🆓 Free CCNP Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0) Practice Exam
Looking to master enterprise-level switching technologies and pass the CCNP SWITCH (300-115) exam with confidence? This free CCNP Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0) practice exam from Exam Sage is designed to help you build a strong foundation in Cisco switching concepts and troubleshoot complex enterprise networks—one question at a time.
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This practice test is a realistic, high-quality simulation of the Cisco SWITCH (300-115) exam, based on the SWITCH v2.0 exam blueprint. Crafted by networking professionals and trainers, it’s structured to mirror the exam format, difficulty level, and topic distribution so you know exactly what to expect on test day.
Whether you’re brushing up before the exam or assessing your current knowledge, this free tool will help you spot weaknesses and improve your readiness.
📚 What You Will Learn
This free CCNP SWITCH practice exam focuses on core concepts essential for the real-world role of a network engineer. By completing this exam, you’ll strengthen your skills in:
Layer 2 Switching Technologies
VLANs, Trunking, and EtherChannel
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP, RSTP, MSTP)
Switch Security Features (DHCP Snooping, DAI, Port Security)
High Availability and Redundancy Protocols (HSRP, VRRP, GLBP)
Infrastructure Services (Syslog, SNMP, SPAN)
Switch Management and Configuration Best Practices
Each question comes with a detailed explanation, making it easy to understand both the what and why behind every correct answer.
🧠Topics Covered in This Exam
This free CCNP SWITCH v2.0 practice test is based on the official Cisco exam objectives, including:
Network Design and Deployment of Enterprise Switching Solutions
Implementation of Layer 2 Technologies
Switching Security Features
High Availability Mechanisms
Monitoring and Maintenance of Switched Networks
Troubleshooting of Layer 2 Connectivity Issues
🎯 How to Pass the CCNP SWITCH (300-115) Exam
To pass the Cisco CCNP SWITCH exam, you need a solid grasp of Layer 2 technologies, switching protocols, and real-world network design principles. Here’s how to boost your chances of success:
Master the Exam Blueprint – Focus on the official objectives to guide your study.
Practice with Purpose – Use this free Exam Sage practice test regularly to track progress.
Review Explanations – Understand why each answer is right or wrong.
Simulate Real Conditions – Take the exam in a timed setting to improve pacing.
Reinforce with Labs – Pair your study with hands-on Cisco lab simulations (GNS3, Packet Tracer, or physical gear).
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📥 Ready to Begin?
Click below to start your free CCNP SWITCH v2.0 practice exam and begin mastering the skills Cisco expects of its certified professionals. Test yourself, learn deeply, and pass with confidence—only on Exam Sage.
1. What is the default VLAN for all switch ports on a Cisco switch?
A. VLAN 0
B. VLAN 1
C. VLAN 100
D. VLAN 99
Answer: B. VLAN 1
Explanation: VLAN 1 is the default VLAN for all ports on Cisco switches. It is used for management and other control traffic unless reconfigured.
2. Which command verifies the current STP root bridge on a switch?
A. show spanning-tree root
B. show vlan brief
C. show spanning-tree
D. show mac address-table
Answer: C. show spanning-tree
Explanation: The show spanning-tree command displays the current STP information, including the root bridge ID and root port.
3. Which Cisco protocol provides a loop-free Layer 2 network topology?
A. VTP
B. CDP
C. STP
D. HSRP
Answer: C. STP
Explanation: The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops in Layer 2 switching environments.
4. In HSRP, what is the function of the ‘priority’ value?
A. It sets the physical interface bandwidth.
B. It determines the election of the active router.
C. It defines the hold time.
D. It configures authentication for the group.
Answer: B. It determines the election of the active router.
Explanation: The router with the highest priority becomes the active HSRP router.
5. Which two modes are valid for 802.1Q trunk negotiation using DTP? (Choose two)
A. Dynamic desirable
B. Static access
C. Trunk
D. Passive
E. Listening
Answer: A. Dynamic desirable, C. Trunk
Explanation: DTP allows interfaces configured in dynamic desirable and trunk mode to negotiate trunk links.
6. What is the purpose of VTP pruning?
A. It removes VLANs from the database.
B. It disables VLANs on access ports.
C. It prevents unnecessary VLAN traffic on trunk links.
D. It removes all untagged frames.
Answer: C. It prevents unnecessary VLAN traffic on trunk links.
Explanation: VTP pruning improves bandwidth efficiency by blocking VLAN traffic on trunks where it’s not needed.
7. Which command configures a port as an access port?
A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. switchport mode access
C. switchport access vlan trunk
D. switchport nonegotiate
Answer: B. switchport mode access
Explanation: This command forces the port to operate as an access port.
8. What feature allows a Layer 2 switch to prevent loops by blocking ports?
A. PortFast
B. STP
C. BPDU Guard
D. VTP
Answer: B. STP
Explanation: STP is responsible for detecting and blocking potential network loops.
9. Which port state allows the port to send and receive user data in STP?
A. Blocking
B. Listening
C. Learning
D. Forwarding
Answer: D. Forwarding
Explanation: The forwarding state enables full data forwarding.
10. Which feature enhances STP by enabling rapid convergence?
A. MST
B. RSTP
C. PVST+
D. VTP
Answer: B. RSTP
Explanation: Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol allows faster network convergence compared to traditional STP.
11. What does the command switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20 do?
A. Assigns VLAN 10 and 20 as native VLANs
B. Allows only VLANs 10 and 20 on the trunk
C. Converts the port into an access port
D. Disables all VLANs on the port
Answer: B. Allows only VLANs 10 and 20 on the trunk
Explanation: It restricts trunk traffic to VLANs 10 and 20 only.
12. What is the default administrative distance for EIGRP internal routes?
A. 110
B. 90
C. 120
D. 100
Answer: B. 90
Explanation: EIGRP internal routes have an administrative distance of 90.
