VCP-VVF Admin: vSphere Foundation Administrator Exam Practice Test
What is the VCP-VVF Admin Certification?
The VMware Certified Professional – vSphere Foundation Administrator (VCP-VVF Admin) certification validates your fundamental skills in managing and administering VMware vSphere environments. This industry-recognized credential demonstrates your ability to install, configure, and manage VMware ESXi hosts and vCenter Server, making you a valuable asset in virtualization and cloud infrastructure teams. Achieving this certification can open doors to exciting IT roles focused on virtualization technologies.
What You Will Learn
By preparing with our comprehensive VCP-VVF Admin practice exam, you will gain in-depth knowledge of core VMware vSphere components and administration tasks. Key learning areas include:
Installation and configuration of ESXi hosts and vCenter Server
Virtual machine lifecycle management
Network and storage management within vSphere environments
Implementation of security and access control
High availability (HA), fault tolerance (FT), and resource scheduling concepts
Performance monitoring and troubleshooting techniques
These topics are aligned with the latest VMware exam objectives, ensuring you are ready for the real certification test.
Coverage of Essential Topics
Our practice test covers all critical areas necessary for VCP-VVF Admin exam success, including but not limited to:
vSphere architecture and components
VMFS datastores and storage protocols
Virtual networking with vSwitches and distributed switches
vMotion, Storage vMotion, and host maintenance modes
ESXi host profiles and cluster management
vSphere High Availability and Distributed Resource Scheduler
Security best practices and user role management
Each question is accompanied by detailed explanations to help you understand the concepts and improve retention.
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Exam Sage offers a trusted platform for IT professionals seeking effective exam preparation resources. Our VCP-VVF Admin practice tests are meticulously crafted by subject matter experts to provide realistic exam simulations. Benefits of using Exam Sage include:
Up-to-date questions reflecting the current exam syllabus
Clear, concise explanations to reinforce learning
User-friendly interface accessible on multiple devices
Affordable access to extensive practice questions
Regular updates to ensure content accuracy
Prepare confidently and increase your chances of passing the VMware vSphere Foundation Administrator exam on your first attempt with Exam Sage.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. What is the primary function of vCenter Server?
A. To manage individual ESXi hosts
B. To provide distributed switching capabilities
C. To centralize management of virtual infrastructure
D. To create virtual machine templates
Answer: C
Explanation: vCenter Server enables centralized management of virtual environments, including provisioning, monitoring, and configuration of hosts and VMs.
2. What is the minimum number of ESXi hosts required to enable vSphere HA?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Explanation: vSphere HA requires a minimum of two ESXi hosts to detect failures and restart virtual machines on the surviving host.
3. Which storage protocol does not require a VMkernel port?
A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. FC
D. FCoE
Answer: C
Explanation: Fibre Channel (FC) storage operates independently from the VMkernel network stack and uses dedicated hardware.
4. What is a Virtual Distributed Switch (vDS) used for?
A. Managing VM snapshots
B. Providing networking across multiple hosts
C. Balancing compute workloads
D. Managing vSphere licensing
Answer: B
Explanation: vDS simplifies network management by providing centralized control over virtual networks across multiple ESXi hosts.
5. What feature enables automated load balancing of VMs based on resource usage?
A. vSphere HA
B. DRS
C. VMotion
D. SRM
Answer: B
Explanation: Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) monitors resource utilization and dynamically moves VMs to balance workloads.
6. What is the primary purpose of VMotion?
A. Disaster recovery
B. Virtual switch migration
C. Live migration of VMs
D. Network security
Answer: C
Explanation: VMotion allows VMs to be migrated across hosts with no downtime.
7. Which type of storage is most suited for shared VMFS datastores?
A. Local SSD
B. USB
C. iSCSI
D. SATA
Answer: C
Explanation: iSCSI is a block-level protocol that supports shared VMFS datastores, enabling features like HA and DRS.
8. What is the maximum number of vCenter Servers you can link using Enhanced Linked Mode?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: C
Explanation: Enhanced Linked Mode supports up to 15 vCenter Servers for centralized inventory viewing and management.
9. Which vSphere component is responsible for managing ESXi hosts?
A. vCenter Server
B. vSphere Client
C. VMkernel
D. vSphere Web Services SDK
Answer: A
Explanation: vCenter Server is the centralized platform for managing ESXi hosts and VMs.
10. What is the default port used for vSphere Web Client?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 902
D. 9443
Answer: D
Explanation: vSphere Web Client uses port 9443 by default for secure access to vCenter Server.
