SC-300 Microsoft Identity and Access Administrator Exam Practice Test
The SC-300: Microsoft Identity and Access Administrator certification exam is a vital credential for IT professionals who design, implement, and manage identity and access solutions using Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). This exam tests your skills in managing authentication, access control, identity governance, and securing enterprise environments with Microsoft’s cloud identity platform. Passing the SC-300 validates your expertise in protecting organizational resources through robust identity management and access strategies.
What Is the SC-300 Certification Exam?
The SC-300 exam measures your ability to plan and implement identity management solutions that enable secure and seamless access to corporate resources. As a Microsoft Identity and Access Administrator, you will be responsible for configuring Azure AD, implementing access policies, managing authentication methods such as multi-factor authentication (MFA), and securing identities both in cloud and hybrid environments. This certification is essential for those working with Azure AD and Microsoft security technologies to protect user identities and data.
What Will You Learn from This Exam?
By preparing for the SC-300 exam, you will gain hands-on knowledge and a deep understanding of:
Designing and implementing identity governance, including managing external collaboration with Azure AD B2B
Configuring and managing Azure AD authentication methods and secure access policies
Implementing and managing Conditional Access policies to control user access based on device compliance, location, and risk
Managing identity synchronization between on-premises Active Directory and Azure AD
Implementing privileged identity management (PIM) for just-in-time administrative access
Monitoring identity security and responding to security incidents using Azure AD Identity Protection
This knowledge empowers IT professionals to design and deploy scalable identity solutions that safeguard corporate resources while providing users with seamless access.
Key Topics Covered in the SC-300 Exam
The exam focuses on four main domains:
Identity and Access Management Solutions Planning: Understand Azure AD tenant setup, external identity collaboration, and role management.
Implementing Authentication and Access Management: Learn to configure MFA, passwordless authentication, and secure sign-in methods.
Managing Access Control: Gain expertise in Conditional Access policies, entitlement management, and access reviews.
Monitoring and Troubleshooting Identity and Access: Develop skills to monitor sign-ins, investigate risky activities, and mitigate identity risks.
Mastering these topics ensures you are equipped to handle real-world challenges in identity and access administration.
Why Choose Exam Sage for Your SC-300 Exam Preparation?
Exam Sage offers a comprehensive and expertly crafted practice test tailored specifically for the SC-300 certification. Our practice exams include high-quality, realistic multiple-choice questions that reflect the actual exam pattern and difficulty. Each question comes with clear, detailed explanations to help you understand concepts thoroughly and identify knowledge gaps. With Exam Sage, you get:
Access to up-to-date questions aligned with Microsoft’s latest exam objectives
Detailed answer explanations for enhanced learning
User-friendly interface designed for efficient study sessions
Affordable pricing with instant digital delivery
Our practice tests are designed to build your confidence, sharpen your skills, and help you pass the SC-300 exam on your first attempt.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following Azure AD features allows you to enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA) based on user risk or sign-in risk?
A) Conditional Access
B) Identity Protection
C) Privileged Identity Management
D) Access Reviews
Answer: B) Identity Protection
Explanation: Azure AD Identity Protection analyzes user risk and sign-in risk and can enforce policies such as MFA accordingly.
2. What is the primary purpose of Privileged Identity Management (PIM) in Azure AD?
A) Managing guest user access
B) Providing just-in-time privileged access
C) Implementing role-based access control (RBAC)
D) Monitoring sign-in risk
Answer: B) Providing just-in-time privileged access
Explanation: PIM helps to minimize exposure by granting privileged access only when needed and for a limited time.
3. Which Azure AD feature helps you manage access to SaaS applications for external users?
A) B2B Collaboration
B) Conditional Access
C) Identity Protection
D) Role Assignments
Answer: A) B2B Collaboration
Explanation: Azure AD B2B Collaboration allows secure sharing of applications and services with guest users from any organization.
4. What does the term “Access Review” in Azure AD refer to?
A) Reviewing sign-in logs for suspicious activities
B) Reviewing and certifying user access rights periodically
C) Reviewing group membership changes
D) Reviewing device compliance policies
Answer: B) Reviewing and certifying user access rights periodically
Explanation: Access Reviews help ensure users have appropriate access by allowing administrators to review and remove unnecessary access.
5. Which authentication method requires a physical device and is recommended for passwordless sign-in?
A) SMS-based MFA
B) Authenticator app notification
C) FIDO2 security key
D) Email verification
Answer: C) FIDO2 security key
Explanation: FIDO2 keys provide hardware-based, passwordless authentication, enhancing security.