13. Which command configures a switch to synchronize VTP info as a server?
A. vtp mode server
B. vtp mode transparent
C. vtp domain sync
D. vtp server
Answer: A. vtp mode server
Explanation: This enables the switch to create, modify, and propagate VLAN information.
14. What protocol is used to monitor devices in a Cisco network?
A. OSPF
B. VTP
C. SNMP
D. PPP
Answer: C. SNMP
Explanation: SNMP is used for network management and device monitoring.
15. Which command disables DTP negotiation?
A. switchport mode dynamic
B. switchport trunk nonegotiate
C. no dtp enable
D. switchport dtp disable
Answer: B. switchport trunk nonegotiate
Explanation: It disables the generation of DTP frames.
16. What is the native VLAN mismatch impact on a trunk link?
A. No impact
B. Frames are dropped
C. Spanning tree recalculates
D. VLANs are merged
Answer: B. Frames are dropped
Explanation: A native VLAN mismatch can cause untagged frames to be misrouted or dropped.
17. Which technology enables redundancy for default gateway at Layer 3?
A. EtherChannel
B. STP
C. HSRP
D. VTP
Answer: C. HSRP
Explanation: HSRP allows multiple routers to share a virtual IP for default gateway redundancy.
18. EtherChannel uses which of the following hashing methods by default?
A. Source MAC
B. Destination MAC
C. Source and destination IP
D. Source IP
Answer: A. Source MAC
Explanation: Cisco switches typically default to source MAC for load balancing unless reconfigured.
19. What is the benefit of PortFast?
A. Improves security on access ports
B. Allows access ports to skip STP states
C. Prevents BPDUs on trunks
D. Enables trunking
Answer: B. Allows access ports to skip STP states
Explanation: PortFast allows immediate transition to forwarding state.
20. Which statement is true about MST (Multiple Spanning Tree)?
A. One instance per VLAN
B. Faster than RSTP
C. Maps multiple VLANs to one instance
D. Supported on all switches by default
Answer: C. Maps multiple VLANs to one instance
Explanation: MST groups VLANs into logical instances to optimize STP performance.
21. In PVST+, which VLAN runs on a separate STP instance?
A. Native VLAN only
B. VLAN 1 only
C. Each VLAN
D. None
Answer: C. Each VLAN
Explanation: PVST+ runs a separate STP instance for each VLAN.
22. Which protocol allows EtherChannel to be negotiated between switches?
A. DTP
B. CDP
C. PAgP
D. LACP
Answer: C. PAgP
Explanation: Cisco’s proprietary Port Aggregation Protocol allows negotiation of EtherChannel.
23. What does BPDU Guard protect against?
A. VLAN mismatches
B. Native VLAN loops
C. Rogue switches
D. Trunk link failures
Answer: C. Rogue switches
Explanation: BPDU Guard disables ports receiving BPDUs unexpectedly to prevent rogue devices.
24. What is required for VTP advertisements to be accepted?
A. Same hostname
B. Same VTP password and domain
C. IP addressing
D. STP version match
Answer: B. Same VTP password and domain
Explanation: Mismatched domains or passwords cause VTP updates to be rejected.
25. Which protocol detects a unidirectional link on a fiber connection?
A. STP
B. UDLD
C. CDP
D. DTP
Answer: B. UDLD
Explanation: UniDirectional Link Detection detects one-way fiber communication failures.
26. What type of VLAN is used for voice traffic?
A. Native VLAN
B. Management VLAN
C. Access VLAN
D. Auxiliary VLAN
Answer: D. Auxiliary VLAN
Explanation: Voice VLANs (aka auxiliary VLANs) are used for carrying IP voice traffic.
27. What is the function of spanning-tree portfast bpduguard enable?
A. Forces the port into blocking state
B. Shuts down a port receiving BPDUs
C. Converts trunk to access
D. Enables root guard
Answer: B. Shuts down a port receiving BPDUs
Explanation: It disables the port upon receiving BPDUs on PortFast-enabled ports.
28. What does LACP use to identify its group members?
A. Switch MAC addresses
B. System priority and port priority
C. STP port roles
D. VLAN IDs
Answer: B. System priority and port priority
Explanation: LACP selects links based on system and port priority.
29. Which command assigns an IP address to a Layer 3 switch interface?
A. ip address vlan 1
B. interface vlan 1
C. interface fa0/1 → ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
D. ip route
Answer: C.
Explanation: Assigning an IP to a routed interface (not SVI) requires Layer 3 mode on the interface.
30. Which action occurs when you configure a Layer 2 EtherChannel?
A. STP disables the group
B. The bundle appears as a single logical link
C. IP addresses are assigned to all ports
D. VTP domains are synced
Answer: B. The bundle appears as a single logical link
Explanation: EtherChannel groups interfaces into one logical interface for redundancy and load balancing.
Set 2
1. What is the default STP priority value for all Cisco switches?
A. 4096
B. 8192
C. 32768
D. 65535
Answer: C. 32768
Explanation:
Cisco switches use a default bridge priority of 32768 in the spanning tree protocol. The bridge ID is composed of the bridge priority and the MAC address.
2. Which protocol is used to bundle multiple physical links into a single logical link in Cisco switches?
A. VTP
B. DTP
C. EtherChannel
D. STP
Answer: C. EtherChannel
Explanation:
EtherChannel allows multiple physical interfaces to be combined into a single logical link, increasing bandwidth and providing redundancy.
3. Which command enables Rapid PVST+ on a Cisco switch?
A. spanning-tree mode mst
B. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
C. spanning-tree mode pvst
D. spanning-tree mode rstp
Answer: B. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
Explanation:
Cisco supports Rapid PVST+ for faster convergence using this exact command under global configuration.
4. What is the effect of enabling PortFast on a switch port?
A. It disables spanning tree on the port.
B. It places the port into forwarding state immediately.
C. It enables trunking.
D. It prevents BPDU transmission.
Answer: B. It places the port into forwarding state immediately.