11. Which tool can be used to install and configure an ESXi host?
A. VMware Converter
B. vSphere Update Manager
C. vSphere Client
D. ESXi Installer ISO
Answer: D
Explanation: The ESXi Installer ISO is used to boot and install ESXi on supported hardware.
12. What role does the VMkernel play in vSphere?
A. Hosts the VM file system
B. Manages VM networking only
C. Provides CPU and memory allocation to VMs
D. Manages core services like storage, networking, and scheduling
Answer: D
Explanation: VMkernel is the core operating system responsible for managing hardware resources for VMs.
13. How can you protect vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA) data?
A. Enable DRS
B. Schedule vSphere Replication
C. Enable High Availability
D. Use VCSA backup utility
Answer: D
Explanation: The built-in backup utility in VCSA allows scheduled, file-based backups of vCenter data.
14. What is a snapshot in vSphere?
A. A backup of the virtual machine
B. A live copy of memory only
C. A point-in-time copy of VM state and disk
D. A file transfer method
Answer: C
Explanation: Snapshots capture the VM’s current state, disk, and optionally memory.
15. What is required for VMotion to work properly?
A. Shared storage
B. Identical hostnames
C. Active Directory
D. IPv6
Answer: A
Explanation: Shared storage ensures that both source and destination hosts have access to VM files.
16. Which protocol is used for management traffic in ESXi?
A. HTTPS
B. VMkernel TCP/IP Stack
C. FTP
D. SSH
Answer: B
Explanation: The VMkernel TCP/IP Stack handles management, vMotion, and other system traffic.
17. What happens when a host in a vSphere cluster fails?
A. The cluster is disabled
B. VMs are deleted
C. VMs are restarted on another host
D. Network is disrupted
Answer: C
Explanation: With vSphere HA enabled, VMs are restarted on other hosts in the cluster.
18. What tool is used to upgrade ESXi hosts?
A. vSphere CLI
B. vSphere Replication
C. VMware Workstation
D. Host Profile
Answer: A
Explanation: vSphere CLI and Update Manager can be used to upgrade ESXi hosts remotely.
19. What is a host profile?
A. A VM template
B. A configuration baseline for ESXi hosts
C. A backup schedule
D. A virtual switch setting
Answer: B
Explanation: Host profiles store host configurations for consistency and compliance enforcement.
20. Which log file contains ESXi boot and system startup messages?
A. vmkernel.log
B. messages.log
C. syslog.log
D. hostd.log
Answer: B
Explanation: messages.log contains general system and boot logs on ESXi.
21. What type of licensing is required for vSphere DRS?
A. vSphere Essentials
B. vSphere Standard
C. vSphere Enterprise Plus
D. vSphere Free
Answer: C
Explanation: DRS requires Enterprise Plus licensing or higher.
22. How is access control managed in vCenter?
A. ACL lists
B. Role-based access control (RBAC)
C. NTFS permissions
D. User groups only
Answer: B
Explanation: RBAC is used to assign roles and permissions at different vCenter object levels.
23. What feature provides continuous availability for critical VMs?
A. DRS
B. HA
C. FT (Fault Tolerance)
D. VMotion
Answer: C
Explanation: VMware Fault Tolerance keeps an identical VM running on another host to ensure no downtime.
24. Which component is responsible for VM scheduling on an ESXi host?
A. vSphere Scheduler
B. vSphere Client
C. VMkernel
D. vSphere DRS
Answer: C
Explanation: The VMkernel schedules CPU and memory for virtual machines.
25. What is the function of vSphere Lifecycle Manager?
A. Replicate VMs across sites
B. Orchestrate VM backups
C. Manage host patching and upgrades
D. Monitor guest OS
Answer: C
Explanation: Lifecycle Manager simplifies host patching and upgrade workflows.
26. What is the default username for the VCSA appliance shell?
A. root
B. admin
C. vmware
D. administrator
Answer: A
Explanation: The default username is root for accessing the VCSA shell interface.
27. Which feature ensures VMs are evenly distributed across hosts?
A. FT
B. HA
C. Storage DRS
D. DRS
Answer: D
Explanation: DRS continuously balances VMs based on resource usage.
28. What is a requirement for enabling vSphere HA?
A. Shared storage only
B. Static IPs on VMs
C. vCenter Server
D. VM encryption
Answer: C
Explanation: vSphere HA depends on vCenter Server for configuration and management.