6. You want to restrict access to an application only from specific trusted locations. Which Azure AD feature should you use?
A) Conditional Access policies
B) Access Reviews
C) Identity Protection
D) Azure AD Connect
Answer: A) Conditional Access policies
Explanation: Conditional Access allows you to enforce access controls like location-based restrictions.
7. In role-based access control (RBAC) for Azure AD, what is the highest privileged role by default?
A) User Administrator
B) Global Administrator
C) Security Reader
D) Compliance Administrator
Answer: B) Global Administrator
Explanation: Global Administrator has full access to all administrative features.
8. Which of these is NOT a valid assignment scope for a role in Azure AD PIM?
A) Tenant-wide
B) Management group
C) Azure subscription
D) Resource group
Answer: B) Management group
Explanation: PIM role assignments are scoped to Azure AD tenant, subscription, or resource group, but management groups are managed in Azure RBAC, not Azure AD PIM.
9. What protocol does Azure AD primarily use to authenticate users in cloud applications?
A) OAuth 2.0
B) Kerberos
C) RADIUS
D) NTLM
Answer: A) OAuth 2.0
Explanation: Azure AD primarily uses OAuth 2.0 for delegated authorization and authentication in cloud apps.
10. What is the purpose of a Named Location in Conditional Access policies?
A) To specify IP address ranges or countries for policy application
B) To create custom user roles
C) To define application permissions
D) To assign device compliance policies
Answer: A) To specify IP address ranges or countries for policy application
Explanation: Named Locations allow you to define trusted locations for Conditional Access policy evaluation.
11. Which of the following is NOT a default role in Azure AD?
A) Billing Administrator
B) Application Administrator
C) Database Administrator
D) Security Administrator
Answer: C) Database Administrator
Explanation: Database Administrator is not a role in Azure AD; it’s related to SQL or database systems.
12. How can you enforce MFA only for users accessing high-risk applications?
A) Use Azure AD Identity Protection with risk policies
B) Enable MFA for all users by default
C) Configure Password Protection policies
D) Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
Answer: A) Use Azure AD Identity Protection with risk policies
Explanation: Identity Protection risk policies allow targeted enforcement of MFA for risky sign-ins or users.
13. What is the main benefit of enabling “self-service password reset” in Azure AD?
A) Reduces helpdesk calls and increases user productivity
B) Automatically changes passwords on a schedule
C) Provides single sign-on (SSO) functionality
D) Enforces password complexity policies
Answer: A) Reduces helpdesk calls and increases user productivity
Explanation: Self-service password reset allows users to reset passwords without administrator intervention.
14. You want to audit who has accessed privileged roles and when. Which Azure AD feature do you use?
A) Azure AD Audit Logs
B) Sign-in Logs
C) Access Reviews
D) Conditional Access
Answer: A) Azure AD Audit Logs
Explanation: Audit Logs track changes and assignments, including privileged role activations.
15. What type of identity is managed entirely within Azure AD and is used for employees?
A) Guest account
B) Cloud-only user account
C) On-premises synced user
D) External user
Answer: B) Cloud-only user account
Explanation: Cloud-only users are created and managed directly in Azure AD without on-premises sync.
16. What is the function of Azure AD Connect?
A) To synchronize on-premises AD with Azure AD
B) To enforce Conditional Access policies
C) To configure Identity Protection policies
D) To manage privileged roles
Answer: A) To synchronize on-premises AD with Azure AD
Explanation: Azure AD Connect synchronizes identities between on-premises AD and Azure AD.
17. What is the best way to secure administrator accounts in Azure AD?
A) Use strong passwords only
B) Enable MFA and use PIM for just-in-time access
C) Disable all administrator accounts when not used
D) Use email verification
Answer: B) Enable MFA and use PIM for just-in-time access
Explanation: Combining MFA with PIM enhances security by limiting access scope and requiring multi-factor authentication.
18. Which protocol is primarily used by Azure AD to support single sign-on (SSO) to enterprise applications?
A) SAML
B) FTP
C) IMAP
D) POP3
Answer: A) SAML
Explanation: SAML is a popular protocol for federated authentication and SSO in enterprise apps.
