL injection
Answer: B) Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks
Explanation: Azure DDoS Protection safeguards Azure resources from DDoS attacks.
20. Which tool would you use to investigate suspicious security incidents across an enterprise network?
A) Microsoft Intune
B) Azure Sentinel
C) Azure Policy
D) Microsoft Defender for Identity
Answer: B) Azure Sentinel
Explanation: Azure Sentinel is designed for investigation and response to security incidents across multiple sources.
21. Which concept refers to limiting user permissions strictly to the minimum required to perform their job?
A) Segregation of Duties
B) Least Privilege
C) Defense in Depth
D) Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
Answer: B) Least Privilege
Explanation: Least Privilege minimizes risk by restricting users’ access rights to only what is necessary.
22. What Microsoft service is used to enforce compliance policies on devices?
A) Azure Security Center
B) Microsoft Intune
C) Azure AD Conditional Access
D) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
Answer: B) Microsoft Intune
Explanation: Intune manages and enforces compliance policies on devices including mobile and PCs.
23. What is the key feature of Azure AD Identity Protection?
A) Device encryption
B) Automated detection and remediation of identity risks
C) Firewall rule management
D) Application performance monitoring
Answer: B) Automated detection and remediation of identity risks
Explanation: Azure AD Identity Protection detects risky sign-ins and compromised accounts.
24. What is the main function of Privileged Identity Management (PIM)?
A) To encrypt user credentials
B) To provide just-in-time privileged access and audit privileged actions
C) To monitor network traffic
D) To classify sensitive data
Answer: B) To provide just-in-time privileged access and audit privileged actions
Explanation: PIM reduces risk by limiting standing privileges and providing auditing.
25. How does Microsoft Defender for Endpoint detect advanced threats?
A) By scanning email attachments only
B) By using behavioral analytics and endpoint detection and response (EDR)
C) By blocking all internet access
D) By disabling USB ports
Answer: B) By using behavioral analytics and endpoint detection and response (EDR)
Explanation: Defender for Endpoint uses advanced analytics and machine learning to detect threats.
26. What is a key benefit of implementing a defense-in-depth strategy?
A) Single point of failure
B) Multiple layers of security controls to protect assets
C) Simplifies security management by using only one control
D) Only protects perimeter networks
Answer: B) Multiple layers of security controls to protect assets
Explanation: Defense in depth uses several layers of security to reduce risk of breach.
27. Which Microsoft tool helps identify and protect sensitive information in emails and documents?
A) Microsoft Defender for Identity
B) Microsoft Information Protection (MIP)
C) Azure Firewall
D) Microsoft Sentinel
Answer: B) Microsoft Information Protection (MIP)
Explanation: MIP classifies and protects sensitive data across Microsoft 365 services.
28. In Microsoft cybersecurity architecture, what is the purpose of a Security Operations Center (SOC)?
A) To develop software
B) To monitor, detect, investigate, and respond to security incidents
C) To manage hardware inventory
D) To write security policies only
Answer: B) To monitor, detect, investigate, and respond to security incidents
Explanation: SOC teams provide real-time security monitoring and incident response.
29. How does Azure AD B2B collaboration improve security?
A) By providing full administrative rights to guest users
B) By enabling secure collaboration with external users while maintaining control over corporate data
C) By disabling MFA for external users
D) By sharing all internal resources with partners
Answer: B) By enabling secure collaboration with external users while maintaining control over corporate data
Explanation: Azure AD B2B allows external partners to securely access resources with controlled permissions.
30. What is the role of threat intelligence in Microsoft cybersecurity architecture?
A) To monitor physical security guards
B) To provide actionable information about emerging threats to improve defenses
C) To block all external connections automatically
D) To manage software licenses
Answer: B) To provide actionable information about emerging threats to improve defenses
Explanation: Threat intelligence informs security teams about new attack methods and vulnerabilities.
31. Which Azure service helps protect workloads by providing vulnerability assessment and security recommendations?
A) Azure Defender
B) Azure Sentinel
C) Azure Firewall
D) Azure Key Vault
Answer: A) Azure Defender
Explanation: Azure Defender continuously monitors workloads, performs vulnerability assessments, and recommends security improvements.
32. What is the purpose of using a Managed Security Service Provider (MSSP) in cybersecurity architecture?
A) To replace internal IT staff
B) To provide outsourced security monitoring and incident response capabilities
C) To sell hardware firewalls
D) To manage user passwords
Answer: B) To provide outsourced security monitoring and incident response capabilities
Explanation: MSSPs offer expertise and resources for continuous security monitoring and incident response.
33. What does the principle of “segregation of duties” prevent in cybersecurity?
A) Unauthorized data deletion
B) Overlapping responsibilities that could enable fraud or error
C) Data encryption failure
D) Excessive network traffic
Answer: B) Overlapping responsibilities that could enable fraud or error
Explanation: Segregation of duties divides critical tasks to reduce risk of misuse or mistakes by any one individual.