29. What is the purpose of vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA)?
A. Manage backups only
B. Centralized control of ESXi hosts
C. Deploy templates
D. Monitor network traffic
Answer: B
Explanation: VCSA is the management platform for vSphere environments.
30. Which method can be used to increase storage on a VMFS datastore?
A. Extend the volume
B. Use local disk
C. Resize the VM disk
D. Migrate to NFS
Answer: A
Explanation: You can increase VMFS capacity by extending the underlying volume or LUN.
31. Which vSphere feature helps minimize downtime during planned maintenance of hosts?
A. VMotion
B. Fault Tolerance
C. vSphere Replication
D. Storage DRS
Answer: A
Explanation: VMotion allows live migration of running virtual machines from one host to another without downtime, enabling maintenance.
32. Which of the following is required for configuring vSphere FT (Fault Tolerance)?
A. VM snapshots
B. Shared graphics card
C. Shared storage and VMkernel FT network
D. NFS version 2
Answer: C
Explanation: FT requires shared storage and a dedicated VMkernel network configured for fault tolerance logging.
33. What is the primary benefit of using vSphere Tags?
A. VM snapshotting
B. Dynamic memory allocation
C. Organizing and searching objects
D. Monitoring performance
Answer: C
Explanation: Tags allow administrators to categorize and easily search for objects in the vSphere inventory.
34. When using vSphere Replication, what must be deployed to enable replication traffic?
A. NSX Edge
B. Replication Agent
C. VMkernel adapter
D. Replication appliance
Answer: D
Explanation: The vSphere Replication Appliance must be deployed to configure and manage replication between sites.
35. Which of the following tools can generate health reports for vSphere environments?
A. vSphere Update Manager
B. vSphere Client
C. vSphere Skyline Health
D. VMkernel logs
Answer: C
Explanation: vSphere Skyline Health provides health and configuration status for hosts and clusters.
36. Which network adapter type offers the best performance for VMs in vSphere 7+?
A. E1000
B. Flexible
C. VMXNET 3
D. SR-IOV
Answer: C
Explanation: VMXNET 3 is optimized for performance in VMware environments and supports advanced networking features.
37. What must be configured to support iSCSI-based storage in vSphere?
A. NFS Export
B. VMFS Plugin
C. VMkernel port with iSCSI binding
D. USB Passthrough
Answer: C
Explanation: iSCSI storage access requires VMkernel ports configured and bound to the iSCSI software adapter.
38. What is the primary purpose of vCenter Single Sign-On (SSO)?
A. Encrypt VM disks
B. Provide secure user authentication
C. Monitor guest OS
D. Schedule backups
Answer: B
Explanation: SSO centralizes authentication for all vSphere components and users across the environment.
39. What vSphere feature enables automating host image management and updates?
A. DRS
B. Update Manager
C. Lifecycle Manager
D. Auto Deploy
Answer: C
Explanation: vSphere Lifecycle Manager automates patching and host image compliance for clusters.
40. In a vSphere cluster, what is the effect of enabling admission control?
A. Ensures all VMs restart during failover
B. Disables vMotion
C. Prioritizes FT traffic
D. Automatically removes inactive users
Answer: A
Explanation: Admission control reserves cluster resources to ensure VM failover capacity in case of host failure.
41. How is time synchronization recommended in vSphere environments?
A. By syncing all VMs to the ESXi host
B. By syncing ESXi hosts to VMs
C. By disabling NTP on hosts
D. By using the vCenter UI for updates
Answer: A
Explanation: Best practice is to configure ESXi hosts to sync with an NTP source, then VMs sync with the host.
42. What is the function of the vSphere Client?
A. Host encryption
B. ESXi OS upgrade
C. User interface for managing vCenter
D. vSAN performance testing
Answer: C
Explanation: The vSphere Client is a web-based UI for managing vCenter Server and ESXi hosts.
43. Which of the following is NOT supported as a direct boot medium for ESXi installation?
A. USB
B. CD/DVD
C. PXE Boot
D. Floppy Disk
Answer: D
Explanation: ESXi cannot be installed from floppy disk; it supports USB, CD/DVD, and PXE boot.
44. What is the result of enabling EVC (Enhanced vMotion Compatibility)?
A. Disables HA
B. Forces VM shutdown
C. Masks CPU features to support VMotion
D. Limits RAM usage
Answer: C
Explanation: EVC ensures VMotion compatibility by standardizing visible CPU features across cluster hosts.
