Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS 200-201) Practice Exam
Are you preparing for the CBROPS 200-201 certification exam and looking for a reliable way to test your knowledge before the big day? Our CBROPS 200-201 Practice Exam is designed to help you master core cybersecurity skills, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence—all in one place.
🎯 What Is the CBROPS 200-201 Exam?
The Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate (CBROPS 200-201) exam validates your foundational skills in cybersecurity operations. As cyber threats evolve, Cisco’s CyberOps certification is essential for individuals aiming to build or advance a career as a Security Operations Center (SOC) Analyst, Cybersecurity Technician, or Threat Intelligence Analyst.
This exam is part of the Cisco CyberOps Associate certification path and measures your understanding of cybersecurity fundamentals, security monitoring, network intrusion analysis, incident response, and endpoint threat detection.
✅ What You’ll Learn from This Practice Exam
Our expertly developed CBROPS practice test covers all critical concepts and exam domains. You’ll sharpen your skills in:
Security Monitoring – Learn to interpret security alerts, traffic anomalies, and log data from SIEM tools.
Host-Based Analysis – Understand how to identify Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) and malware artifacts on endpoints.
Network Intrusion Analysis – Analyze packet captures, flow data, and intrusion signatures with tools like Wireshark and Snort.
Security Policies and Procedures – Reinforce knowledge of incident response plans, data privacy, access control, and risk management.
Threat Intelligence – Learn how to apply actionable threat intelligence, spot emerging threats, and understand the cyber kill chain.
Common Attack Vectors – Recognize tactics like phishing, DNS tunneling, reverse shells, and privilege escalation.
Each multiple-choice question is paired with a detailed explanation, allowing you to learn why an answer is correct—and why others are not. This helps solidify your understanding, not just memorize answers.
📘 Topics Covered in This Practice Exam
Security Concepts & Principles
Security Monitoring Tools (SIEM, NetFlow, Logs)
Host-Based Security & Endpoint Detection
Intrusion Analysis & Signature Matching
Threat Intelligence Lifecycle
Network Protocols & Packet Analysis
Incident Handling & Response
Attack Methodologies (Phishing, Malware, Exploits)
Risk Management & Compliance
Cybersecurity Technologies & Best Practices
💡 Why Choose Exam Sage for Your CBROPS 200-201 Prep?
At Exam Sage, we don’t just offer another quiz—we provide a structured, in-depth learning tool. Our practice exams are:
✅ Written and curated by cybersecurity professionals
✅ Updated regularly to reflect the latest exam blueprint
✅ Detailed with explanations so you understand concepts, not just answers
✅ Designed for real-world skills so you’re prepared for the SOC floor, not just the test
Whether you’re studying independently or supplementing your coursework, this CBROPS 200-201 Practice Exam will boost your readiness and help you pass the exam with confidence.
🛒 Get Started Today
Elevate your cybersecurity career by mastering the fundamentals that matter. Download the CBROPS 200-201 Practice Exam from ExamSage.com now and take a big step toward earning your Cisco CyberOps Associate certification.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?
A) To manage user accounts and permissions
B) To collect and analyze security logs and events from multiple sources
C) To provide physical security for data centers
D) To act as a firewall blocking malicious traffic
Answer: B
Explanation: SIEM systems collect and aggregate logs and events from various sources, providing real-time analysis and alerting to identify security incidents.
2. What is the main purpose of using an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
A) To block unauthorized network traffic
B) To detect and alert on suspicious or malicious activities
C) To encrypt data in transit
D) To authenticate users on a network
Answer: B
Explanation: IDS monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and sends alerts but typically does not block traffic.
3. Which of the following BEST explains what a “false positive” is in cybersecurity alerts?
A) An alert that indicates no threat when one actually exists
B) An alert that correctly identifies a threat
C) An alert that incorrectly identifies normal behavior as a threat
D) An alert triggered by a hardware failure
Answer: C
Explanation: A false positive occurs when normal activity is mistakenly flagged as malicious by security systems.
4. In cybersecurity, what does the acronym CIA stand for?
A) Central Intelligence Agency
B) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
C) Control, Inspection, Authorization
D) Cybersecurity Incident Analysis
Answer: B
Explanation: CIA represents the core principles of cybersecurity: confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data.
5. Which of the following is a primary goal of network segmentation?
A) To reduce network latency
B) To restrict access and limit the spread of attacks
C) To improve wireless signal strength
D) To enable faster data backups
Answer: B
Explanation: Network segmentation divides a network into smaller parts to contain breaches and control access.
6. What kind of attack is characterized by overwhelming a target system with excessive traffic to disrupt service?
A) Phishing
B) Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
C) SQL Injection
D) Man-in-the-middle
Answer: B
Explanation: DDoS attacks flood a system with traffic to make it unavailable to legitimate users.