Explanation:
PortFast allows ports connected to end devices to skip STP states (listening/learning) and go directly to forwarding.
5. Which VLAN ID is reserved and cannot be used or deleted?
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 1001
D. 0
Answer: B. 4095
Explanation:
VLAN 4095 is a reserved VLAN and cannot be used, deleted, or assigned to any port.
6. What does the Root Guard feature prevent in a switch network?
A. STP loops
B. Unauthorized root bridge election
C. VLAN hopping
D. MAC flooding
Answer: B. Unauthorized root bridge election
Explanation:
Root Guard prevents other switches from becoming the root bridge by blocking ports receiving superior BPDUs.
7. Which VLAN range is eligible for VTP advertisements in VTP version 1 and 2?
A. 1–4094
B. 2–1001
C. 1–1005
D. 1006–4094
Answer: C. 1–1005
Explanation:
VTP v1 and v2 support standard VLANs from 1 to 1005.
8. What is the purpose of BPDU Guard?
A. Prevents trunk negotiation
B. Disables a port that receives BPDUs
C. Converts access ports to trunk ports
D. Prevents VTP mismatches
Answer: B. Disables a port that receives BPDUs
Explanation:
BPDU Guard disables a port configured with PortFast if it receives a BPDU, protecting the STP topology.
9. Which EtherChannel protocol is Cisco proprietary?
A. PAgP
B. LACP
C. DTP
D. STP
Answer: A. PAgP
Explanation:
Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) is Cisco proprietary, whereas LACP is part of IEEE 802.3ad.
10. What is the default VTP mode on Cisco switches?
A. Server
B. Transparent
C. Client
D. Off
Answer: A. Server
Explanation:
By default, Cisco switches operate in VTP server mode, allowing creation, modification, and deletion of VLANs.
11. Which state in STP is responsible for learning MAC addresses?
A. Blocking
B. Listening
C. Learning
D. Disabled
Answer: C. Learning
Explanation:
In the Learning state, the switch begins to build its MAC address table but does not forward frames yet.
12. Which protocol is used for loop prevention in a Layer 2 network?
A. CDP
B. STP
C. ARP
D. LLDP
Answer: B. STP
Explanation:
The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) eliminates switching loops in Layer 2 topologies.
13. What is the default aging time for MAC address entries on Cisco switches?
A. 100 seconds
B. 300 seconds
C. 600 seconds
D. 900 seconds
Answer: B. 300 seconds
Explanation:
By default, a learned MAC address ages out after 300 seconds of inactivity.
14. Which command shows if EtherChannel is working properly?
A. show etherchannel summary
B. show vlan brief
C. show spanning-tree
D. show interfaces trunk
Answer: A. show etherchannel summary
Explanation:
This command displays EtherChannel status, protocol, and operational ports.
15. What is the purpose of VTP pruning?
A. Limits VTP advertisements
B. Reduces broadcast traffic
C. Stops VLAN creation
D. Prevents VLAN deletions
Answer: B. Reduces broadcast traffic
Explanation:
VTP pruning prevents unnecessary traffic from being flooded to switches that don’t have ports in specific VLANs.
16. In PVST+, how many STP instances are created?
A. One per VLAN
B. One per trunk
C. One per switch
D. One per domain
Answer: A. One per VLAN
Explanation:
PVST+ creates a separate STP instance per VLAN, allowing better traffic engineering.
17. What does the command switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q do?
A. Enables ISL
B. Enables DTP
C. Sets 802.1Q encapsulation
D. Prunes VLANs
Answer: C. Sets 802.1Q encapsulation
Explanation:
This command specifies 802.1Q as the trunking encapsulation protocol.
18. Which command disables DTP negotiation on a trunk port?
A. switchport trunk allowed vlan none
B. switchport mode access
C. switchport nonegotiate
D. no switchport
Answer: C. switchport nonegotiate
Explanation:**switchport nonegotiate** disables DTP, preventing the port from sending or responding to DTP frames.
19. What is a result of a VLAN mismatch across a trunk link?
A. Spanning-tree failure
B. Port shutdown
C. Miscommunication between switches
D. No effect
Answer: C. Miscommunication between switches
Explanation:
VLAN mismatches lead to broadcast storms or communication failures between devices in the same VLAN.
20. Which feature limits the number of MAC addresses learned on a switchport?
A. Storm Control
B. Port Security
C. ACL
D. BPDU Filter
Answer: B. Port Security
Explanation:
Port Security allows administrators to limit the number of MAC addresses on an interface.
21. What happens when the allowed VLANs on both ends of a trunk don’t match?
A. Traffic flows normally
B. STP blocks the port
C. Unidirectional communication
D. Only common VLANs pass traffic
Answer: D. Only common VLANs pass traffic
Explanation:
Only VLANs allowed on both sides of the trunk can pass traffic; others are filtered.
22. What protocol allows dynamic negotiation of trunk links?
A. DTP
B. STP
C. LACP
D. VTP
Answer: A. DTP
Explanation:
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) negotiates whether a port becomes trunk or access.
23. What is the native VLAN used for in 802.1Q trunks?
A. Pruning VLAN
B. VLAN for management
C. VLAN for untagged traffic
D. Backup VLAN
Answer: C. VLAN for untagged traffic
Explanation:
Native VLAN carries untagged frames on an 802.1Q trunk link.
24. Which feature can disable a port upon receiving a BPDU?
A. BPDU Filter
B. Root Guard
C. BPDU Guard
D. Loop Guard
Answer: C. BPDU Guard
Explanation:
BPDU Guard disables a PortFast-enabled port if a BPDU is received.
25. What is the purpose of UDLD in Cisco switches?
A. Detects unauthorized switches
B. Monitors unidirectional links
C. Authenticates trunk ports
D. Monitors spanning tree
Answer: B. Monitors unidirectional links
Explanation:
Unidirectional Link Detection (UDLD) detects one-way connections which could cause loops.