19. When configuring Conditional Access, what happens if multiple policies apply to a user?
A) All policies are evaluated, and the strictest control is applied
B) The first policy created is applied only
C) Policies are ignored if conflicting
D) The user chooses which policy to apply
Answer: A) All policies are evaluated, and the strictest control is applied
Explanation: Azure AD evaluates all applicable policies and enforces the most restrictive one.
20. Which role in Azure AD is responsible for managing user and group creation but cannot delete users?
A) User Administrator
B) Global Administrator
C) Group Administrator
D) Security Administrator
Answer: A) User Administrator
Explanation: User Administrator can create and manage users but has limited rights to delete or elevate privileges.
21. What is a key benefit of enabling “password hash synchronization” in Azure AD Connect?
A) Users can sign in with the same password on-premises and cloud
B) Passwords are stored only on-premises
C) It disables MFA
D) It allows single sign-on without passwords
Answer: A) Users can sign in with the same password on-premises and cloud
Explanation: Password hash sync syncs the password hash from on-premises AD to Azure AD for seamless sign-in.
22. Which feature allows you to review and certify guest user access regularly?
A) Access Reviews
B) Privileged Identity Management
C) Identity Protection
D) Azure AD Connect
Answer: A) Access Reviews
Explanation: Access Reviews can be scheduled to review access for guests and internal users alike.
23. Which of the following is a key risk indicator in Azure AD Identity Protection?
A) Sign-ins from anonymous IP addresses
B) Password expiration policy
C) Group membership changes
D) Device enrollment status
Answer: A) Sign-ins from anonymous IP addresses
Explanation: Such sign-ins increase risk and trigger risk-based policies.
24. You want to allow a user temporary access to a Global Administrator role. Which Azure AD feature do you use?
A) Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
B) Conditional Access
C) Access Reviews
D) Identity Protection
Answer: A) Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
Explanation: PIM enables just-in-time role assignment for temporary privileged access.
25. Which Microsoft tool helps detect and prevent leaked credentials for Azure AD users?
A) Azure AD Password Protection
B) Azure Information Protection
C) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
D) Azure Sentinel
Answer: A) Azure AD Password Protection
Explanation: Password Protection blocks known weak and leaked passwords.
26. What is the primary function of a service principal in Azure AD?
A) Representing an application or service for authentication
B) Representing a user account
C) Managing device compliance
D) Enforcing Conditional Access
Answer: A) Representing an application or service for authentication
Explanation: Service principals allow apps or services to authenticate and access resources.
27. You want to require MFA only when users access from untrusted locations. Which Conditional Access condition should you configure?
A) Location
B) Device state
C) Sign-in risk
D) Application
Answer: A) Location
Explanation: The Location condition can enforce MFA for sign-ins from outside trusted IP ranges.
28. What is the difference between a security group and an Office 365 group in Azure AD?
A) Security groups are for access control; Office 365 groups include collaboration features
B) Security groups are only for email distribution
C) Office 365 groups cannot be used for access control
D) They are identical
Answer: A) Security groups are for access control; Office 365 groups include collaboration features
Explanation: Office 365 groups provide shared mailboxes, calendars, and collaboration tools.
29. Which Azure AD log shows detailed user sign-in attempts and failures?
A) Sign-in Logs
B) Audit Logs
C) Security Logs
D) Access Reviews
Answer: A) Sign-in Logs
Explanation: Sign-in logs provide detailed information about each authentication attempt.
30. To enforce device compliance before granting access to corporate apps, which Azure AD feature do you use?
A) Conditional Access with device compliance condition
B) Azure AD Connect
C) Privileged Identity Management
D) Access Reviews
Answer: A) Conditional Access with device compliance condition
Explanation: Conditional Access can require device compliance status for access control.
31. Which Azure AD feature allows for automated access assignment based on user attributes?
A) Dynamic Groups
B) Conditional Access
C) Access Reviews
D) Privileged Identity Management
Answer: A) Dynamic Groups
Explanation: Dynamic groups automatically add or remove members based on user attributes like department or location.
32. What is the primary benefit of enabling “Pass-through Authentication” with Azure AD Connect?
A) Password validation happens directly against on-premises AD without password hashes stored in the cloud
B) Passwords are synchronized in plain text
C) Users must change passwords more frequently
D) It disables single sign-on
Answer: A) Password validation happens directly against on-premises AD without password hashes stored in the cloud
Explanation: Pass-through Authentication verifies user credentials directly with on-premises AD for enhanced security.