7. What is the role of the Cybersecurity Operations Center (CSOC)?
A) To physically secure servers and data centers
B) To monitor, detect, and respond to cybersecurity incidents
C) To develop new software applications
D) To manage company financial records
Answer: B
Explanation: A CSOC is responsible for continuous monitoring and responding to security threats and incidents.
8. Which of the following BEST describes spear phishing?
A) A broad, random phishing attack targeting many users
B) A targeted phishing attack aimed at a specific individual or organization
C) A phishing attack that uses spear-shaped malware
D) A physical theft of user credentials
Answer: B
Explanation: Spear phishing is a focused attack tailored to deceive specific individuals or organizations.
9. What does the term “zero-day vulnerability” mean?
A) A vulnerability that is known but not yet patched
B) A vulnerability that has been publicly known for zero days
C) A vulnerability that is patched immediately upon discovery
D) A vulnerability that only affects legacy systems
Answer: B
Explanation: Zero-day vulnerabilities are unknown to the vendor and unpatched, making them highly dangerous.
10. Which of the following BEST describes a firewall’s primary function?
A) Encrypt data on the network
B) Control inbound and outbound network traffic based on security rules
C) Detect malware on endpoint devices
D) Authenticate user credentials
Answer: B
Explanation: Firewalls monitor and filter traffic based on predefined security policies.
11. What is “phishing”?
A) A form of malware that encrypts files
B) A cyberattack where attackers send fraudulent emails to obtain sensitive information
C) A network scanning technique
D) A method of data backup
Answer: B
Explanation: Phishing uses deceptive emails or messages to trick users into revealing confidential data.
12. Which protocol is MOST commonly used to secure communications over the internet?
A) FTP
B) HTTP
C) HTTPS
D) Telnet
Answer: C
Explanation: HTTPS uses TLS/SSL encryption to secure data transmitted over the web.
13. What is the purpose of using encryption in cybersecurity?
A) To prevent malware infections
B) To make data unreadable to unauthorized users
C) To speed up data transfer
D) To authenticate network devices
Answer: B
Explanation: Encryption transforms data into unreadable formats unless decrypted with the correct key.
14. What does “defense in depth” refer to in cybersecurity?
A) A single strong firewall protecting the network
B) Using multiple layers of security controls to protect assets
C) Hiring security experts with deep knowledge
D) Encrypting all data at rest
Answer: B
Explanation: Defense in depth involves multiple security layers to reduce the chance of a successful attack.
15. What type of malware is designed to replicate itself and spread to other devices?
A) Trojan
B) Worm
C) Ransomware
D) Spyware
Answer: B
Explanation: Worms self-replicate and spread independently without needing user action.
16. Which tool is commonly used by cybersecurity professionals for packet analysis?
A) Wireshark
B) Nmap
C) Metasploit
D) Nessus
Answer: A
Explanation: Wireshark is a widely-used network protocol analyzer.
17. What is the main function of an endpoint detection and response (EDR) system?
A) To block all incoming traffic to a network
B) To monitor endpoint devices for suspicious activities and provide automated responses
C) To provide network firewall services
D) To manage cloud services
Answer: B
Explanation: EDR tools monitor endpoints and respond to threats by isolating or remediating them.
18. What is a common indicator of compromise (IOC)?
A) A normal user login
B) An unusual outbound network connection
C) Scheduled software update
D) Routine backup process
Answer: B
Explanation: Unusual connections, such as to unknown IP addresses, can indicate compromise.
19. Which cybersecurity framework is widely adopted for managing and reducing cybersecurity risk?
A) ISO 27001
B) NIST Cybersecurity Framework
C) COBIT
D) ITIL
Answer: B
Explanation: NIST CSF provides guidelines and best practices to improve cybersecurity posture.
20. What is “social engineering” in cybersecurity?
A) Exploiting technical vulnerabilities
B) Manipulating people to gain unauthorized access or information
C) Writing malicious code
D) Encrypting data
Answer: B
Explanation: Social engineering targets human behavior rather than technical flaws.
21. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for end-to-end communication?
A) Physical
B) Data Link
C) Transport
D) Application
Answer: C
Explanation: The Transport layer (Layer 4) manages end-to-end communication and data transfer.
22. What is the primary purpose of penetration testing?
A) To fix all vulnerabilities automatically
B) To simulate attacks to identify security weaknesses
C) To create malware signatures
D) To monitor network traffic in real-time
Answer: B
Explanation: Pen testing identifies vulnerabilities by simulating real-world attacks.
23. What is multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
A) Using multiple usernames for login
B) Using two or more verification methods to confirm user identity
C) Using a single strong password
D) Using biometric only authentication
Answer: B
Explanation: MFA requires at least two independent credentials for secure access.