26. Which command is used to make a switch the root bridge for a specific VLAN?
A. spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 32768
B. spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mode pvst
D. switchport mode trunk
Answer: B. spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary
Explanation:
This command automatically adjusts the bridge priority to become root for VLAN 1.
27. What is the maximum number of switches that can participate in VTP?
A. 10
B. 100
C. 254
D. Unlimited
Answer: D. Unlimited
Explanation:
VTP has no hard limit; it depends on network design and scalability.
28. Which LACP mode is passive?
A. Auto
B. Desirable
C. Active
D. Passive
Answer: D. Passive
Explanation:
Passive LACP waits for an Active partner to initiate negotiation.
29. Which switching method begins forwarding after receiving the complete frame?
A. Cut-through
B. Fragment-free
C. Store-and-forward
D. Adaptive
Answer: C. Store-and-forward
Explanation:
Store-and-forward reads the entire frame, performs CRC check, then forwards.
30. Which two protocols are used by MST? (Choose two)
A. RSTP
B. PVST
C. IEEE 802.1s
D. ISL
Answer: A. RSTP and C. IEEE 802.1s
Explanation:
Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) uses RSTP as its basis, and 802.1s is the MST standard.
Set 3
1. Which of the following best describes the primary function of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
A. Assign IP addresses to switches
B. Prevent broadcast storms and Layer 2 loops
C. Monitor port utilization
D. Block MAC address spoofing
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: STP is a Layer 2 protocol that prevents network loops by blocking redundant paths in a switched Ethernet network. This ensures a loop-free topology and prevents broadcast storms that could degrade network performance.
2. Which command verifies if a switch is the root bridge in a VLAN using Rapid PVST+?
A. show vlan
B. show spanning-tree vlan <id>
C. show vtp status
D. show mac address-table
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The show spanning-tree vlan <id> command displays the STP details for a specific VLAN. It shows whether the switch is the root bridge and provides details on port roles and states.
3. In a redundant topology using EtherChannel, what must be consistent across all ports in the bundle?
A. Port MAC addresses
B. Interface speed and duplex
C. VLAN database settings
D. IP helper addresses
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: All interfaces in an EtherChannel must have matching speed, duplex, and trunking mode. If they differ, the channel may not form properly, leading to instability or failure.
4. What is the purpose of HSRP in a switched network?
A. To provide Layer 2 loop prevention
B. To manage multicast group membership
C. To offer Layer 3 default gateway redundancy
D. To prevent IP spoofing attacks
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) provides high availability for the default gateway in a LAN by allowing multiple routers to back each other up.
5. Which STP enhancement reduces the time it takes for a port to transition to the forwarding state?
A. BPDU Guard
B. PortFast
C. Root Guard
D. UDLD
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: PortFast is enabled on access ports to allow them to bypass the listening and learning states, transitioning immediately to forwarding. This is ideal for end devices.
6. What is the primary benefit of using Private VLANs in a switched network?
A. Reduces VLAN sprawl
B. Secures Layer 3 interfaces
C. Provides Layer 2 isolation between hosts in the same VLAN
D. Ensures voice VLAN prioritization
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Private VLANs allow devices in the same VLAN to be isolated from each other at Layer 2, enhancing security in shared environments such as data centers.
7. What is the default STP mode on most Cisco Catalyst switches running IOS?
A. MST
B. RPVST+
C. PVST+
D. STP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Per VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (PVST+) is the default on Cisco Catalyst switches, allowing a separate STP instance for each VLAN.
8. Which port role in STP forwards frames and is part of the active topology?
A. Root
B. Designated
C. Blocking
D. Disabled
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The designated port is the one that sends and receives traffic on behalf of a segment. It is in the forwarding state and part of the active STP topology.
9. What is the significance of the Bridge Priority value in STP root bridge elections?
A. Higher values win elections
B. It’s only used for load balancing
C. Lower values are preferred
D. It sets the max age for BPDUs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: STP uses the lowest bridge ID (priority + MAC address) to elect the root bridge. A lower priority increases the likelihood of a switch becoming the root.
10. Which VLAN is used for native VLAN traffic by default on Cisco switches?
A. VLAN 0
B. VLAN 1
C. VLAN 1002
D. VLAN 4096
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: VLAN 1 is the default native VLAN on Cisco switches. It is used for untagged traffic on trunk links unless manually changed.
11. Which command is used to manually assign a switch as the root bridge for a VLAN?
A. spanning-tree vlan 10 mode root primary
B. set spanning-tree priority 32768
C. spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
D. spanning-tree mode mst
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The command spanning-tree vlan <id> root primary adjusts the bridge priority to ensure the switch becomes the root bridge for the specified VLAN.
12. What is the purpose of BPDU Guard?
A. Ensures BPDUs are encrypted
B. Blocks incoming BPDUs on access ports
C. Prevents routing loops
D. Allows STP convergence faster
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: BPDU Guard disables a port that receives BPDUs when it’s configured for PortFast. This protects against rogue switches being introduced into the network.
13. In which EtherChannel protocol does both ends need to be configured actively to form a channel?
A. LACP
B. PAgP
C. Manual
D. STP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) requires both ends to be set to active or one side active and the other passive for the channel to form.
14. What does UDLD detect in a switched network?
A. MAC address spoofing
B. STP loops
C. Unidirectional link failures
D. VLAN hopping
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: UDLD (Unidirectional Link Detection) detects and disables interfaces with one-way communication problems, which could lead to network loops or black holes.
15. What is the default HSRP priority value?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The default HSRP priority value is 100. The router with the highest priority becomes the active router unless preemption is disabled.
16. Which command shows EtherChannel status on a Cisco switch?
A. show interfaces switchport
B. show etherchannel summary
C. show running-config
D. show spanning-tree vlan
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The command show etherchannel summary provides a quick overview of the EtherChannel status, including its mode, protocol, and member interfaces.