34. How can Azure AD Conditional Access policies mitigate the risk of compromised credentials?
A) By automatically resetting passwords
B) By requiring MFA when suspicious login behavior is detected
C) By blocking all external connections
D) By disabling user accounts
Answer: B) By requiring MFA when suspicious login behavior is detected
Explanation: Conditional Access can enforce MFA or block access based on risk signals to protect against credential compromise.
35. What type of attack does Defender for Endpoint’s Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) specifically help identify?
A) SQL Injection
B) Advanced persistent threats (APT)
C) Phishing emails
D) Denial of service attacks
Answer: B) Advanced persistent threats (APT)
Explanation: EDR uses behavioral analytics and telemetry to detect stealthy, sophisticated attacks like APTs.
36. Which Microsoft product integrates with Azure AD to provide identity governance?
A) Microsoft Intune
B) Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
C) Microsoft Defender for Identity
D) Azure Firewall
Answer: B) Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
Explanation: PIM manages, controls, and monitors privileged accounts with just-in-time access and approval workflows.
37. What is the primary goal of Microsoft Secure Score?
A) To measure the strength of encryption keys
B) To provide a security posture assessment with actionable improvement recommendations
C) To block malicious IP addresses
D) To monitor network latency
Answer: B) To provide a security posture assessment with actionable improvement recommendations
Explanation: Secure Score helps organizations evaluate their security configuration and prioritize improvements.
38. In a Zero Trust network, what is the significance of device compliance status?
A) It’s irrelevant once the user is authenticated
B) It determines whether the device is allowed to access corporate resources
C) It only applies to servers
D) It is used for network speed optimization
Answer: B) It determines whether the device is allowed to access corporate resources
Explanation: Devices must meet compliance policies to be trusted and granted access in Zero Trust models.
39. How does Microsoft Defender for Identity detect suspicious activity?
A) By scanning emails for malware
B) By analyzing user and entity behavior in Active Directory environments
C) By encrypting sensitive data
D) By managing device configurations
Answer: B) By analyzing user and entity behavior in Active Directory environments
Explanation: Defender for Identity detects anomalies in user and device behavior that may indicate compromised credentials.
40. Which of the following is NOT a component of Microsoft’s Cybersecurity Reference Architecture?
A) Identity and Access Management
B) Data Protection and Privacy
C) Physical Security Guards
D) Security Operations
Answer: C) Physical Security Guards
Explanation: Microsoft’s Cybersecurity Reference Architecture focuses on digital security components; physical security is outside its scope.
41. What is the primary use of Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps?
A) Endpoint protection
B) Cloud access security broker (CASB) capabilities for visibility and control over cloud app usage
C) Firewall management
D) Identity management
Answer: B) Cloud access security broker (CASB) capabilities for visibility and control over cloud app usage
Explanation: Defender for Cloud Apps helps monitor and control shadow IT and risky cloud app behaviors.
42. Which feature of Azure Sentinel supports automated response to threats?
A) Playbooks
B) Azure Policy
C) Conditional Access
D) Azure Firewall
Answer: A) Playbooks
Explanation: Playbooks in Azure Sentinel automate threat response actions via logic apps workflows.
43. What type of encryption does Azure Storage use by default for data at rest?
A) Symmetric encryption with AES 256-bit
B) RSA encryption
C) No encryption
D) Base64 encoding
Answer: A) Symmetric encryption with AES 256-bit
Explanation: Azure Storage encrypts data at rest using AES 256-bit symmetric encryption by default.
44. What is the role of Microsoft Defender for Endpoint Attack Surface Reduction (ASR) rules?
A) To block network traffic
B) To prevent common attack vectors such as executable files running from email or Office macros
C) To monitor cloud applications
D) To configure conditional access
Answer: B) To prevent common attack vectors such as executable files running from email or Office macros
Explanation: ASR rules block behaviors commonly exploited by malware and ransomware.
45. How does Azure AD support multifactor authentication for users?
A) By requiring biometric data only
B) By integrating with Microsoft Authenticator and other verification methods
C) By requiring password changes every 30 days
D) By blocking external user access
Answer: B) By integrating with Microsoft Authenticator and other verification methods
Explanation: Azure AD MFA supports phone calls, texts, app notifications, and hardware tokens as verification methods.
46. What is the primary function of Microsoft Cloud App Security Conditional Access App Control?
A) To encrypt all cloud data
B) To enforce real-time session controls and data protection policies on cloud apps
C) To manage firewall rules
D) To replace VPN solutions
Answer: B) To enforce real-time session controls and data protection policies on cloud apps
Explanation: It enables monitoring and controlling user sessions for SaaS apps with policy enforcement.