24. Which type of attack involves intercepting and potentially altering communication between two parties?
A) Phishing
B) Man-in-the-middle (MITM)
C) Denial of Service
D) Password spraying
Answer: B
Explanation: MITM attacks eavesdrop or modify communication without the knowledge of the parties involved.
25. Which cybersecurity tool would you use to scan a network for open ports?
A) Wireshark
B) Nmap
C) Metasploit
D) Splunk
Answer: B
Explanation: Nmap is used for network discovery and port scanning.
26. What is the main purpose of access control?
A) To ensure only authorized users can access resources
B) To encrypt sensitive data
C) To monitor network traffic
D) To install antivirus software
Answer: A
Explanation: Access control restricts resource access to authorized users only.
27. What does the term “patch management” refer to?
A) Removing malware from an infected system
B) Applying software updates to fix security vulnerabilities
C) Encrypting data backups
D) Configuring firewall rules
Answer: B
Explanation: Patch management involves updating software to fix bugs and security flaws.
28. Which of these BEST describes ransomware?
A) Software that records keystrokes
B) Software that encrypts files and demands payment for decryption
C) Software that hides itself from antivirus
D) Software that replicates itself
Answer: B
Explanation: Ransomware encrypts victim’s data and demands ransom to restore access.
29. What type of cybersecurity incident involves unauthorized access to data without altering it?
A) Data breach
B) Data destruction
C) Data corruption
D) Data backup
Answer: A
Explanation: A data breach is unauthorized access or disclosure of information.
30. What is the MOST effective way to protect passwords?
A) Use short and easy-to-remember passwords
B) Store passwords in plaintext files
C) Use strong, unique passwords with a password manager
D) Share passwords only with trusted colleagues
Answer: C
Explanation: Strong, unique passwords combined with password managers enhance security.
31. What does the “principle of least privilege” ensure?
A) Users have full administrative rights
B) Users are granted only the minimum access necessary to perform their jobs
C) Users can access any system at any time
D) Users share credentials to increase efficiency
Answer: B
Explanation: This principle limits user permissions to reduce the risk of misuse or accidental damage.
32. Which of the following BEST describes a “honeypot” in cybersecurity?
A) A type of malware used for stealing credentials
B) A decoy system designed to attract attackers and analyze their behavior
C) A firewall rule blocking suspicious traffic
D) A backup system for critical data
Answer: B
Explanation: Honeypots lure attackers into controlled environments to study attack methods.
33. What does “encryption at rest” mean?
A) Data is encrypted only while being transmitted
B) Data is encrypted when stored on a device or server
C) Data is never encrypted
D) Data is encrypted in backup tapes only
Answer: B
Explanation: Encryption at rest protects stored data from unauthorized access.
34. Which attack exploits a vulnerability by injecting malicious code into SQL statements?
A) Cross-site scripting (XSS)
B) SQL injection
C) Buffer overflow
D) Man-in-the-middle
Answer: B
Explanation: SQL injection targets databases by manipulating SQL queries to gain unauthorized access or damage.
35. What is the primary purpose of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
A) To speed up internet connection
B) To securely connect users over public networks by encrypting their traffic
C) To scan networks for vulnerabilities
D) To monitor user behavior on a network
Answer: B
Explanation: VPNs create encrypted tunnels, protecting data transmitted over insecure networks.
36. What type of cyberattack attempts to gain access by trying many password combinations?
A) Phishing
B) Brute force attack
C) Ransomware
D) SQL injection
Answer: B
Explanation: Brute force attacks systematically attempt many passwords to break into accounts.
37. Which of the following is NOT a common component of an incident response plan?
A) Identification
B) Containment
C) Exploitation
D) Recovery
Answer: C
Explanation: Exploitation is an attacker’s action; incident response involves identifying, containing, and recovering.
38. What is the purpose of network traffic analysis?
A) To block all incoming packets
B) To examine network data for anomalies indicating potential security incidents
C) To create backup copies of data
D) To update firewall rules automatically
Answer: B
Explanation: Traffic analysis helps detect suspicious behavior and potential threats.
39. Which of the following tools is primarily used for vulnerability scanning?
A) Metasploit
B) Nessus
C) Wireshark
D) Nmap
Answer: B
Explanation: Nessus is widely used for scanning systems to identify known vulnerabilities.
40. What is the main function of Transport Layer Security (TLS)?
A) To encrypt data between applications and servers
B) To block network ports
C) To scan for malware
D) To authenticate users locally
Answer: A
Explanation: TLS provides encryption and secure communication between clients and servers.
41. What is an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)?
A) A malware that spreads quickly
B) A long-term, targeted cyberattack often conducted by well-funded actors
C) An attack that only lasts for a few minutes
D) A network scanning technique
Answer: B
Explanation: APTs are stealthy, sophisticated, and focused on maintaining persistent access to a target.