45. What is the recommended practice for ESXi host name resolution?
A. Use /etc/hosts only
B. Use static IPs with no DNS
C. Use FQDN with DNS resolution
D. Rely on NetBIOS
Answer: C
Explanation: VMware recommends using Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDN) with proper DNS resolution.
46. What kind of backup is supported by the VCSA built-in backup tool?
A. Tape backup
B. SAN replication
C. File-level backup to HTTP/SFTP/NFS
D. Encrypted VADP
Answer: C
Explanation: VCSA supports file-level backups to various network protocols like HTTP, HTTPS, SFTP, and NFS.
47. How are virtual machine templates used in vSphere?
A. For patching VMs
B. As snapshots
C. For quick VM provisioning
D. For clustering
Answer: C
Explanation: Templates allow rapid provisioning of new virtual machines with predefined configurations.
48. What action can you perform with vSphere’s Instant Clone feature?
A. Perform VM backup
B. Copy only VM metadata
C. Clone running VMs instantly without powering off
D. Transfer VMs across vCenters
Answer: C
Explanation: Instant Clone allows near-instantaneous creation of a VM from another VM without downtime.
49. How are virtual machines isolated from each other on the same host?
A. VLANs
B. Physical NICs
C. VMkernel modules
D. Hardware virtualization and hypervisor enforcement
Answer: D
Explanation: VMware’s hypervisor uses strict memory, CPU, and resource isolation between VMs.
50. Which log file records VM management operations in vSphere?
A. vmware.log
B. esx.log
C. vpxa.log
D. vobd.log
Answer: A
Explanation: Each VM has its own vmware.log file that tracks operations like power on/off and migrations.
51. What is the function of vpxa agent in vSphere?
A. NTP synchronization
B. Enables VM snapshotting
C. Facilitates communication between vCenter and ESXi
D. Upgrades the VM hardware version
Answer: C
Explanation: The vpxa agent runs on each ESXi host and manages communication with vCenter Server.
52. What is the primary advantage of using Resource Pools?
A. Increased storage performance
B. VM snapshot rollback
C. Logical grouping and resource prioritization
D. Isolation of VM templates
Answer: C
Explanation: Resource Pools allow grouping VMs and setting CPU/memory shares for priority management.
53. Which feature allows you to schedule automated tasks in vSphere?
A. PowerCLI
B. vSphere Tasks
C. Alarm Rules
D. Scheduled Tasks
Answer: D
Explanation: Scheduled Tasks allow predefined actions like powering on/off VMs or snapshots at specific times.
54. What happens when a VM is suspended in vSphere?
A. It reboots
B. It is deleted
C. Its state is saved to disk
D. It migrates to another host
Answer: C
Explanation: Suspended VMs write their memory state to disk and stop execution until resumed.
55. Which component enables vCenter Server to send alerts and alarms?
A. Host Agent
B. Syslog Server
C. SNMP Service
D. vCenter Alarm System
Answer: D
Explanation: The vCenter Alarm System monitors objects and triggers alerts based on defined rules.
56. Which command-line tool allows low-level access to ESXi configurations?
A. PowerCLI
B. vSphere Web Client
C. esxcli
D. vmkfstools
Answer: C
Explanation: esxcli is the primary command-line interface for configuring and managing ESXi hosts.
57. What file system is used for storing virtual machines on VMware shared block storage?
A. NTFS
B. XFS
C. VMFS
D. EXT4
Answer: C
Explanation: VMFS (Virtual Machine File System) is used for shared storage in vSphere environments.
58. What is the primary function of the vSphere Content Library?
A. License management
B. Hosting VM snapshots
C. Centralized storage of VM templates, ISOs, scripts
D. Managing network configurations
Answer: C
Explanation: The Content Library provides centralized, version-controlled storage for reusable VM assets.
59. What is the purpose of setting VM affinity rules?
A. Prevent VMs from migrating
B. Keep specific VMs together on the same host
C. Ensure VMs only use certain datastores
D. Restrict network usage
Answer: B
Explanation: Affinity rules define host preferences for VM placement, such as keeping certain VMs on the same host.
60. How does vSAN store virtual machine data?
A. On local disks without redundancy
B. In external shared storage only
C. In a distributed manner across ESXi hosts
D. On backup tape libraries
Answer: C
Explanation: vSAN aggregates local disks from multiple hosts into a single distributed datastore with redundancy and performance features.