17. Which STP mode supports all VLANs using one instance of STP?
A. PVST+
B. RPVST+
C. MST
D. STP Classic
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) maps multiple VLANs into a single STP instance, conserving CPU and memory resources on switches.
18. Which protocol allows routers to share virtual IP and MAC addresses for gateway redundancy?
A. STP
B. EtherChannel
C. HSRP
D. VTP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: HSRP enables multiple routers to present a single virtual gateway IP and MAC address to hosts for redundancy purposes.
19. What feature allows traffic to remain on the local switch without being sent to the upstream switch?
A. PVLAN
B. VTP
C. DAI
D. Local Switching
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Private VLANs (PVLANs) keep traffic isolated within a VLAN, such as between isolated and community ports, reducing unnecessary upstream traffic.
20. Which two port states exist in Rapid PVST+ but not in traditional 802.1D STP?
A. Blocking, Listening
B. Discarding, Learning
C. Forwarding, Blocking
D. Disabled, Forwarding
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rapid PVST+ uses discarding, learning, and forwarding states to simplify STP convergence and improve efficiency compared to legacy STP.
21. What is the default VLAN for all switch ports when a Cisco switch is powered on?
A. VLAN 10
B. VLAN 1
C. VLAN 1000
D. VLAN 0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: All switch ports are assigned to VLAN 1 by default, making it the default administrative VLAN on most Cisco switches.
22. In HSRP, which router responds to ARP requests for the virtual IP?
A. Active router
B. Standby router
C. All routers in the group
D. The router with the lowest IP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The HSRP active router responds to ARP requests and forwards traffic destined for the virtual IP address.
23. Which VLAN range is eligible for dynamic assignment by VTP by default?
A. 1–4094
B. 2–1001
C. 1006–4094
D. 0–1005
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: VTP can manage VLANs in the range of 1–1005 by default. Extended VLANs (1006–4094) require VTP version 3 or manual configuration.
24. What function does Root Guard serve in STP?
A. Prevents loops on access ports
B. Stops rogue switches from becoming root
C. Blocks multicast storms
D. Reduces convergence time
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Root Guard ensures that a port cannot become a root port, effectively preventing other switches from becoming the STP root bridge unexpectedly.
25. Which Cisco technology provides VLAN assignment based on user credentials?
A. 802.1X
B. VTP
C. DTP
D. STP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 802.1X with dynamic VLAN assignment allows network access control and VLAN membership based on user authentication.
26. What happens if a switch in MST has inconsistent region configuration?
A. It shuts down
B. It becomes a root bridge
C. It treats the link as a boundary and runs PVST+
D. It switches to RSTP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: If MST region parameters differ between switches, the boundary is treated as an STP boundary and falls back to PVST+ compatibility mode.
27. What is the default hello time for STP BPDUs?
A. 1 second
B. 2 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 15 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The default hello interval for STP BPDUs is 2 seconds, which helps maintain network topology awareness and convergence.
28. What is the maximum number of VLANs supported in standard VTP?
A. 256
B. 1001
C. 4094
D. 1024
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: VTP versions 1 and 2 support VLANs up to 1005. For more VLANs (up to 4094), VTP version 3 must be used.
29. What type of port is used in PVLANs to connect to a router or firewall?
A. Isolated
B. Community
C. Promiscuous
D. Trunk
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Promiscuous ports can communicate with all other ports in the PVLAN, making them suitable for gateways such as routers or firewalls.
30. In an STP topology, what port type discards traffic but still listens to BPDUs?
A. Listening
B. Forwarding
C. Learning
D. Discarding
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In Rapid STP, the discarding state prevents loops by discarding frames while still processing BPDUs to maintain topology information.
1. Which command enables PortFast on a specific interface?
A. spanning-tree portfast default
B. spanning-tree portfast enable
C. spanning-tree portfast
D. enable portfast
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The spanning-tree portfast command is applied in interface configuration mode to enable PortFast on that specific interface. This allows the port to transition immediately to the forwarding state, which is useful for ports connected to end devices.
2. What is the primary function of the Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP)?
A. Assign IP addresses to switches
B. Negotiate trunking on a link between two switches
C. Provide redundancy for default gateways
D. Monitor port utilization
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: DTP is a Cisco proprietary protocol that negotiates trunking on a link between two switches and manages the trunking characteristics of the link.
3. In HSRP, what is the effect of configuring the preempt command?
A. Prevents the router from becoming active
B. Allows a higher priority router to take over the active role
C. Disables HSRP on the interface
D. Sets the router’s priority to the highest value
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The preempt command allows a router with a higher priority to take over the active role in HSRP if it comes online after the current active router.
4. Which VLANs are automatically pruned when using VTP pruning?
A. VLANs 1-1005
B. VLANs not in use on a trunk link
C. All VLANs except VLAN 1
D. Only extended-range VLANs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: VTP pruning prevents VLANs that are not in use on a trunk link from being flooded with unnecessary broadcast traffic, thereby optimizing bandwidth.Cisco Press
5. What is the purpose of the spanning-tree bpdufilter enable command on an interface?
A. Allows BPDUs to be sent and received
B. Filters BPDUs on the interface, preventing them from being sent or received
C. Enables BPDU Guard on the interface
D. Sets the interface to a forwarding state
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The spanning-tree bpdufilter enable command prevents the interface from sending or receiving BPDUs. This is typically used on ports where STP is not desired.
6. Which command displays the current EtherChannel summary on a Cisco switch?
A. show etherchannel
B. show etherchannel summary
C. show port-channel
D. show channel-group
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The show etherchannel summary command provides a concise overview of the EtherChannel groups, their status, and the interfaces involved.
7. What is the default load-balancing method used by EtherChannel on Cisco switches?
A. Source MAC address
B. Destination MAC address
C. Source and destination IP address
D. Source and destination MAC address
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: By default, EtherChannel uses the source and destination MAC address to distribute traffic across the links in the channel.