47. What type of attack is mitigated by implementing network micro-segmentation?
A) Phishing
B) Lateral movement within the network
C) Brute force password attacks
D) Denial of Service (DoS)
Answer: B) Lateral movement within the network
Explanation: Micro-segmentation isolates workloads to prevent attackers from moving laterally after a breach.
48. Which Azure feature allows organizations to centrally govern policies across multiple subscriptions and management groups?
A) Azure Security Center
B) Azure Policy
C) Azure Sentinel
D) Azure Key Vault
Answer: B) Azure Policy
Explanation: Azure Policy enforces organizational rules and compliance at scale across Azure resources.
49. What is an important consideration when designing a cybersecurity incident response plan?
A) Avoid documenting processes to maintain flexibility
B) Define roles, responsibilities, and communication channels clearly
C) Only focus on external threats
D) Rely solely on automated tools without human oversight
Answer: B) Define roles, responsibilities, and communication channels clearly
Explanation: Clear definition of responsibilities and communication is critical for effective incident response.
50. What does Microsoft’s Secure Score provide for an organization?
A) Security certifications
B) A quantifiable measure of the security posture with improvement guidance
C) Firewall configuration reports
D) Device compliance status
Answer: B) A quantifiable measure of the security posture with improvement guidance
Explanation: Secure Score gives organizations insight into their security status and actionable recommendations.
51. Which Microsoft tool can help with protecting sensitive data inside emails by applying labels and encryption?
A) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
B) Microsoft Information Protection (MIP)
C) Azure Sentinel
D) Azure AD Identity Protection
Answer: B) Microsoft Information Protection (MIP)
Explanation: MIP allows classification, labeling, and encryption of sensitive information, including emails.
52. What is the primary function of Azure Firewall?
A) Endpoint detection and response
B) Network-level filtering of inbound and outbound traffic to Azure resources
C) Data classification
D) Identity governance
Answer: B) Network-level filtering of inbound and outbound traffic to Azure resources
Explanation: Azure Firewall protects Azure Virtual Networks by filtering network traffic.
53. Which of the following best describes Microsoft Intune’s role in cybersecurity?
A) Managing network firewalls
B) Managing mobile devices and enforcing compliance policies
C) Performing malware detection on endpoints
D) Providing SIEM functionality
Answer: B) Managing mobile devices and enforcing compliance policies
Explanation: Intune enables mobile device management (MDM) and mobile application management (MAM).
54. Which Azure service helps with detecting and responding to insider threats?
A) Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
B) Azure Sentinel
C) Microsoft Defender for Identity
D) Azure Key Vault
Answer: C) Microsoft Defender for Identity
Explanation: Defender for Identity uses behavior analytics to identify suspicious insider activities.
55. What does a “playbook” in Azure Sentinel do?
A) It stores encryption keys
B) It automates investigation and remediation actions for security incidents
C) It creates firewall rules
D) It manages user access
Answer: B) It automates investigation and remediation actions for security incidents
Explanation: Playbooks help automate responses to alerts using workflows.
56. What is a major benefit of integrating Microsoft Defender products across endpoints, identities, and cloud workloads?
A) It eliminates the need for backups
B) It provides holistic, coordinated threat detection and response
C) It removes the need for conditional access policies
D) It reduces licensing costs to zero
Answer: B) It provides holistic, coordinated threat detection and response
Explanation: Integration enables better visibility and faster response across attack vectors.
57. What is the function of Azure AD Identity Protection’s risk-based conditional access?
A) It disables accounts automatically
B) It triggers adaptive policies based on the risk level of sign-ins or users
C) It scans files for viruses
D) It manages network segmentation
Answer: B) It triggers adaptive policies based on the risk level of sign-ins or users
Explanation: Risk-based policies help mitigate threats by applying controls only when needed.
58. What is the benefit of encrypting data in transit using TLS?
A) To ensure data is unreadable while being transferred between client and server
B) To protect data at rest only
C) To speed up network traffic
D) To replace firewall protections
Answer: A) To ensure data is unreadable while being transferred between client and server
Explanation: TLS secures communication channels to protect data confidentiality and integrity in transit.
59. How does Azure Security Center help with compliance requirements?
A) By providing audit logs only
B) By continuously assessing resource configurations against regulatory standards and best practices
C) By disabling non-compliant users
D) By providing VPN connectivity
Answer: B) By continuously assessing resource configurations against regulatory standards and best practices
Explanation: It provides compliance dashboards and recommendations for meeting regulatory requirements.
60. What is the main advantage of a multi-cloud cybersecurity strategy?
A) It avoids any need for identity management
B) It helps reduce risk by diversifying and securing workloads across different cloud platforms
C) It requires no additional security controls
D) It eliminates the need for encryption
Answer: B) It helps reduce risk by diversifying and securing workloads across different cloud platforms
Explanation: Multi-cloud strategies reduce single points of failure and tailor security controls to each platform.