33. What is the function of the “Terms of Use” feature in Azure AD Conditional Access?
A) Require users to accept organizational policies before accessing resources
B) Automatically block risky sign-ins
C) Enforce password complexity
D) Schedule Access Reviews
Answer: A) Require users to accept organizational policies before accessing resources
Explanation: Terms of Use lets admins require users to acknowledge policies before access.
34. How can an Azure AD administrator prevent legacy authentication protocols from being used in an environment?
A) Create a Conditional Access policy targeting legacy authentication clients and block access
B) Disable Azure AD Connect
C) Enable MFA for all users
D) Remove all user accounts
Answer: A) Create a Conditional Access policy targeting legacy authentication clients and block access
Explanation: Blocking legacy authentication reduces risk from protocols that don’t support MFA.
35. What is the main purpose of “Azure AD B2C”?
A) Managing consumer identities and access for external customers
B) Managing employee identities
C) Synchronizing on-premises AD
D) Role-based access control
Answer: A) Managing consumer identities and access for external customers
Explanation: Azure AD B2C is designed for customer-facing applications with customizable sign-in and sign-up.
36. What happens when a user is assigned to an Azure AD role with PIM but does not activate the role?
A) The user does not have the elevated privileges until activation
B) The user automatically gets full permissions
C) The user is blocked from signing in
D) The user’s password is reset
Answer: A) The user does not have the elevated privileges until activation
Explanation: PIM requires users to activate roles for just-in-time access; without activation, no privileges apply.
37. Which Azure AD feature helps you enforce policies based on device compliance states?
A) Conditional Access with device compliance condition
B) Identity Protection
C) Privileged Identity Management
D) Access Reviews
Answer: A) Conditional Access with device compliance condition
Explanation: You can require devices to be compliant with policies before access is granted.
38. What type of identity does an Azure AD Guest user represent?
A) An external user from another Azure AD tenant
B) An internal employee
C) A service principal
D) A device identity
Answer: A) An external user from another Azure AD tenant
Explanation: Guest users represent external collaborators invited to the tenant.
39. When creating a Conditional Access policy, which assignment allows you to apply the policy to specific cloud apps?
A) Cloud apps or actions
B) Users and groups
C) Locations
D) Device platforms
Answer: A) Cloud apps or actions
Explanation: You select the cloud apps to which the policy will apply in the “Cloud apps or actions” assignment.
40. What Azure AD tool would you use to discover inactive accounts for cleanup?
A) Access Reviews
B) Conditional Access
C) Privileged Identity Management
D) Azure AD Connect
Answer: A) Access Reviews
Explanation: Access Reviews can identify and remove inactive or unnecessary accounts.
41. Which of these is NOT a valid authentication factor supported by Azure AD MFA?
A) Phone call
B) Email code
C) Authenticator app notification
D) Security key
Answer: B) Email code
Explanation: Azure AD MFA supports phone call, text, app notification, and hardware keys, but not email codes.
42. How does “Password Protection” in Azure AD defend against common password vulnerabilities?
A) By blocking weak or leaked passwords during password set/change
B) By enforcing password expiration every 30 days
C) By disabling password use altogether
D) By requiring biometric authentication
Answer: A) By blocking weak or leaked passwords during password set/change
Explanation: Password Protection checks passwords against a list of banned or leaked passwords.
43. What does enabling “Seamless Single Sign-On (Seamless SSO)” in Azure AD Connect do?
A) Automatically signs users in when on corporate devices connected to the corporate network
B) Requires users to enter passwords each time
C) Disables MFA
D) Syncs passwords in plain text
Answer: A) Automatically signs users in when on corporate devices connected to the corporate network
Explanation: Seamless SSO enables users to sign in without typing passwords on domain-joined machines.
44. Which role in Azure AD has the ability to manage access reviews?
A) User Administrator
B) Global Administrator
C) Access Review Administrator
D) Security Reader
Answer: C) Access Review Administrator
Explanation: This role manages access reviews, including creating and approving them.
45. What is a “service principal” in Azure AD?
A) An identity used by applications or services to access resources
B) A user account for an employee
C) A privileged admin account
D) A type of group
Answer: A) An identity used by applications or services to access resources
Explanation: Service principals allow apps to authenticate and act in Azure AD.
46. Which Microsoft service integrates with Azure AD to provide enhanced threat detection and response?
A) Microsoft Defender for Identity
B) Microsoft Exchange Online
C) Microsoft Teams
D) Microsoft Power BI
Answer: A) Microsoft Defender for Identity
Explanation: Defender for Identity detects suspicious activities related to identities.