8. Which command enables Rapid PVST+ on a Cisco switch?
A. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
B. spanning-tree mode pvst
C. spanning-tree mode mst
D. spanning-tree mode rstp
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst command configures the switch to use Rapid PVST+, which provides faster convergence than traditional STP.
9. In MST, what is the purpose of the revision number?
A. Identifies the MST region
B. Specifies the number of instances
C. Indicates the VLANs mapped to each instance
D. Determines the root bridge
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The revision number, along with the name and VLAN-to-instance mapping, identifies the MST region. All switches in the same region must have the same configuration.
10. What is the effect of enabling BPDU Guard on a PortFast-enabled interface?
A. The port transitions to blocking state upon receiving a BPDU
B. The port is shut down upon receiving a BPDU
C. The port ignores all BPDUs
D. The port becomes a trunk port
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: BPDU Guard disables the port (err-disable) if a BPDU is received on a PortFast-enabled interface, protecting the network from potential loops.
11. Which command sets the priority of a switch to ensure it becomes the root bridge for VLAN 10?
A. spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0
B. spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
C. spanning-tree vlan 10 root secondary
D. spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary command adjusts the switch’s priority to a value lower than the current root bridge, making it the root for VLAN 10.
12. What is the default STP port cost for a 100 Mbps link?
A. 100
B. 19
C. 4
D. 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In STP, the default cost for a 100 Mbps link is 19. This cost is used to determine the best path to the root bridge.
13. Which feature allows a switch to detect and disable unidirectional links?
A. UDLD
B. BPDU Guard
C. Root Guard
D. Loop Guard
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: UDLD (Unidirectional Link Detection) detects unidirectional links and disables the affected port to prevent potential issues in the network.Eve University Pathfinder+1Amazon+1Cisco Press+9kwtrain.com+9Cisco Community+9
14. In HSRP, what is the virtual MAC address format for group 1?
A. 0000.0C07.AC01
B. 0000.0C9F.F001
C. 0007.B400.0101
D. 0000.5E00.0101
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: HSRP uses the MAC address format 0000.0C07.ACxx, where xx is the HSRP group number in hexadecimal. For group 1, it is 01.
15. Which command disables DTP on an interface?
A. switchport nonegotiate
B. no switchport mode dynamic
C. switchport mode access
D. switchport mode trunk
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The switchport nonegotiate command disables DTP on the interface, preventing it from sending DTP frames. This is useful when connecting to devices that do not support DTP.
16. What is the purpose of the spanning-tree portfast trunk command?
A. Enables PortFast on access ports
B. Enables PortFast on trunk ports
C. Disables STP on trunk ports
D. Sets the port to trunk mode
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The spanning-tree portfast trunk command enables PortFast on trunk ports, allowing them to transition to forwarding state immediately. This is useful for ports connected to servers or other switches that do not participate in STP.
17. Which command displays the VLANs allowed on a trunk port?
A. show vlan
B. show interfaces trunk
C. show interfaces switchport
D. show running-config
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The show interfaces trunk command displays information about trunk ports, including the VLANs allowed on each trunk.
Set 4
1. What happens when a port configured with PortFast receives a BPDU?
A. It transitions to the blocking state
B. It transitions to the listening state
C. It is shut down if BPDU Guard is enabled
D. It disables PortFast
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: PortFast ports that receive BPDUs are shut down if BPDU Guard is enabled, preventing potential loops from edge devices.
2. Which Cisco protocol enables VLAN information to be propagated across switches?
A. DTP
B. CDP
C. VTP
D. STP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) is used to manage VLAN configurations consistently across multiple switches in the same VTP domain.
3. Which spanning-tree enhancement disables a port that receives superior BPDUs?
A. BPDU Guard
B. Root Guard
C. Loop Guard
D. PortFast
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Root Guard prevents a designated port from becoming the root port if superior BPDUs are received, maintaining topology stability.
4. What is the function of the switchport mode trunk command?
A. Enables DTP
B. Forces the port to trunk mode
C. Disables trunking
D. Sets VLAN encapsulation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This command configures a port to always operate as a trunk, regardless of DTP negotiation.
5. What is the purpose of VLAN access maps?
A. Configure VLAN IDs
B. Restrict VLAN access based on criteria
C. Dynamically assign VLANs
D. Convert VLANs to trunks
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: VLAN access maps allow you to apply filtering and security policies to specific VLANs, functioning like ACLs at Layer 2.
6. What happens if two switches have the same bridge priority and MAC in STP?
A. The topology becomes unstable
B. The network loops
C. It is not possible
D. One will be randomly selected as root
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: MAC addresses are unique. Two switches can’t have the same MAC, so this situation shouldn’t occur.
7. What protocol is used for multicast distribution in HSRP?
A. 224.0.0.2
B. 224.0.0.18
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 224.0.0.102
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: HSRP uses multicast IP 224.0.0.2 (version 1) and 224.0.0.102 (version 2) for communication between routers.
8. Which interface status indicates an EtherChannel mismatch?
A. Up/Up
B. Down/Down
C. Up/Down
D. Disabled
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: If there’s a mismatch in EtherChannel configuration, the interface may show up/down or err-disabled.
9. What is the main purpose of RSPAN (Remote SPAN)?
A. Extend STP domains
B. Copy traffic to a remote switch for monitoring
C. Trunk remote VLANs
D. Encrypt VLAN traffic
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: RSPAN allows you to monitor traffic from one switch and send it across the network to another switch for analysis.
10. In a VTP domain, what revision number causes VLAN changes?
A. Lower revision number
B. Equal revision number
C. Higher revision number
D. Any revision number
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Switches with a higher revision number will overwrite VLAN information on other switches in the VTP domain.