42. What does “pivoting” mean in cybersecurity?
A) Scanning a network for open ports
B) Using a compromised system to attack other systems inside a network
C) Encrypting data on a compromised host
D) Removing malware from a system
Answer: B
Explanation: Pivoting allows attackers to move laterally within a network after breaching a system.
43. Which security control type focuses on policies, procedures, and awareness training?
A) Technical controls
B) Physical controls
C) Administrative controls
D) Logical controls
Answer: C
Explanation: Administrative controls include policies, procedures, training, and personnel management.
44. Which of the following BEST describes a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack?
A) Malware installed on a single device
B) An attack from multiple sources flooding a target to disrupt service
C) An attack targeting physical security
D) An attack using phishing emails
Answer: B
Explanation: DDoS attacks leverage many compromised systems to overwhelm a target.
45. What type of malware pretends to be legitimate software to trick users into installing it?
A) Worm
B) Trojan horse
C) Ransomware
D) Rootkit
Answer: B
Explanation: Trojans disguise themselves as useful or harmless programs.
46. What does the term “data exfiltration” mean?
A) Encrypting data to secure it
B) Unauthorized transfer of data from a system
C) Backing up data to cloud storage
D) Deleting data securely
Answer: B
Explanation: Data exfiltration is stealing or transferring data without permission.
47. Which of the following is a common method used to detect malware on endpoints?
A) Signature-based detection
B) Port scanning
C) Traffic shaping
D) DNS resolution
Answer: A
Explanation: Signature-based detection matches known malware patterns.
48. What is the first phase of the cybersecurity incident response process?
A) Containment
B) Identification
C) Eradication
D) Recovery
Answer: B
Explanation: Identification involves detecting and confirming an incident has occurred.
49. Which term describes a network device that forwards traffic between different networks?
A) Switch
B) Router
C) Firewall
D) Proxy
Answer: B
Explanation: Routers direct traffic between networks based on IP addresses.
50. What is the purpose of data classification in cybersecurity?
A) To encrypt all data equally
B) To categorize data based on sensitivity and required protections
C) To monitor user activities
D) To delete unnecessary files
Answer: B
Explanation: Data classification helps apply appropriate security controls based on data sensitivity.
51. What is “port scanning” used for in cybersecurity?
A) Encrypting network packets
B) Identifying open ports and services on a target system
C) Blocking malicious IP addresses
D) Authenticating users
Answer: B
Explanation: Port scanning finds open ports to identify potential vulnerabilities.
52. Which term describes software designed to perform actions without user consent or knowledge?
A) Antivirus
B) Malware
C) Firewall
D) Patch
Answer: B
Explanation: Malware includes viruses, worms, spyware, ransomware, and other harmful software.
53. Which type of backup provides the quickest recovery but requires the most storage?
A) Incremental backup
B) Differential backup
C) Full backup
D) Partial backup
Answer: C
Explanation: Full backups copy all data, enabling quick restores but using more storage.
54. Which tool can be used to detect network intrusions by analyzing traffic patterns?
A) IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
B) VPN
C) DNS server
D) DHCP server
Answer: A
Explanation: IDS analyzes network traffic for signs of attacks or policy violations.
55. What does the “time to detect” metric in cybersecurity refer to?
A) Time between incident occurrence and detection
B) Time to patch a vulnerability
C) Time taken to install antivirus
D) Time to perform a backup
Answer: A
Explanation: It measures how quickly an organization identifies security incidents.
56. What is a “logic bomb”?
A) A piece of code triggered by specific conditions to execute malicious actions
B) A hardware failure
C) An antivirus scan routine
D) A type of encryption
Answer: A
Explanation: Logic bombs activate under certain conditions and cause harm to systems.
57. Which of the following protocols is NOT secure for transmitting sensitive data?
A) HTTPS
B) SFTP
C) FTP
D) SSH
Answer: C
Explanation: FTP transmits data in plaintext and is vulnerable to interception.
58. What is the function of a proxy server in cybersecurity?
A) To act as an intermediary between a user and the internet, often filtering requests
B) To store user credentials
C) To scan for malware
D) To encrypt data on a disk
Answer: A
Explanation: Proxies help improve security and privacy by mediating internet requests.
59. What is the purpose of a cybersecurity “playbook”?
A) A document detailing incident response procedures
B) Software for network monitoring
C) A set of firewall rules
D) An antivirus database
Answer: A
Explanation: Playbooks guide teams through consistent and effective incident handling.
60. What is the MOST secure method of remotely managing a network device?
A) Telnet
B) FTP
C) SSH
D) HTTP
Answer: C
Explanation: SSH encrypts remote management sessions, preventing eavesdropping.