47. In Azure AD, what is the effect of enabling “User Consent” policies?
A) Controls whether users can grant apps permission to access their data
B) Automatically approves all app requests
C) Removes all guest users
D) Enforces device compliance
Answer: A) Controls whether users can grant apps permission to access their data
Explanation: User Consent policies restrict or allow users to consent to app permissions.
48. What is the default token lifetime for Azure AD access tokens?
A) 1 hour
B) 24 hours
C) 7 days
D) 30 minutes
Answer: A) 1 hour
Explanation: Access tokens typically expire after 1 hour by default.
49. Which authentication method does Azure AD recommend to reduce risks associated with password theft?
A) Passwordless authentication
B) Password expiration every 30 days
C) Password complexity policies
D) Single-factor authentication
Answer: A) Passwordless authentication
Explanation: Passwordless methods such as FIDO2 keys or Microsoft Authenticator app reduce reliance on passwords.
50. Which of the following is a valid way to onboard devices for Conditional Access device compliance?
A) Microsoft Intune enrollment
B) Azure AD Connect sync
C) On-premises GPO
D) Azure AD B2B Collaboration
Answer: A) Microsoft Intune enrollment
Explanation: Devices enrolled in Intune can be evaluated for compliance in Conditional Access policies.
51. What Azure AD feature allows auditing of sign-in risks and user risk events?
A) Azure AD Identity Protection
B) Privileged Identity Management
C) Access Reviews
D) Azure AD Connect
Answer: A) Azure AD Identity Protection
Explanation: Identity Protection provides risk detection and insights to manage identity threats.
52. How do you delegate user management to a help desk team without giving full admin rights?
A) Assign the User Administrator role
B) Assign the Global Administrator role
C) Assign the Security Reader role
D) Assign the Billing Administrator role
Answer: A) Assign the User Administrator role
Explanation: The User Administrator role can manage users but cannot perform higher privileged tasks.
53. What is a key benefit of implementing Conditional Access policies?
A) They enforce access controls based on user, device, location, and risk
B) They disable MFA globally
C) They synchronize on-premises passwords
D) They create new Azure AD roles
Answer: A) They enforce access controls based on user, device, location, and risk
Explanation: Conditional Access policies provide granular and dynamic access control.
54. What is the purpose of “Named Locations” in Azure AD Conditional Access?
A) Define trusted IP ranges or countries to control access
B) Define user roles
C) Assign device compliance policies
D) Manage guest users
Answer: A) Define trusted IP ranges or countries to control access
Explanation: Named Locations help specify conditions based on geography or IP for policy enforcement.
55. Which Azure AD capability allows you to synchronize only specific OUs from on-premises AD?
A) Azure AD Connect filtering
B) Azure AD B2B Collaboration
C) Privileged Identity Management
D) Access Reviews
Answer: A) Azure AD Connect filtering
Explanation: Filtering allows selective sync of organizational units or attributes.
56. What is the function of “Conditional Access Named Locations”?
A) They help create geographic or IP-based conditions for access policies
B) They define the applications users can access
C) They assign user roles
D) They audit user activities
Answer: A) They help create geographic or IP-based conditions for access policies
Explanation: Named Locations are IP ranges or countries used in policy conditions.
57. How can administrators require MFA for all users accessing Exchange Online?
A) Create a Conditional Access policy targeting Exchange Online and require MFA
B) Enable MFA in the Exchange admin center
C) Enable Password Protection
D) Disable legacy authentication
Answer: A) Create a Conditional Access policy targeting Exchange Online and require MFA
Explanation: Conditional Access policies are the recommended way to enforce MFA for specific apps.
58. Which of the following is an identity governance tool in Azure AD?
A) Access Reviews
B) Microsoft Intune
C) Azure AD Connect
D) Microsoft Defender
Answer: A) Access Reviews
Explanation: Access Reviews enable periodic review and certification of user access rights.
59. What is the default maximum duration for activating a privileged role using PIM?
A) 1 hour
B) 24 hours
C) 30 minutes
D) 7 days
Answer: A) 1 hour
Explanation: By default, PIM roles are active for 1 hour unless configured otherwise.
60. Which protocol does Azure AD use to federate identities with external identity providers?
A) SAML
B) LDAP
C) SMTP
D) FTP
Answer: A) SAML
Explanation: SAML is commonly used for federated identity between Azure AD and external providers.