11. What command verifies VLAN to MST instance mapping?
A. show vlan
B. show spanning-tree mst configuration
C. show mst vlan
D. show spanning-tree vlan
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This command displays the MST configuration, including VLAN-to-instance mappings.
12. What is the role of the alternate port in RSTP?
A. Listens for BPDUs
B. Replaces the root port if it fails
C. Sends BPDUs to the root
D. Filters traffic
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Alternate ports in RSTP act as backup root ports that take over if the current root port fails.
13. Which protocol is required to implement VRRP on Cisco devices?
A. None, it’s built-in
B. OSPF
C. HSRP
D. EIGRP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: VRRP is a separate protocol implemented without needing a dynamic routing protocol.
14. How many MST instances are supported by default on Cisco switches?
A. 16
B. 64
C. 128
D. 4096
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: By default, Cisco supports up to 16 MST instances.
15. What happens if Loop Guard detects a unidirectional link?
A. Port goes into error-disabled
B. Port is placed in loop-inconsistent state
C. Port shuts down
D. Port reboots
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Loop Guard puts the port in a loop-inconsistent state to prevent STP loops.
16. Which command assigns a physical interface to EtherChannel 1?
A. channel-group 1 mode active
B. channel 1 group mode active
C. etherchannel group 1 active
D. port-channel 1 mode active
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct syntax is channel-group <number> mode <active|passive|on> under interface configuration mode.
17. What is true about HSRP group numbers?
A. Range from 0–255
B. Unique per VLAN
C. Shared across VLANs
D. Not configurable
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: HSRP group numbers range from 0 to 255 and identify different HSRP groups.
18. What is the recommended STP mode in a modern Cisco environment?
A. STP
B. PVST
C. Rapid PVST+
D. MST
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Rapid PVST+ is preferred for faster convergence in Cisco networks.
19. How is a switch’s bridge ID formed?
A. MAC + IP
B. Priority + VLAN ID
C. Priority + MAC
D. VLAN + MAC
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The bridge ID consists of the switch priority followed by the MAC address.
20. What is the STP priority value range?
A. 0–65535
B. 0–61440 (in increments of 4096)
C. 1–4096
D. 0–4095
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: STP priority values range from 0 to 61440 in increments of 4096.
21. Which VTP mode allows full VLAN configuration and advertisement?
A. Transparent
B. Server
C. Client
D. Passive
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In server mode, switches can create, delete, and advertise VLANs.
22. How do you disable DTP negotiation on a trunk?
A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport trunk nonegotiate
C. no switchport negotiate
D. switchport mode nonegotiate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This prevents the port from sending DTP frames, essential when connecting to devices that don’t support DTP.
23. Which protocol is Cisco proprietary for link aggregation?
A. PAgP
B. LACP
C. LLDP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: PAgP is Cisco’s proprietary protocol for dynamic EtherChannel configuration.
24. What is the result of a VLAN mismatch on a trunk port?
A. All VLANs forward normally
B. STP loop forms
C. Native VLAN mismatch error
D. Port shuts down
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A native VLAN mismatch causes a log warning and potential connectivity issues.
25. What defines a switchport as an access port?
A. switchport trunk allowed vlan
B. switchport mode access
C. access vlan enable
D. vlan access mode
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This command sets the port as access and assigns it to a single VLAN.
26. What is the function of UDLD in aggressive mode?
A. Log link failures
B. Send BPDUs
C. Disable misbehaving links faster
D. Delay link reactivation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Aggressive UDLD quickly disables a link upon detecting unidirectional communication.
27. Which protocol helps mitigate broadcast storms in switches?
A. STP
B. CDP
C. LLDP
D. DTP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: STP prevents loops, which are often the cause of broadcast storms.
28. In EtherChannel, what does LACP use to form bundles?
A. Priority and MAC
B. Port numbers
C. System priority and port priority
D. VLAN ID
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: LACP forms bundles using system and port priorities to determine which interfaces participate.
29. How many VLANs can be in the normal range on Cisco switches?
A. 0–4095
B. 1–1001
C. 1–1005
D. 1–4094
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: VLANs 1–1005 are in the normal range; VLANs 1006–4094 are extended.
30. What is the purpose of the native VLAN on a trunk?
A. Encapsulates all tagged frames
B. Carries untagged frames
C. Prevents loops
D. Forms EtherChannel
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The native VLAN is used to carry untagged traffic on trunk links.
31. What is the purpose of the vlan dot1q tag native command in Cisco IOS?
A. Tags all VLANs including the native VLAN
B. Disables the native VLAN
C. Converts native VLAN traffic to access mode
D. Prevents native VLAN propagation
✅ Answer: A
Explanation: By default, native VLAN traffic is sent untagged. Using vlan dot1q tag native ensures even native VLAN frames are tagged, preventing VLAN hopping attacks and ensuring secure traffic handling.
32. What is the effect of setting the STP priority to 0 on a switch?
A. Makes it the least preferred root bridge
B. Disables STP
C. Gives it the highest chance to become root bridge
D. Prevents it from participating in STP
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: STP uses the lowest bridge ID to elect the root bridge. A priority of 0 gives the switch the highest preference in root bridge selection.
33. Which command shows the current EtherChannel status of interfaces?
A. show etherchannel status
B. show channel status
C. show interfaces channel-group
D. show port status
✅ Answer: A
Explanation: show etherchannel status provides information about EtherChannel groups, interfaces, protocols (LACP/PAgP), and operational state.
34. What VLANs are pruned automatically when using VTP Pruning?
A. All VLANs
B. VLANs without active hosts on a trunk link
C. Native VLAN only
D. VLANs above 1005
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: VTP Pruning dynamically removes VLANs from trunks that do not have any active hosts for those VLANs, reducing unnecessary traffic.
35. Which of the following is NOT a valid LACP mode?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Desirable
D. On
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: ‘Desirable’ is a mode used by PAgP, not LACP. LACP modes are ‘active’ and ‘passive’.
36. What occurs when a port is placed in an err-disabled state?
A. It is removed from STP
B. It sends an SNMP trap
C. It stops forwarding traffic until manually re-enabled or recovery is configured
D. It resets automatically
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: Err-disabled ports shut down due to violations (e.g., BPDU Guard, security violations) and require manual or automatic recovery to resume traffic.
37. Which technology allows traffic mirroring to a remote destination over VLANs?
A. SPAN
B. ERSPAN
C. RSPAN
D. VSPAN
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: RSPAN (Remote SPAN) uses a special VLAN to mirror traffic across switches. ERSPAN is used for remote monitoring over IP.
38. In MST, what element ensures consistent configuration across all switches in a region?
A. Configuration digest
B. VLAN ID list
C. Domain name
D. Instance ID
✅ Answer: A
Explanation: The configuration digest (a hash value) must match among all switches in the same MST region to maintain consistency.
39. Which two protocols can be used for dynamic EtherChannel negotiation? (Choose two)
A. LACP
B. DTP
C. PAgP
D. VTP
E. CDP
✅ Answer: A, C
Explanation: LACP (IEEE 802.3ad) and PAgP (Cisco proprietary) negotiate EtherChannel formation dynamically. Others like DTP negotiate trunking, not bundling.
40. Which STP state is only used by PVST and not by RSTP?
A. Listening
B. Forwarding
C. Discarding
D. Learning
✅ Answer: A
Explanation: RSTP combines the ‘listening’ and ‘blocking’ states into a single ‘discarding’ state, making ‘listening’ exclusive to PVST.
41. What is the effect of enabling BPDU Guard on a port configured for PortFast?
A. It disables STP on the port
B. It allows only BPDUs from the root bridge
C. It places the port into err-disabled state upon receiving a BPDU
D. It forwards all BPDUs to the CPU
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: BPDU Guard protects the network by shutting down a PortFast-enabled port if it receives a BPDU, helping prevent STP manipulation.
42. Which command sets a switch’s bridge priority to influence STP root bridge election?
A. spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary
B. spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
C. spanning-tree priority default
D. spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 15
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: STP priority is adjusted with spanning-tree vlan <id> priority <value>. Lower values increase likelihood of becoming root.
43. What is the role of the switchport trunk allowed vlan command?
A. Sets the native VLAN
B. Restricts VLANs on a trunk
C. Disables DTP negotiation
D. Enables dynamic trunking
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: This command defines which VLANs can traverse a trunk, helping secure and optimize traffic on the link.
44. Which feature helps prevent broadcast storms due to misconfigured or faulty devices?
A. BPDU Filter
B. Loop Guard
C. UDLD
D. Storm Control
✅ Answer: D
Explanation: Storm Control monitors traffic levels and drops excessive broadcast, multicast, or unknown unicast traffic to prevent storms.
45. Which VTP mode allows full participation, including VLAN creation and advertisement?
A. Client
B. Server
C. Transparent
D. Pruning
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: VTP server mode allows VLAN creation, modification, and propagation to other VTP domain members.
46. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be configured in standard VTP?
A. 512
B. 1001
C. 4096
D. 1024
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: Standard VTP (version 1 and 2) supports VLANs 1–1005. VLANs 1006–4094 are only supported in VTP transparent mode or version 3.
47. What is the purpose of UDLD (Unidirectional Link Detection)?
A. To prevent STP loops
B. To detect physical unidirectional links
C. To prioritize voice traffic
D. To load-balance EtherChannel
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: UDLD detects one-way communication on fiber or copper links, preventing layer 2 loops by shutting down the faulty link.
48. What is the result of configuring spanning-tree portfast on a trunk port?
A. It is ignored and has no effect
B. The switch throws an error
C. PortFast operates only for the native VLAN
D. It disables STP
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: Cisco allows PortFast on trunks only for the native VLAN. The feature is not intended for trunks, but may work with caution.
49. How does the MST (Multiple Spanning Tree) protocol map VLANs to instances?
A. Based on VLAN IDs
B. Manually configured on each switch
C. Automatically by the switch
D. By VTP version
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: MST requires manual configuration of VLAN-to-instance mapping to optimize STP processing and load balancing.
50. Which command enables LACP on an interface actively?
A. channel-group 1 mode passive
B. channel-protocol lacp
C. channel-group 1 mode active
D. lacp active
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: To enable LACP actively, use channel-group <id> mode active. It initiates LACP negotiation with the remote device.
Question 51
Which command sets the root bridge priority to 24576 for VLAN 10 on a Cisco switch?
A. spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 24576
B. spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
C. spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 8192
D. spanning-tree root vlan 10 24576
Answer: A
Explanation: The spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 24576 command directly assigns a priority value. Lower values indicate higher priority in STP.
Question 52
What is the effect of the spanning-tree portfast command on a switch port?
A. Disables STP on the port
B. Immediately transitions the port to forwarding state
C. Enables BPDU Guard
D. Assigns the port as a root port
Answer: B
Explanation: PortFast causes a port to skip the listening and learning states, immediately entering the forwarding state, ideal for end devices.
Question 53
What is the default STP priority value on Cisco switches?
A. 0
B. 32768
C. 4096
D. 61440
Answer: B
Explanation: Cisco switches default to a priority of 32768 for each VLAN unless changed.
Question 54
Which STP enhancement protects against Layer 2 loops caused by unidirectional links?
A. Loop Guard
B. BPDU Guard
C. Root Guard
D. PortFast
Answer: A
Explanation: Loop Guard prevents alternate or root ports from becoming designated ports when BPDUs are missing, helping avoid unidirectional loop conditions.
Question 55
What Cisco protocol is used to automatically configure VLAN trunking between switches?
A. DTP
B. VTP
C. STP
D. CDP
Answer: A
Explanation: Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) negotiates trunking on interfaces between switches.
